Diagnostic Imaging Exam Review
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Imaging is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of medical imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Students will learn about the physics underlying imaging technologies, image interpretation, and the role of imaging in diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring disease progression. The course emphasizes safety protocols, patient care during imaging procedures, and the integration of diagnostic imaging into multidisciplinary healthcare approaches. Case studies and practical sessions reinforce the development of analytical and critical-thinking skills essential for interpreting medical images in diverse clinical scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mercury (Hg), a metal, is liquid at room temperature.Its density is 13.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.If you have 100 mL of Hg, how many grams do you have?
A)0.136
B)1.36 * 10<sup>-3</sup>
C)136
D)1.36 * 10<sup>3</sup>
Answer: D
Q2) Convert 7/12 to a decimal.
A)0.583
B)1.714
C)19.83
D)84.00
Answer: A
Q3) PV = nRT; solve for T.
Answer: PV/nR
Q4) V = 1/3\(\pi\)r<sup>2</sup>h; solve for \(\pi\). Answer: 3V/r<sup>2</sup>h
Q5) I = E/R + r; solve for r.
Answer: E - IR/I
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Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electromagnetic radiation with a frequency of 2,000 hertz would have a wavelength of
A)1/2,000 cm.
B)1.5 * 10<sup>-7</sup> cm.
C)1.5 * 10<sup>7</sup> cm.
D)cannot be determined
Answer: C
Q2) An element with an atomic number of 22 has how many electrons in the second principal quantum number level (L shell)?
A)22
B)10
C)8
D)2
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following are energy forms EXCEPT
A)sound.
B)thermal.
C)electrical.
D)nuclear.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The milliampere(mA) is a unit of A)EMF.
B)voltage.
C)current.
D)potential difference.
Answer: C
Q2) A 100 W light bulb with an amperage of 0.91 A is operating at a potential difference of A)110 volts.
B)100 volts.
C)11 kilovolts.
D)110 ohms.
Answer: A
Q3) Resistance is
A)the opposition to the flow of electrons.
B)the opposition to the generation of electromotive force.
C)the location of storage of electrons.
D)measured in amperes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Q1) An alternately expanding and contracting magnetic field is produced by A)a stationary magnet.
B)a steady current flowing in a wire.
C)a battery.
D)none of the above
Q2) an electron doper to improve conductance
A)semiconductor
B)diode
C)p-type material
D)n-type material
E)thyristor
F)valve tube
G)arsenic
H)gallium
Q3) A diode electron tube such as a valve tube
A)is used for amplification.
B)has a negatively charged anode.
C)is used to vary the primary voltage.
D)can be used for rectification.
Q4) The magnitude of an induced electromagnetic field depends on what four factors?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using AEC at 80 kVp, backup times
A)must not exceed 600 mAs.
B)are of no concern due to the AEC reliability.
C)may range from 600 to 2000 mAs.
D)should be manually set at 300% of the expected manual mAs.
Q2) two-position device used to initiate exposure
A)autotransformer
B)rotor stator
C)filament current
D)three-phase power
E)single-phase power
F)AEC
G)exposure switch
H)rectification circuit
Q3) All of the following are x-ray tube support systems EXCEPT
A)C-arm.
B)floor-to-ceiling.
C)overhead suspension.
D)fluoroscopic tower.
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) To cover a 14 in.x 17 ft field at 40 ft, a ____-degree target angle is required.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)12
Q2) As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal spot size
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
D)cannot be determined.
Q3) The area of the focal spot that is projected out of the tube toward the object being radiographed is the A)effective focal spot.
B)line focus.
C)actual focal spot.
D)x-ray tube long axis.
Q4) How many heat units are generated by an exposure of 100 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.01 second on a high-frequency unit?
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) M to L transition in atomic number 74
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
Q2) The energy of a characteristic photon is
A)equal to the binding energy of the entering electron.
B)equal to the binding energy of the exiting electron.
C)the sum of the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.
D)the difference between the binding energy of the outer and inner shells between which the electron dropped.
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Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In CT scanning, the total amount of energy directed at matter is expressed as A)Curie.
B)Integral Dose.
C)Effective Dose.
D)Kerma.
Q2) All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT A)film badge.
B)Geiger-Mueller counter.
C)scintillation detector.
