Diagnostic Imaging Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Imaging provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and applications of various imaging modalities used in clinical practice, including X-ray, ultrasound, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and nuclear medicine techniques. The course emphasizes the technical aspects, safety considerations, and interpretation of imaging results, equipping students with the knowledge necessary to assist in the diagnosis and management of a wide range of medical conditions. Students will also explore recent advances in imaging technology and the ethical considerations involved in its use within healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Nuclear Medicine and PETCT Technology and Techniques 8th Edition by Kristen M. Waterstram
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24 Chapters
583 Verified Questions
583 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Mathematics and Statistics
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator is eluted Monday at 7:00 AM, producing 1.8 Ci of <sup>99m</sup>Tc in the eluate vial, in 20 ml saline.What volume of eluate should be withdrawn from the eluate vial into a syringe in order to inject a patient with 20 mCi of <sup>99m</sup>Tc at 3:00 PM? (Given the half-life of <sup>99m</sup>Tc is 6.02 hours.)
A)0.56 ml
B)0.66 ml
C)0.76 ml
D)0.86 ml
Answer: A
Q2) One radiologist is known to be a lax reader compared with another radiologist who is known to be a strict reader.In comparing these radiologists, how would one expect their sensitivity and specificity to compare?
A)The lax reader would have lower sensitivity and higher specificity.
B)The lax reader would have higher sensitivity and lower specificity.
C)The readers would be expected to have the same sensitivity and specificity.
D)Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cell and Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is converted into a protein within the __________ of eukaryotic cell.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondria
C)ribosome
D)Golgi body
Answer: C
Q2) The large organelle often referred to as "the control center" of the cell is the A)lysosome.
B)nucleus.
C)centrosome.
D)Golgi body.
Answer: B
Q3) Which are the three main cell cycle checkpoints?
A)G<sub>1, </sub>restriction, and metaphase/anaphase
B)G<sub>1</sub>, G<sub>2</sub>/M, and mitotic spindle
C)G<sub>1</sub>, G<sub>2</sub>/M, and anaphase/telophase
D)Restriction, DMA damage, and anaphase/telophase
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry/biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The products of a neutralization reaction are
A)an acid and a base.
B)salt and water.
C)a chelate and a ligand.
D)a standard solution.
Answer: B
Q2) In the chemical symbol <sup>Z</sup>X<sub>A </sub>, the A number is
A)the number of protons and neutrons.
B)the number of protons and electrons.
C)the number of protons minus the number of electrons.
D)the number of neutrons minus the number of protons.
Answer: B
Q3) The physical properties of a substance may be affected by a change in conditions.If this occurs, when the substance returns to its original condition, the physical properties A)result in the formation of one or more "new" substances.
B)will be the same as the initial properties.
C)will still be different because they cannot have their change reversed.
D)result in a change of physical state.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Radio-Chemistry/Radio-Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are commonly used PET radionuclides, EXCEPT A)(<sup>15</sup>O).
B)(<sup>13</sup>N).
C)(<sup>14</sup>C).
D)(<sup>18</sup>F).
Q2) When compared to the wet column <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator, the dry column <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator has
A)a better elution yield due to decreased radiolysis products.
B)a poorer elution yield due to decreased radiolysis products.
C)a better elution yield due to increased radiolysis products.
D)a poorer elution yield due to increased radiolysis products.
Q3) The <sup>99</sup>Mo-<sup>99m</sup>Tc generator is an example of
A)a transient equilibrium system.
B)the separation of fission products.
C)a secular equilibrium system.
D)an accelerator product.
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Chapter 5: Radiation Safety in Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A point source with an exposure rate of 0.20 mrem/hr is placed behind 4 HVL of lead.What is the exposure rate in mrem/hr to the technologist with the shielding in place?
A)0.050
B)0.800
C)0.125
D)0.0125
Q2) Skin that is contaminated with a radioactive material should be washed with soap or a commercial radioactive decontaminating agent
A)vigorously under tepid water.
B)vigorously under cold water.
C)gently under tepid water.
D)gently under cold water.
Q3) The TLDs store the energy from the exposure in matrices in the TLD material, which A)can be read instantly.
B)serves to attenuate the radiation to assist in determining energy and quantity.
C)releases the energy by application of heat or laser light when processed.
D)darkens with the energy that is deposited and is developed later.
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Chapter 6: Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiopaque contrast media (ROCM) are used in CT procedures to better visualize
A)low-contrast tissue.
B)the functional units of the organs.
C)high-contrast tissues.
D)solid structures.
Q2) A draw sheet is used with patients to
A)protect the bedding from possible patient incontinence.
B)provide added warmth.
