Diagnostic Hematology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Hematology is an in-depth study of the principles and practices involved in the laboratory diagnosis of blood disorders. This course covers the fundamental aspects of blood cell formation, morphology, and function, along with the pathophysiology of hematological diseases such as anemias, leukemias, and coagulopathies. Students learn key laboratory techniques, including complete blood count, blood smear preparation and interpretation, and specialized tests for the evaluation of various hematological conditions. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical findings with laboratory data to develop diagnostic skills essential for effective patient care in clinical hematology settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultimately, megakaryocytes lead to the formation of non-nucleated, cytoplasmic fragments called:
A) Granulocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Monocytes
E) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) What characteristics are helpful in the identification of monocytes?
A) Gray-blue cytoplasm
B) Digestive vacuoles
C) Lacy, delicate chromatin and indented nucleus
D) "Ground-glass" appearance of cytoplasm with evenly distributed fine granules
E) All of the above
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood cell aids hematopoiesis by the direct transfer of iron to erythroid precursors?
A) Monocyte
B) Macrophage
C) Erythrocyte
D) Lymphocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) How many nucleated cells must be classified in a bone marrow differential count?
A) 50-100
B) 100-500
C) 500-1000
D) >1000
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are abnormal hemoglobins that cannot transport or deliver oxygen?
A) Carboxyhemoglobin
B) Methemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Normal hemoglobin production is dependent on which of the following?
A) Adequate iron delivery and supply
B) Adequate synthesis of protoporphyrin
C) Adequate globin synthesis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method for hemoglobin determination results in the formation of hemoglobin cyanide?
A) Carboxyhemoglobin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) Cyanmethemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q2) What percentage of senescent circulating RBCs is lost daily in a healthy ambulatory individual?
A) 5%
B) 3%
C) 1%
D) 7%
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the normal range for MCHC?
A) 25-30%
B) 32-36%
C) 36-38%
D) 40-42%
E) 25-30 pg
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heinz bodies are a result of:
A) Denatured hemoglobin
B) Residual RNA
C) Residual DNA
D) Hemoglobin H
E) None of the above
Q2) A 2+ grading for poikilocytosis would indicate what percentage of RBCs would differ from normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
Q3) Hypochromia is defined as any red cell having a central area of pallor of greater than which value?
A) 1 µm
B) 2 µm
C) 3 µm
D) 5 µm
E) Any of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many milligrams of iron are needed to produce 1 mL of red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) 1 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 20 mg
D) 3 mg
E) 0.5 mg
Q2) To carry oxygen iron must be in what state in the heme of the hemoglobin molecule?
A) Ferric (Fe<sup>3+</sup>)
B) Carboxylated iron
C) Ferrous (Fe<sup>2+</sup>)
D) Metheme
E) None of the above
Q3) One-third of the total body iron may be found in storage pools such as:
A) Bone marrow
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with pernicious anemia has the following indices: mean corpuscular volume (MCV) >100 fL, mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) = 31 pg, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 33% What might be seen on the peripheral smear?
A) Codocytes
B) Macrocytes
C) Microcytes
D) Schistocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) What statement is true regarding pancytopenia?
A) Decreased RBC
B) Decreased white blood cells (WBCs)
C) Decreased platelets
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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9
Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including
Pure Red Cell
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is used to confirm the diagnosis of PNH?
A) Autohemolysis test
B) Sugar water test
C) Ham's test
D) Coombs' test
E) None of the above
Q2) Which classes of PNH is deficient in both decay-accelerating factor (DAF) and membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL)?
A) PNH I and PNH II
B) PNH II and PNH III
C) PNH I, PNH II, and PNH III
D) PNH I only
E) None of the above
Q3) The diagnosis of PNH depends on the detection of complement-sensitive __________ in the peripheral blood.
A) Granulocytes
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytes
D) Monocytes
E) None of the above
10
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does (HE) (4.1) denote?
A) Hereditary spherocytosis with the absence of spectrin
B) Hereditary elliptocytosis with the absence of protein 4.1
C) Hereditary elliptocytosis with the absence of spectrin
D) Hereditary elliptocytosis with a partial deficiency of protein 4.1
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of HPP?
A) Microspherocytosis
B) Partial deficiency of spectrin
C) RBC fragmentation and micropoikilocytosis
D) Thermal instability of red cells when heated to 45°C in vitro
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following represents hereditary intracorpuscular defects?
A) Red blood cell (RBC) membrane defects
B) Enzyme deficiencies
C) Hemoglobinopathies
D) Thalassemia
E) All of the above
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the second most frequently encountered enzyme deficiency that causes a hemolytic anemia?
A) Hexokinase
B) Lactic dehydrogenase
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following types of G6PD enzyme is the most common form in all populations and exists in 99% of whites in the United States?