D)ionization chamber instrument.
Q3) Biological effects of ionizing radiation include all of the following EXCEPT A)cancer.
B)cataract formation.
C)bacterial infections.
D)developmental abnormalities.
Q4) Equivalent dose (H<sub>T</sub>,R) takes into account
A)radiation exposure in air.
B)the rate of radioactive decay.
C)the absorbed dose and type of radiation.
D)the type of tissue irradiated.
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special gonadal shields should be employed any time the gonads are A)being radiographed.
B)directly in the primary beam.
C)within 5 cm of the primary beam.
D)within 1 mm of the primary beam.
Q2) To reduce an individual's exposure to ionizing radiation, all of the following would be acceptable EXCEPT
A)to reduce the amount of time spent in the vicinity of the radiation source.
B)to increase the distance between the individual and the radiation source.
C)to wear the radiation dosimeter at the collar.
D)standing behind a lead barrier during exposure.
Q3) By design, primary barriers are able to intercept and absorb
A)primary radiation.
B)secondary radiation.
C)the useful beam.
D)all of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following compensating filters is used most commonly in radiography of the femur?
A)K-edge
B)wedge
C)trough
D)Thoraeus
Q2) For an x-ray beam operated at 80 kVp,
A)the HVL should be 3.8 mm of Al.
B)a lower HVL is necessary.
C)the beam is harder than a 60 kVp beam.
D)adding filtration will increase patient dose.
Q3) All filtration can be expressed in terms of the thickness of A)HVL.
B)Pb/Eq.
C)Al/Eq.
D)Sn/Eq.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 12 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 72 inches.To reduce the image density by 50%, the new distance should be what?
Q2) In order to increase radiographic film density by 40%, the radiographer would
A)change the mAs from 15 to 21 mAs.
B)decrease the kVp by 40%.
C)increase the mAs by 20%.
D)decrease the distance by 40%.
Q3) Which of the following sets of exposure factors would best control involuntary motion?
A)100 mA, 0.09 sec
B)300 mA, 30 ms
C)500 mA, 18 ms
D)200 mA, 0.045 sec
Q4) Given 25 mAs and a milliamperage of 100, calculate the exposure time.
Q5) Given 5 mAs and a milliamperage of 200, calculate the exposure time.
Q6) An x-ray exposure of 200 mR is recorded at a distance of 40 inches.If the same technical factors are used, what will the exposure be if the distance is increased to 72 inches?
Q7) Given 50 mA and an exposure time of 0.50 second, calculate the mAs.
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which process is matter converted back to energy?
A)nuclear reaction
B)annihilation reaction
C)Compton scatter
D)photodisintegration
Q2) In the human body, ____ is the predominant interaction through most of the diagnostic x-ray range.
A)Compton scattering
B)coherent scatter
C)photoelectric interactions
D)photodisintegration
Q3) During photoelectric absorption, a/an ____ shell electron is ejected.
A)inner-
B)middle-
C)outer-
D)all of the above
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Q1) 1.7 mR/mAs
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q2) When the primary-beam field size ____, the patient exposure ____.
A)increases; decreases
B)decreases; decreases
C)decreases; increases D)increases; increases
Q3) The use of a grid will
A)decrease patient exposure.
B)increase patient exposure.
C)have no effect on patient exposure.
D)increase kVp.
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pattern recognition involves comparing mental images of ____ patterns to arrive at a diagnostic opinion.
A)histological
B)pathological
C)anatomical
D)all of the above
Q2) Which effect occurs because the visual system has difficulty in perceiving contrast differences that are distant from one another?
A)Conklin effect
B)boundary effect
C)threshold detection
D)Mach effect
Q3) Rods and cones respond to
A)visible light energy.
B)magnetic energy.
C)kinetic energy.
D)gamma energy.
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Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scatter radiation in radiography is produced during A)Compton interactions.
B)photoelectric effect interactions.
C)coherent or classical interactions.
D)an annihilation interaction.
Q2) All of the following are considered beam-restricting devices EXCEPT
A)aperture diaphragm.
B)beam filter.
C)positive beam limitation (PBL) device.
D)collimator.
Q3) The collimation assembly of a radiographic unit
A)employs an upper and lower set of shutter blades.
B)allows the radiographer to adjust the field size in a circular dimension.