C)provide added cushioning.
D)aid in patient transfer.
Q3) Before the administration of ROCM, the technologist should know the patient's A)BUN level.
B)creatinine level.
C)T<sub>4</sub> level.
D)alkaline phosphatase level.
Q4) The most direct way to intervene in the cycle of infection is to
A)provide a susceptible host for the pathogen outside of the human body.
B)limit contact with patients.
C)prevent transmission of the pathogen from the reservoir to a susceptible host.
D)isolate vector-borne pathogens.
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Chapter 7: Department Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a leader celebrates and recognizes the accomplishments of team members, this leadership behavior is termed
A)encourage the heart.
B)inspire a shared vision.
C)enable others to act.
D)model the way.
Q2) A departmental and systematic approach to monitoring and evaluating the various aspects of a project, service, or facility to ensure that standards of quality are met defines
A)quality control.
B)quality assurance.
C)quality monitoring.
D)quality management.
Q3) Licensure and certification are forms of A)accreditation.
B)problem-solving techniques.
C)evaluation.
D)credentialing.
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Chapter 8: Clinical Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Original medical records used as documentation in a clinical trial are termed
A)protocol documents.
B)research contracts.
C)source documents.
D)investigator notes.
Q2) Which term is defined as a process whereby the subject is given an opportunity to review all of the study procedures, benefits and risks of the study, and alternative treatment available to them if they choose not to participate in the study?
A)Informed consent
B)Institutional review board
C)Protocol document
D)Source document
Q3) The one individual who is entirely responsible for the conduct of the trial is the A)lead technologist.
B)protocol supervisor.
C)primary investigator.
D)contracted researcher.
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Chapter 9: Health Informatics in Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interpolation results in a loss of image data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an 8-bit color image, the range of displayed color intensities would be
A)0 to 64.
B)0 to 100.
C)0 to 128.
D)0 to 255.
Q3) Hardware magnification or zoom
A)decreases resolution.
B)increases noise.
C)only increases image size.
D)increases sensitivity.
Q4) The image density for each pixel is determined by
A)the gamma-ray counts stored within a pixel.
B)the ratio of the z pulse to the x and y pulse.
C)the counts detected minus the rollover counts.
D)size of the matrices in which the pixels configured.
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Chapter 10: Physics of Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest particle of a chemical compound that retains all the chemical properties is a(n)
A)atom. B)isotope.
C)element. D)molecule.
Q2) The minimum MeV photon energy required for pair production is
A)0.511.
B)1.022.
C)5.110.
D)10.22.
Q3) When electron capture occurs,
A)an orbital electron is captured and combined with a proton to form a neutron.
B)a beta-minus electron is recaptured and added to a proton to form a neutron.
C)there is a transfer of energy from the nucleus to an orbital electron.
D)an orbital electron is captured and converted to a positron.
Q4) The total number of protons is referred to as the atomic mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In multihole low-energy collimators, longer and smaller holes produce
A)better uniformity.
B)better sensitivity.
C)better intrinsic resolution.
D)better spatial resolution.
Q2) Geometric efficiency is defined
A)as the ratio of the number of detected events to the number of source emissions.
B)as the fraction of emitted photons (gamma or x-rays) that hit the detector; it depends on the detector configuration and its distance from the source.
C)as the fraction of gamma rays that are detected when they hit the detector; it depends on the thickness (t) and attenuation coefficient (\(\mu\)) of the detecting material.
D)as the amount of blurring that is produced by an imaging system, characterized by point spread function and line spread function.
Q3) In SPECT/CT imaging, it is best if the patient does shallow breathing throughout the scan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: CT Physics and Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a reconstruction kernel?
A)A unit of data in a reconstructed CT image
B)The entire data set used to produce reconstructed images in CT
C)A measurement used to determine the data set used for CT reconstruction
D)An algorithm that defines the clinical application and amount of image smoothing applied in the reconstruction
Q2) Collimators in CT scanning are used to do all of the following EXCEPT
A)limit the beam size.
B)reduce scattered x-rays.
C)define slice thickness.
D)offset the alignment of the tube and detector array to optimize the beam location.
Q3) In an x-ray tube, of the energy applied to the system, the percentage of x-rays that exit is
A)1%.
B)10%.
C)50%.
D)99%.
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Chapter 13: Pet Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) With PET radionuclides, the higher the energy particle, A)the greater the mean range for the travel of the positron.
B)the shorter the mean range for the travel of the positron.
C)won't have an effect on the mean range for the travel of the positron.
D)it reduces the mean range for the travel of the positron.
Q2) In a PET system, gain update calibration should be performed at least A)weekly.
B)quarterly.
C)annually.
