Diagnostic Immunology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Immunology explores the principles and applications of immunological techniques used in the detection, diagnosis, and monitoring of diseases. The course emphasizes the immune systems role in health and disease, and examines methods such as serology, immunoassays, flow cytometry, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn to interpret results from tests for autoimmune disorders, allergies, infectious diseases, and immunodeficiencies. Practical components include laboratory exercises that develop hands-on skills in performing and troubleshooting various immunological assays, preparing students for roles in clinical and research laboratories.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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22 Chapters
562 Verified Questions
562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3821 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76262
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is characteristic of natural immunity?
A) Memory is involved.
B) Lymphocytes play a major role.
C) It is very specific.
D) It depends on normally present body functions.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is part of the external defense system?
A) ceruloplasmin
B) skin
C) neutrophils
D) complement
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following are components of innate (natural)immunity?
A) immunoglobulin
B) T helper cells
C) macrophages
D) B cells
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that primarily function by secreting large amounts of cytokines are:
A) plasma cells
B) B cells
C) T helper cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
Answer: C
Q2) Which cell is capable of producing antibody?
A) plasma cell
B) CD4+ T cell
C) macrophage
D) neutrophil
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen specific and directly cytotoxic for target cells?
A) macrophages
B) TH1 cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) natural killer cells
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76260
Sample Questions
Q1) A substance used to enhance antibody formation is called a(n):
A) hapten
B) adjuvant
C) immunogen
D) carrier
Answer: B
Q2) Heterophile antigens are characterized as:
A) found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-reacting with the same antibody
B) one's own self-antigens
C) any antigens used for immunization
D) all of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Which MHC class of antigens is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?
A) class I
B) class II
C) class III
D) No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins IgG,IgM,IgA,and IgD represent which of the following?
A) isotypes
B) allotypes
C) idiotypes
D) heterotypes
Q2) The valence of an IgG antibody molecule is:
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) ten
Q3) When papain is used to cleave antibody molecules,what are the products?
A) 2 Fab and Fc
B) two L chains and two H chains
C) VL,CL,VH,and CH
Q4) Which antibody is able to cross the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
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Chapter 5: Cytokines
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) IL-2 is produced by one cell and the same IL-2 stimulates that same cell.This type of cytokine activity is called:
A) autocrine
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) pleotropic
Q2) Which cells produce interleukin-1?
A) T helper cells
B) cytotoxic T cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
Q3) IL-1,IL-6,and tumor necrosis factor-alpha function by:
A) increasing vascular permeability
B) increasing acute phase proteins
C) acting on the hypothalamus
D) promoting migration of inflammatory cells
E) all of these
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Chapter 6: Complement System
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is able to activate complement?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgM
Q2) A deficiency in complement component C2 would result in:
A) increased vascular permeability
B) hereditary angioedema
C) severe infections with encapsulated bacteria
D) immune complex disease
Q3) A system of serum proteins that interact to enhance the immune response by producing cytolytic,chemotactic,and other effects best describes:
A) complement
B) fibrinogen
C) haptoglobin
D) CRP
Q4) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients due to health-care workers not washing their hands,this represents an example of:
A) lack of chemical hygiene
B) a sharps hazard
C) the chain of infection
D) a specimen transport problem
Q2) Information on any potentially toxic substance used in a laboratory test kit would be found in:
A) OSHA's Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
B) chemical hygiene plan
C) material safety data sheet
D) exposure control plan
Q3) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
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Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a single diffusion reaction?
A) RID
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) Ouchterlony diffusion
D) immunofixation electrophoresis
Q2) Radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis best describes which of the following?
A) immunofixation electrophoresis
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) Ouchterlony diffusion
D) rocket immunoelectrophoresis
Q3) Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes which of the following?
A) immunofixation electrophoresis
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) Ouchterlony diffusion
D) rocket immunodiffusion
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Chapter 9: Agglutination
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when specific antibody is present is called:
A) sensitization
B) precipitation
C) agglutination
D) flocculation
Q2) Which of the following would enhance an agglutination reaction?