A) Gd A+
B) Gd A-
C) Gd Med
D) Gd B
E) Gd Canton
Q3) Patients with which type of G6PD deficiency present with chronic hemolysis?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following red cell inclusions may be seen in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell anemia as a result of rapid RBC turnover and "stressed" erythropoiesis?
A) Siderotic granules
B) Cabot rings
C) Howell-Jolly bodies
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q2) What is the most common pattern of inheritance for hemoglobinopathies?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Codominant
D) X-linked
E) Any of the above
Q3) Which of the following can precipitate or promote sickling of red blood cells?
A) Decrease in oxygenation
B) Decrease in pH
C) Dehydration
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
14
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old boy presents with the following hematologic results: RBC = 5.76 million, Hb, 10.4 g/dL; Hct, 35.9%; MCV (mean corpuscular volume), 63 fL: MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin), 18.2 pg; MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration), 29%; and RDW (red blood cell distribution width), 13.5. Morphology includes mild anisocytosis and occasional target cells. All iron studies are normal. Electrophoresis on cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 indicates an increase in HbF and HbA<sub>2</sub>. What thalassemia syndrome is evident?
A) -thalassemia
B) -thalassemia
C) Hemoglobin E disease
D) Sideroblastic anemia
E) None of the above
Q2) Homozygosity for the \(\beta\)<sup>0</sup> or \(\beta\)<sup>+</sup> thalassemia gene results in:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Alpha thalassemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Thalassemia minor
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibodies do not cause a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Anti-E
B) Anti-K
C) Anti-e
D) Anti-C
E) Anti-M
Q2) Chemicals or drugs that induce oxidative stress in red cells may result in hemoglobin being denatured and the formation of which type of inclusion?
A) Hemoglobin H inclusions
B) Siderocytes
C) Howell-Jolly bodies
D) Heinz bodies
E) Pappenheimer bodies
Q3) The alternate pathway may be triggered by:
A) Microorganisms
B) Polysaccharides
C) Lipopolysaccharides
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In chronic liver disease, the hematologic picture may demonstrate the presence of:
A) Acanthocytes
B) Target cells
C) Macrocytes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Chronic blood loss in a patient with malignancy results in __________ anemia.
A) Hyperchromic
B) Hypochromic
C) Normochromic
D) Infection-associated
E) None of the above
Q3) In the anemia of inflammation it is suggested that one of the reasons for a decreased transferrin saturation may be:
A) Inadequate diet
B) Iron is blocked in the fixed macrophages in the bone marrow
C) Accumulation of porphyrin precursors in the liver
D) Dietary iron is not adsorbed from GI tract
E) Transferrin deficiency
17
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myeloperoxidase is present in the primary granules of __________.
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) __________ are the most numerous leukocytes found in the blood.
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Basophils
Q3) What is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?
A) Herpes virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Coxsackie virus
E) None of the above
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Promyelocytes constitute 10% of this acute leukemia with more than 50% of leukemia cells positive for peroxidase or SBB. What is the FAB leukemia classification?
A) M1
B) M2
C) M3
D) M4
E) None of the above
Q2) Cases of pure __________ ALL have the best prognosis.
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
E) None of the above
Q3) The alpha-naphthyl butyrate stain is used to identify __________ cells.
A) Monocytic
B) Granulocytic
C) Megakaryocytic
D) B lymphocytes
E) None of the above
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Q1) The prominent laboratory feature representative of CML is:
A) Leukocytosis with left shift
B) Leukocytosis with megaloblastic anemia
C) Leukopenia with lymphocytosis
D) Leukopenia with reticulocytosis
E) None of the above
Q2) Which cell types contain the Ph chromosome in patients with CML?
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Erythrocyte
D) Platelet
E) All of the above
Q3) In CML, transformation to a more critical phase is evident by the appearance of which cells?
A) Blasts
B) Promyelocytes
C) Myelocytes
D) Bands
E) Metamyelocytes
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Chapter
Myeloproliferative
Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the etiology of the myeloproliferative disorders?
A) An intracorpuscular defect due to an abnormality in hematopoietic cell membrane
B) A neoplastic transformation of a single multipotential stem cell
C) An inherited disorder caused by various enzyme defects in lipid metabolism
D) A lymphocytic malignancy
E) An inherited bone marrow defect
Q2) In both absolute erythrocytosis and relative erythrocytosis the hematocrit is
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) Normal
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In female patients with RA and elevated platelet counts, which chromosome abnormality is most often found?
A) (5q-)
B) t(8;21)
C) (7q-)
D) t(15;17)
E) t(9;22)
Q2) Which MDS classification has the best prognosis?
A) RAEB-T
B) RAEB
C) RA
D) CMML
E) None of the above
Q3) Which specific features are characteristic of dysgranulopoiesis morphology in MDS?