D)following repair.
Q3) In a dedicated PET scanner, there is a photomultiplier tube (PMT) for A)each crystal.
B)every other crystal.
C)a group of crystals.
D)every ring in crystals.
Q4) All of the following have been used as crystals for PET imaging EXCEPT A)BGO.
B)LSO.
C)LYSO. D)YBGO.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Principles of Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding the gyromagnetic ratio EXCEPT
A)it is a constant.
B)it relates angular momentum and magnetic moment.
C)it is characteristic of each nuclei.
D)it relates the number of spin-up and spin-down nuclei.
Q2) All of the following are true about spin-up nuclei EXCEPT
A)they are larger in number than spin-down nuclei.
B)they align parallel to the magnetic field.
C)they are of low energy.
D)they are cancelled out by spin-down nuclei.
Q3) In a strong magnetic field, hydrogen atoms can align
A)perpendicular or antiperpendicular to the magnetic field.
B)parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field.
C)oblique or antioblique to the magnetic field.
D)at random to the magnetic field.
Q4) T1 is also referred to as MXY.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Clinical Petct in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When imaging lymphomas, PET
A)can distinguish between scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
B)is comparable to CT in distinguishing scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
C)is comparable to MRI in distinguishing scar tissue and residual tumor after therapy.
D)is not involved in staging but is involved in therapy evaluation.
Q2) In the United States, breakthrough reimbursement for PET scans was determined by the
A)U.S.Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS).
B)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
C)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
Q3) At the time of a PET scan, ideally the blood glucose level should not be above
A)60 mg/dL.
B)100 mg/dL.
C)120 mg/dL.
D)180 mg/dL.
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Chapter 16: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is scheduled for a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-HMPAO brain scan.The technologist must remember that <sup>99m</sup>Tc-HMPAO
A)only crosses a compromised blood-brain barrier and in proportion to blood flow.
B)remains trapped in the subarachnoid space for 20 minutes after injection.
C)acts as an analog to thallium-201.
D)remains trapped in the brain in proportion to cerebral blood flow at the time of injection.
Q2) Which radiopharmaceutical is used for ictal SPECT imaging?
A)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-HMPAO
B)(<sup>111</sup>)In-labeled DTPA
C)(<sup>99m</sup>)Tc-pertechnetate
D)(<sup>18</sup>)F-FDG
Q3) The images in a cerebrospinal fluid leak study show an initial wide segmental appearance with no activity in the basal cisterns at 2 to 3 hours after injection.The technologist should
A)count the pledgets.
B)continue routine images at 6, 24, and 48 hours after injection.
C)prepare for a reinjection.
D)have the patient change position and then repeat the image.
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Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a possible pheochromocytoma.The technologist should prepare to image the
A)parathyroid glands.
B)pituitary gland.
C)kidneys.
D)adrenal glands.
Q2) When performing a thyroid scan, in addition to an anterior view, oblique views should be taken
A)to provide better information on the localization of the gland.
B)to provide better information on the thickness of the gland.
C)to better define nodules that may be on the anterior or posterior surface.
D)to demonstrate nodules, if any, in more than one plane.
Q3) One of the three basic approaches to selecting the dose of <sup>131</sup>I to be administered as therapy for hyperthyroidism is
A)a relatively fixed dose in which the patient receives 50 to 100 mCi of <sup>131</sup>I.
B)a dose based on millicuries delivered per kilogram of thyroid tissue.
C)a dose based on selecting a radiation absorbed dose to the thyroid.
D)a dose based on selecting the organification rate of the thyroid.
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Chapter 18: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the image of an aerosol ventilation study shows activity in the bronchi and the stomach, the technologist
A)checks the particle size of the aerosol to be certain it is within the limits.
B)performed the perfusion study first.
C)continues with the study because this is normal.
D)adjusts the nebulizer flow rate.
Q2) The diameter of macroaggregated albumin (MAA) particles is
A)0.05 to 0.10 µm.
B)0.5 to 5 µm.
C)10 to 90 µm.
D)1 to 2 m.
Q3) Because of the importance of the washout phase in a xenon ventilation study, it is technically
A)advantageous to perform the ventilation prior to the perfusion.
B)advantageous to perform the perfusion prior to the ventilation.
C)advantageous to perform the ventilation with SPECT.
D)unimportant to perform the perfusion prior to the ventilation.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing equilibrium-gated blood pool imaging, temporal smoothing should be used only when
A)the heart rate is regular.
B)the heart rate is erratic.
C)premature contractions are detected.
D)there are tall P waves in the cardiac cycle.
Q2) Clearance or redistribution of thallium takes place
A)immediately post injection.