C)removes the mirror assembly for exposures.
D)all of the above
Q4) A diaphragm is placed 6 inches from the focal spot.The diameter of the opening in the aperture is a 3-inch circle.What would be the projected image size if the SID were 40 inches?
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Q1) With the patient in the posterior-anterior projection of the abdomen (prone),
A)renal stones would have high resolution.
B)the lumbar vertebrae would have high resolution.
C)the psoas muscles would have high resolution.
D)the anterior ribs would have high resolution.
Q2) Which of the following elements would attenuate a greater percentage of the x-ray beam?
A)hydrogen
B)calcium
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q3) Which of the following elements would attenuate a lesser percentage of the x-ray beam?
A)hydrogen
B)barium
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q4) The beam emitted from the patient contains diagnostic information.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) 25-50% technique reduction could be necessary
A)additive conditions
B)Paget's disease
C)gout
D)hyperparathyroidism
E)empyema
F)destructive conditions
G)atrophy
H)pneumonia
Q2) As a patient is undergoing a colon examination, you notice under fluoroscopy the presence of colonic diverticuli in the descending and rectosigmoid colon.As you prepare for follow-up radiographs, you would determine your exposure technique and
A)increase the mAs for this condition.
B)decrease the mAs for this condition.
C)make no technique changes for this condition.
D)ask the radiologist if this is an additive or destructive condition and adjust technique accordingly..
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) The radiopaque strips
A)absorb scatter.
B)are made of dense material.
C)have a high atomic number.
D)all of the above
Q2) A Potter-Bucky diaphragm must move the grid in a direction that is ____ to the direction of the grid lines.
A)perpendicular
B)parallel
C)at a 45° angle
D)at a 37° angle
Q3) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using a 16:1 grid with a conversion factor of 6.75.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
Q4) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using 8 mAs at 85 kVp without a grid.A second film is requested using an 8:1 grid with a conversion factor of 4.What mAs is needed to produce the second radiograph?
Q5) If the lead strips are 2.0 mm high and are separated by an interspace of 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Q1) Which type of energy primarily interacts with the radiographic film in an intensifying screen cassette?
A)x-ray
B)heat
C)light
D)sound
Q2) flexible, polyester material bonded to an adhesive layer
A)Gurney-Mott theory
B)sensitivity speck
C)film base
D)supercoat
E)latent image
F)panchromatic film
G)duplicating film
H)orthochromatic film
I)manifest image
J)30-60%
K)halation theory
L)68 95%
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) Which type of replenishment system is designed to be used in a very busy radiology department?
A)metric replenishment
B)volume replenishment
C)flood replenishment
D)standard replenishment
Q2) The primary purpose of radiographic processing is to convert the ____ image into the ____ image.
A)latent; visible
B)latent; electronic
C)visible; latent
D)processed; latent
Q3) When phenidone and hydroquinone are combined, their reducing ability is greater than the sum of their independent abilities.This phenomenon is known as A)superreduction.
B)supermultiplicity.
C)superadditivity.
D)superoxidation.
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22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) \(\Delta\)D ÷ \(\Delta\)E
A)speed point
B)gamma
C)step wedge
D)densitometer
E)characteristic curve
F)latitude
G)average gradient
H)sensitometer
Q2) Film sensitivity is affected by the
A)size of the silver halide crystals.
B)number of sensitivity specks.
C)thickness of the emulsion layer.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Contrast is characterized on the H&D curve by
A)how close the toe is to the origin.
B)the slope of the straight line.
C)how close the shoulder is to D<sub>max</sub>.
D)the density at a given exposure value.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Q1) green-emitting rare earth phosphor
A)CaWO<sub>4</sub>
B)gadolinium oxysulfide:terbium activated
C)fluorescence
D)conversion efficiency
E)RS 100
F)MTF
G)artifact
H)phosphorescence
I)increases quantum mottle
J)line spread function
K)RS 400
L)lp/mm
Q2) Using an imaging system of RS 300, the system sensitivity would be
A)0.43 mR.
B)2.34 mR.
C)96 mR.
D)300 mR.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the choices below would produce the highest spatial frequency and contrast?
A)gall bladder
B)contrast filled urinary bladder
C)3 mm renal calculi (stone)
D)contrast-filled appendix
Q2) An eight-bit word is called a A)byte.