A) polyethylene glycol (PEG)
B) high ionic strength saline
C) running the reaction at 4C
D) running the reaction at a high pH
Q3) When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them,this is known as:
A) direct agglutination
B) passive agglutination
C) reverse passive agglutination
D) hemagglutination
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11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes homogeneous assays?
A) A washing step is necessary.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
Q2) Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of enzyme immunoassay as far as the performance of the assay?
A) competitive
B) sandwich
C) ELISA
D) homogeneous
Q3) Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?
A) A limited number of binding sites are present.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
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Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reaction characterized by amplification of a specific region of a DNA strand through denaturing and annealing best describes which of the following?
A) signal amplification
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) solution hybridization
D) ligase chain reaction
Q2) What would be an advantage of using molecular diagnostic techniques in identification of specific HLA antigens instead of serological techniques?
A) less quality control needed
B) more specific
C) more rapid
D) all of the above
E) all except one of the above
Q3) In DNA sequencing,what is the purpose of the dideoxynucleotide bases?
A) to enhance synthesis of DNA
B) to stop growth of a DNA chain at a certain point
C) to make certain that only one strand of DNA is amplified
D) to create restriction fragment length polymorphisms
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13
Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?
A) CD3,CD4,and CD8
B) CD4,CD3,and CD5
C) CD5,CD8,and CD3
D) CD8,CD3,and CD2
Q2) Which of the following is an intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a flow cytometer?
A) surface expression of CD3
B) internal complexity
C) fluorescence intensity
D) nuclear morphology
Q3) If a test system has many false-positive results,this is a problem involving:
A) accuracy
B) precision
C) analytic sensitivity
D) sampling error
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14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:
A) RAST
B) RIST
C) serum protein electrophoresis
D) RID to measure IgG
Q2) All of the following are characteristic of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia EXCEPT:
A) The antibody responsible is IgG.
B) It is usually in older patients.
C) The antibody reacts as an anti-I.
D) The reaction is only seen at cold temperatures.
Q3) T cell-dependent hypersensitivity occurs:
A) 24 to 72 hours after exposure to the antigen
B) immediately after exposure to the antigen
C) 5 to 7 days after contact with antigen
D) 1 to 4 hours after contact with antigen
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15
Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease characterized by pain and progressive destruction of the joints,weight loss,morning stiffness,and presence of an antibody directed against IgG best describes:
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) lupus
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) hemolytic anemia
Q2) A 40-year-old woman presents with a lemon-yellow,waxy pallor and a red,beefy tongue.She is extremely fatigued and is having difficulty getting up in the morning and getting through the day.Antiparietal cell antibodies are found in her serum.This woman has:
A) Graves' disease
B) pernicious anemia
C) ulcerative colitis
D) type 1 diabetes
Q3) Which of the following are characteristic of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) It is usually found in children.
B) It is seen when the patient warms up.
C) The antibody reacts as an anti-I.
D) The antibody reacts as an anti-D.
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Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between leukemias and lymphomas?
A) In leukemias,malignant cells are mainly located in the tissues.
B) Lymphomas are present mainly in peripheral blood.
C) Lymphomas arise due to a lack of response to stimulating antigens.
D) Lymphomas arise mainly in lymph nodes,the spleen,or other lymphoid tissue.
Q2) What is the interpretation of the following patient results? (normal values)WBC = 7.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL),with 89% blasts; CD3 = 10% (60-80%); CD5 = 9% (60-80%); CD10 = 89% (< 1%); CD4 = 6% (30-65%); CD20 = 0% (5-20%); CD34 = 94% (< 1%); CD8 = 3% (10-40%); kappa = 0% (3-15%); lambda = 0% (2-10%); CD19 = 90% (5-20%).
A) normal
B) B-cell acute leukemia
C) T-cell acute leukemia
D) B-cell chronic leukemia
E) T-cell chronic leukemia
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Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autosomal recessive disease characterized by the presence of abnormally large granules primarily affecting the function of lysosomes is known as:
A) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
B) X-linked lymphoproliferative disease
C) leukocyte adhesion deficiency
D) common variable immunodeficiency
Q2) A 9-month-old infant is seen by a physician due to a persistent skin infection.His white and red blood cell counts are normal.However,immunofixation electrophoresis indicates a low level of IgG.When the infant returns to the physician for a follow-up visit in a month,his IgG level has increased.What condition do these results indicate?