B)immediately post injection during stress.
C)over the course of 30 minutes to 1 hour post injection.
D)over the course of about 4 hours post injection.
Q3) When processing an equilibrium-gated blood pool study, subtraction of too much background results in a falsely
A)elevated ejection fraction.
B)depressed ejection fraction.
C)equivocal ejection fraction.
D)normal ejection fraction.
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Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) The <sup>14</sup>C-urea breath tests enables detection of A)stomach infection by the H.pylori bacterium.
B)urease activity in the lungs.
C)esophageal reflux of urease.
D)enterogastric urease reflux.
Q2) After administration of the radiopharmaceutical for a radionuclide oropharyngeal study, the patient is instructed to
A)return for delayed imaging in 30 minutes.
B)return for delayed imaging in 1 1/2 to 2 hours.
C)dry swallow every 15 seconds for 5 minutes while images are taken.
D)take a sip of water every 15 seconds for 5 minutes while images are taken.
Q3) A <sup>99m</sup>Tc sulfur colloid liver/spleen scan demonstrates the function of A)hepatocytes.
B)Kupffer cells.
C)bile ducts.
D)parenchyma cells.
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Chapter 21: Genitourinary System
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Q1) With planar scintigraphy, the kidney may appear smaller than its normal size if the A)radiopharmaceutical was compounded improperly.
B)camera is too far from the patient.
C)patient moves during the image acquisition.
D)long axis is not parallel to the surface of the camera crystal.
Q2) The kidneys span the distance between the
A)5th and 12th thoracic vertebrae.
B)12th thoracic vertebra and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.
C)1st and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.
D)3rd lumbar vertebra and the sacroiliac joint.
Q3) On a renal scan, the right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney.Because of this, the technologist should
A)suspect that there is a tumor above the right kidney causing a displacement.
B)continue the scan because this is normal.
C)take additional views of the right side.
D)perform SPECT.
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Chapter 22: Skeletal System
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Q1) Visualization of the kidneys on a <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP scan is considered
A)abnormal, because <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP is excreted via the bowel.
B)normal, because <sup>99m</sup>Tc-MDP is excreted via the urinary tract.
C)abnormal and is indicative of calcifications.
D)rarely seen because of uptake by the vertebra.
Q2) What are the two types of bone tissue?
A)Compact and spongy
B)Spongy and trabecular
C)Cortical and compact
D)Trabecular and cortical
Q3) In the evaluation of primary bone neoplasms, bone scans
A)are the first step in diagnosis.
B)are used to detect disease elsewhere.
C)are used instead of radiographs for diagnosis.
D)demonstrate the primary bone neoplasm as a photopenic area.
Q4) A nomogram is used for
A)determining proper scan speed.
B)determining proper ID.
C)determining equal-time imagery.
D)determining sites of superimposition.
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Chapter 23: Inflammatory Tumoroncology Imaging and Therapy
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Q1) Patient preparation for an <sup>111</sup>In-capromab pendetide imaging procedure should include
A)the administration of a diuretic 24 hours prior to injection.
B)adequate hydration prior to imaging.
C)an enema during the 24 hours prior to injection.
D)an enema on the morning of the imaging.
Q2) Once <sup>99m</sup>Tc-sulfur colloid is administered as a pretreatment for abdominal malignant effusion therapy, the patient is instructed to
A)refrain from any exercise for the following 4 hours.
B)drink fluids and void frequently.
C)roll from side to side for 60 to 90 minutes.
D)return the following day for administration of the therapy dose.
Q3) A patient arrives in a nuclear medicine department for therapy for non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).The radioimmunotherapy used is
A)(<sup>89</sup>)Sr-chloride.
B)(<sup>90</sup>)Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan.
C)(<sup>153</sup>)Sm-lexidronam.
D)(<sup>32</sup>)P-phosphate.
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Chapter 24: Hematopoietic System
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Q1) The values for a patient that has a 2% standard are: Standard = 9500 cpm
Urine sample = 658 cpm
Urine sample volume = 4 mL
Total urine volume = 1300 mL
The percent excretion for this patient is
A)15%.
B)23%.
C)45%.
D)56%.
Q2) When using the <sup>51</sup>Cr-ascorbic acid method to label erythrocytes, the ascorbic acid is added to
A)transport the <sup>51</sup>Cr across the hemoglobin molecule.
B)increase the tagging efficiency.
C)stop the tagging procedure.
D)increase counting efficiency.
Q3) The hematocrit (Hct) represents the
A)percentage of RBCs in whole blood.
B)percentage of RBCs in the packed cells.
C)ratio of RBCs to platelets.
D)ratio of RBCs to WBCs.
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