B)RAM.
C)bit.
D)ROM.
Q3) All of the following are true of local area processing EXCEPT:
A)It relies on the application of kernels to pixels.
B)Kernels are ultimately applied to the entire pixel data set.
C)Spatial filtering is an example of local area processing.
D)Electronic magnification of the image is an example of local area processing.
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) intends to A)streamline patient billing and accounts receivable for the provider.
B)consolidate major medical insurance companies into regional insurance co-ops.
C)protect a patient's medical information from unauthorized usage and access.
D)prevent the duplication of medical procedures and billings without prior authorization.
Q2) Light scattering, light leakage, and electron backscattering are examples of conditions that will cause
A)fogging.
B)glare.
C)blurring.
D)blooming.
Q3) The ____ includes image storage, image query, image retrieval, image print, storage resource, and examination.
A)service class
B)object class
C)object pair
D)service provider
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) What process is used to create a hard copy of digital images?
A)laser
B)DICOM formatting
C)wet mounting
D)You can't create hard copies of digital images.
Q2) A KUB is completed on an obese patient using AEC and 70kVp.The x-ray generator terminated early after hitting the preset backup mAs value.The final image reveals a low EI value.Effective image analysis could reveal that
A)the combination of AEC detectors was incorrect.
B)an increase of 2 kVp is necessary.
C)the backup mAs needs to be recalibrated.
D)an increase in grid ratio is all that is needed.
Q3) If the image quality acceptance limits are narrow,
A)image repeat rates may be high.
B)the department would be a good candidate for students.
C)the radiography staff would not expect to need regular inservices.
D)patient dosages would be unaffected.
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) If 80 kVp, 400 mA, and 0.025 sec.produce a satisfactory radiograph, what mAs was used?
Q2) affected by photographic properties of image
A)mAs
B)kVp
C)density maintenance formula
D)radiographic grids
E)15% rule
F)anode heel effect
G)focal spot size
H)recorded detail
I)EI value
J)visibility of detail
Q3) A radiograph of the forearm is produced using 4 mA at 55 kVp.What kVp is required to halve the exposure?
Q4) If a satisfactory PA chest radiograph is obtained with 4 mAs at 72 in., what mAs is required to maintain the same density at 60 in.?
Q5) If a radiograph using 40 mA (400 mA at 0.10 sec.) produced a radiograph with satisfactory density, what new time should be used at 200 mA?
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) contributing factor to total image contrast
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q2) When digital imaging receptors are used,
A)kVp is not a consideration.
B)radiographic grids are not necessary.
C)an exposure at 90 kVp would require a grid.
D)Compton scatter is not a factor.
Q3) kVp controls the proportional relationship
A)mAs and kVp.
B)Compton and photoelectric interactions.
C)photoelectric and characteristic interactions.
D)SID and patient thickness.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) As a last resort, which human immobilizer is used to hold a patient in position?
A)the radiography student
B)the radiologic technologist
C)the ER nurse
D)the male relative
Q2) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 6 in.
Q3) switching from a RS 400 receptor to a RS 200 receptor
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q4) Calculate the SID necessary to achieve a penumbra of 0.8 mm if the focal spot size is 1.0 mm and the object is 3 inches from the detector.
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) As size distortion decreases, the resolution of recorded detail
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)is not affected.
D)is lost.
Q2) Large patients receive a greater exposure than small patients because their
A)SOD is decreased.
B)OID is increased.
C)entrance skin surface is closer to the source.
D)all of the above
Q3) If an object measures 2 cm and the image measures 4 cm, what is the percent magnification of the object?
Q4) As OID increases and SID remains constant, entrance skin exposure (ESE)
A)remains unchanged.
B)decreases.
C)increases.
D)none of the above
Q5) If a projected image measures 3 in.and the magnification factor is 1.1, what is the size of the actual object?
Q6) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the OID is 5 in.
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be
A)clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail.
B)identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature.
C)determining if post-processing algorithms are accurate.
D)all of the above
Q2) residual feces in bowel
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
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32
Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective method to assess department image quality is to perform a repeat image analysis.This procedure will demonstrate which of the following department traits?