A) SCID
B) transient hypogammaglobulinemia
C) common variable immunodeficiency
D) DiGeorge anomaly
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18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigens are most important in matching for tissue transplants?
A) HLA A and B
B) blood group antigens A or B
C) HLA DR1 and DQ1
D) all of the above
Q2) Which test would be best to determine the actual genotype in an HLA matching?
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B) serological testing
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) flow cytometry
Q3) The type of rejection that occurs within minutes to hours due to preformed antibody is known as:
A) delayed rejection
B) chronic rejection
C) accelerated rejection
D) hyperacute rejection
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Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes Helicobacter pylori?
A) It is a gram-positive coccus that causes skin infections.
B) It is a gram-negative spiral that causes ulcers.
C) It lacks a cell wall and produces a lot of acid.
D) It can be detected by testing for cold agglutinins.
Q2) What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
A) It is difficult to perform.
B) False-positives may be caused by certain viruses.
C) Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
D) It requires expensive instrumentation.
Q3) How does complement help in defense against bacterial invasion?
A) It promotes phagocytosis.
B) It neutralizes bacterial toxins.
C) It prevents bacteria from penetrating the skin.
D) It fuses lysosomal granules to bacterial cell walls.
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Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old male patient with AIDS exhibits pulmonary symptoms that include coughing and some difficulty breathing.The patient reported that he had previously worked in a bakery.His white blood cell count was normal,indicating that the infection is not bacterial in nature.Tests for the presence of fungal antigens were performed with the following results: ouchterlony immunodiffusion negative for antibodies to Aspergillus; negative latex agglutination test for Candida antigen,and positive EIA test for the galactomannan antigen of Aspergillus.What conclusion can be reached from these results?
A) The galactomannan is a false-positive result.
B) The infection is likely caused by Aspergillus.
C) The Candida antigen test is a false-negative
D) An Aspergillus infection is ruled out due to negative antibody testing.
Q2) A host's immunological response to parasites includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) formation of IgG,IgM,and IgA antibodies
B) production of cytokines
C) gamma-interferon production by natural killer cells
D) sequestering the parasite in host cells
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Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-negative in the screening tests for syphilis?
A) rotated too long
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) latent syphilis
D) slow rotator speed
Q2) Which of the following may characterize the disease process in syphilis?
A) generalized rash
B) period of latency
C) localized chancre
D) all of the above
E) all except one of the above
Q3) Which best describes the antibody called reagin found in syphilis?
A) It reacts with cardiolipin.
B) It is specific for treponemal antigen.
C) It appears in all patients within 7 days after exposure to syphilis.
D) It is detected by the FTA-ABS test.
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Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has detectable levels of IgG and IgM against the viral capsid antigens of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).This patient has:
A) been infected with EBV in the past
B) an infection with HIV,too
C) a current infection with EBV
D) never had EBV
Q2) A positive rubella titer in a healthy,nonpregnant 22-year-old female most likely indicates which of the following?
A) immunity after administration of the vaccine
B) current presence of the disease
C) no immunity
D) possibility of congenital rubella
Q3) In infectious mononucleosis,which of the following would be detectable earliest in the infection,thereby indicating a current infection?
A) anti-EA-IgG
B) anti-EBNA
C) anti-VCA-IgM
D) anti-VCA-IgG
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Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following HIV-encoded proteins/glycoproteins is the receptor for host cells?
A) p24
B) gp120
C) gp41
D) p31
Q2) All of the following body fluids are considered to be possible routes of transmission for HIV even if there is no visible sign of blood EXCEPT:
A) spinal fluid
B) semen
C) urine
D) vaginal secretions
Q3) The HIV p24 protein encodes:
A) group-specific antigen (GAG)
B) the receptor for host cells (ENV)
C) reverse transcriptase (POL)
D) none of these
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Page 24