1) percent of repeat images per room
2) percent of repeat images per radiographer
3) automatic brightness control instability
4) radiologist interpretation accuracy
5) radiographer positioning accuracy
6) patient exam waiting times
7) equipment malfunctions
8) radiographer exposure technique accuracy
9) transmission times to PACS
A)1, 2, 3, 7, and 9 only
B)1, 2, 5, 7, and 8 only
C)3, 4, 6, 7, and 9 only
D)2, 5, and 8 only
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33
Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) When developing a fixed kVp exposure system it is important to remember that
A)tube heat loading increases
B)the optimal kVp selected is the maximum kVp established
C)exposure times may be longer.
D)a single kVp value is acceptable for all body parts and thicknesses.
Q2) When establishing technique charts, clinical trials precede phantom testing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fixed kVp systems
A)increase the consistency of image density.
B)increase the consistency of image contrast.
C)lengthen exposure latitude.
D)all of the above
Q4) All of the following are advantages of the fixed kVp technique system EXCEPT:
A)Patient dose is higher.
B)mAs values are at a minimum based upon thickness.
C)Radiographic contrast is predictable and uniform.
D)A greater exposure latitude is permitted.
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34
Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) The backup time of most AECs is set at ____ of the anticipated manual exposure time.
A)10%
B)50%
C)100%
D)150%
Q2) +2 used when N would have been optimum
A)phototiming
B)minimum response time
C)backup mAs
D)underexposed image
E)overexposed image
F)density controls
G)all three detectors
H)center detector only
Q3) When an AEC is used for a PA chest, which ionization chambers are utilized?
A)the center cell
B)the left and right outer cells
C)all three cells
D)the right outer cell only
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 65 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 14 cm?
Q2) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a three-phase, high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single phase,2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.
Q3) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the fixed kVp theory.The part measuring 10 cm and 6 mAs was used.To maintain exposure, what mAs should be used if the part measures 6 cm?
Q4) An acceptable radiographic image is taken under the following conditions: single phase-2p, 400 mA, 75 ms, 1.2 mm fs, 82 kVp, 44" SID, 400 RS receptor, 8:1 grid. What change would need to take place with the exposure conditions below, in order to maintain image quality?
HF generator, 1.0 mm fs, 94 kVp, 44" SID, 300 RS receptor, 12:1 grid
A)Change the exposure to 300 mA , 46 ms.
B)Switch to a RS 200 receptor with no compensation.
C)Change to 20 mAs.
D)Decrease the SID to 40" with no compensation.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) During optimal mobile radiography of the chest, the recommended SID is ____ inches.
A)72
B)56
C)40
D)36
Q2) For mobile radiography, radiographic grids should have a
A)high ratio and low frequency.
B)low ratio and low frequency.
C)cross-hatch design.
D)low ratio and high frequency.
Q3) All of the following are true of capacitor-discharge units EXCEPT:
A)Their output is a function of large capacitors.
B)They are quite popular due to their small size and weight as well as output.
C)They function with low-power supply sources.
D)The final kVp is variable as a function of exposure time.
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Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Photoemissive materials absorb ____ and emit ____.
A)x-ray photons; light photons
B)light photons; electrons
C)light photons; x-ray photons
D)x-ray photons; electrons
Q2) uniform across the detector surface array
A)input phosphor
B)1-3 R/min
C)10 R/mn
D)fluoroscopic carriage
E)brightness gain
F)primary barrier
G)output phosphor
H)CsI
I)photocathode
J)ZnS-CdS:Ag
K)vignetting
L)TFT resolution
Q3) What is the minification gain for an image intensification tube with an input screen diameter of 10 in.and an output diameter of 2 in.?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nearly all contemporary tomography currently is
A)linear.
B)polytomography.
C)multidirectional.
D)stratotomography.
Q2) The diagnostic modality of choice for an acoustic neuroma located in the inner ear is
A)wide angle tomography.
B)thin cut linear tomography.
C)CT scanning.
D)linear zonography.
Q3) Tomographic images are
A)inherently high contrast due to the thickness of the cut.
B)inherently low contrast.
C)primarily taken of the sagittal plane of the patient.
D)commonly taken of the head.
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39
Chapter 38: Mammography
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Q1) introduced the first dedicated mammography system
A)beryllium
B)tungsten
C)optimum kVp range
D)magnification imaging
E)microcalcifications
F)molybdenum
G)17-20 kev
H)Companie Generale de Radiographique
I)mammography SID
J)developed a dry process for mammography
K)rhodium
L)MQSA
M)NEXT
N)expected to become the mammography gold standard
Q2) Breast compression is applied at ____ pounds of force.
A)1 to 5
B)5 to 20
C)25 to 45
D)50 to 60
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) lowest dose type of DXA technology
A)fan-beam DXA
B)osteopenia
C)WHO
D)SPA
E)osteoblasts
F)osteoporosis
G)pencil-beam DXA
H)osteoclasts
I)NEXT
J)small stature
Q2) Quantitative ultrasound
A)commonly uses the forearm for analysis.
B)is as accurate as DXA scanning for assessing the degree of bone loss.
C)is economical and more convenient that DXA scanning.
D)measures the attenuation of sound energy and the thermal energy it creates in bone.
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pressure of a contrast medium injector is measured in A)pounds per square inch.
B)pounds per cubic centimeter.
C)force per density.
D)viscosity per square inch.
Q2) The heat-loading capacity of an x-ray tube depends on A)focal spot size.
B)anode angle.
C)generator configuration.
D)all of the above
Q3) How many heat units are generated by a series of 30 exposures using 70 kVp, 200 mA, 250 ms.on a single-phase unit?
Q4) The contrast medium warming device on the pressure injector is intended to A)bring the contrast medium to room temperature.
B)maintain the temperature of the contrast medium.
C)bring the contrast medium to body temperature.
D)increase contrast viscosity through warming.
Q5) How many heat units are generated by a series of 15 exposures using 75 kVp, 400 mA, 150 ms sec.using a HF generator?
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) First-generation CT scanners scanned the ____ only.
A)head
B)thorax
C)abdomen
D)pelvis
Q2) The resolution of the CT image depends on the A)pixel.
B)voxel.
C)matrix size.
D)all of the above
Q3) A series of tissue density values that evolved for CT measurements is called ____ units.
A)Hounsfield
B)H & D
C)attenuation
D)iterative
Q4) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q5) If the table is moving at 12 mm/sec., and a section thickness of 10 mm is being acquired, what is the pitch?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast-enhanced MR images use ________as the contrast material of choice.
A)iodine
B)barium
C)gadolinium
D)hydrogen
Q2) The time between a 180-degree pulse and a 90-degree inversion pulse in an inversion recovery pulse system is
A)spin density (\(\rho\)).
B)repetition time (TR).
C)echo time (TE).
D)inversion time (TI).
Q3) The primary variable in the data collection procedure during MRI is the A)repeats.
B)stationary magnet.
C)sequence of RF pulses.
D)all of the above
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44
Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) The isotope of choice for most nuclear medicine medical procedures is
A)Gallium-67.
B)Iodine-131.
C)Fluorine-18.
D)Technetium-99m.
Q2) similar to electron except for atomic origin
A)hot lab
B)MUGA
C)alpha emission
D)NRC
E)bone scan
F)elution
G)gamma emission
H)V/Q scan
I)PET scanning
J)wipe testing
K)beta emission
L)uptake probe
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiotherapy treatment plans
A)are carried out by the radiotherapists.
B)require the patient to suspend respiration for the duration of the treatment.
C)require that laser lines are superficially and painlessly burned into the patient's skin.
D)allow patients to readjust their position after a period of time.
Q2) Linear accelerators are capable of
A)360-degree rotation.
B)x-ray and electron therapy.
C)measuring dose rate in real time.
D)all of the above
Q3) The therapy treatment fields are measured in
A)milli-ampere seconds (mAs).
B)Compton scatter ratios (C/R).
C)monitor units (MU).
D)Roentgens (R).
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Q1) piezoelectric crystal material
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
Q2) A sonogram is studied by a radiologist for interpretation, and while reading the images, he/she notes that the patient may have situs inversus.This is a condition in which the normal anatomy is reversed left to right or right to left.To confirm this condition,
A)the transducer markers must be confirmed as being accurate.
B)a CT scan of the abdomen is taken to check anatomy.
C)a radiograph of the patient is automatically taken to check anatomy.
D)the patient can be asked if they have this condition, as most patients know this anyway.
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