A) Hypergranulation
B) Pure Pelger-Huët anomaly
C) Auer rods
D) Hypersegmentation in bone marrow
E) None of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative
Disorders
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Q1) Immune dysfunction within proliferating B cells of CLL is indicated by:
A) Monoclonal gammopathy
B) Hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Hypergammaglobulinemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) CLL has been known to occur simultaneously with what hematologic disorder?
A) Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML)
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
C) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Hairy cell leukemia
E) None of the above
Q3) The laboratory test for detecting minimal residual disease in patients who have previously been treated for CLL but currently lack histopathologic evidence of relapse is the:
A) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B) Complete blood count (CBC) and differential
C) Electrophoresis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) All follicular center lymphomas are composed of a mixture of:
A) Small cleaved and small non-cleaved cells
B) Centrocytes (small cleaved) and centroblasts (large non-cleaved) cells
C) Large cleaved cells and immunoblasts
D) Prolymphocytes and immunoblasts
E) All of the above
Q2) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphomas are characterized by all of the following except:
A) Extranodal involvement
B) Associated follicular hyperplasia
C) CD19+, CD5+, CD10+, phenotype
D) t(11;18)
E) Indolent behavior
Q3) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are thought to be derived from lymphocytes present in the following lymph node compartments:
A) Intrafollicular
B) Mantle zone
C) Marginal zone
D) Interfollicular
E) All of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monoclonal gammopathy occurs in the sixth to eighth decade of life and is characterized by the presence of an M-spike with IgG < 3.5 g/dL, IgA < 20 g/dL, urinary light chains < 1.0 g/24 hr, and < 10% plasma cells in the bone marrow?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
C) Solitary plasmacytoma
D) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the etiology of macroglobulinemia?
A) Loss of regulation of a clone of immature lymphocytes
B) Loss of regulation of a clone of cells that are staged between the mature lymphocytes and early plasma cells
C) Loss of regulation of granulocytic cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) Which is significant regarding the appearance of lymphocytes and monocytes in the peripheral blood of a person with Niemann-Pick disease?
A) Dark blue nucleus
B) Vacuolated cells
C) Blue-gray cytoplasm
D) Nucleoli present
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the most common form of Niemann-Pick disease?
A) Adult
B) Infantile
C) Adolescent
D) Juvenile
E) None of the above
Q3) Clinical manifestations of sea-blue histocyte syndrome include all of the following except:
A) Splenomegaly
B) Hepatomegaly
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Epistaxis
E) Enlarged lymph nodes
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) What is the end product of coagulation?
A) Thrombin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Prothrombin
D) Fibrin
E) None of the above
Q2) The organelle region is responsible for the __________ activities of the platelet.
A) Metabolic
B) Physical
C) Kinetic
D) Enzymatic
E) None of the above
Q3) Which event activates the common pathway?
A) Activation of factor X by factor VIIa, factor III, and calcium
B) Activation of factor X by IXa, factor VIII, calcium, and PF3
C) Activation of factor XII to XIIa
D) A and C
E) A and B
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative
and Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) Thrombocytosis is classified as:
A) Platelet count <400 \(\times\)10<sup>3</sup>/µL
B) Platelet count >400 \(\times\)10<sup>3</sup>/µL
C) Platelet count 100-350 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>/µL
D) Platelet count is >50 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>/µL
E) None of the above
Q2) Individuals with chronic liver disease are often associated with a significant hemorrhagic diathesis. Abnormal platelet function tests in these patients include all of the following except:
A) Reduced platelet adhesion
B) Abnormal platelet aggregation with ristocetin
C) Abnormal PF3 availability
D) Abnormal platelet aggregation to thrombin
E) None of the above
Q3) __________ is a common clinical manifestation of the various paraproteinemias.
A) Thromboembolism
B) Bleeding
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Disseminating intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E) None of the above
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Q1) Which is (are) an effective treatment(s) for vWD?
A) Cryoprecipitate
B) Concentrates of vWF
C) Red blood cells
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q2) The reptilase time is a test that is used to differentiate the presence of __________ from a fibrinogen abnormality.
A) Heparin
B) Coumarin
C) Warfarin
D) Lupus anticoagulant
E) All of the above
Q3) Anti-factor VIII antibodies (inhibitors) may arise:
A) Spontaneously
B) In the elderly
C) Due to factor replacement therapy
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
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Page 29
Chapter 27:
Interaction
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Which of the following are characteristics of urokinase?
A) Synthesized by the kidney
B) Low affinity for fibrin
C) Excreted in the urine
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following has/have been used in the treatment of TTP?
A) Antiplatelet drugs
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Exchange transfusion
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q3) Which form of plasminogen is more readily converted to active plasmin by plasminogen activators?
A) Glu-plasminogen
B) Val-plasminogen
C) Lys-plasminogen
D) Arg-plasminogen
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) Activated protein C (APC):
A) Cleaves and inactivates factor Va
B) Cleaves and activates factor Va
C) Is an inhibitor of coagulation
D) A and C
E) B and C
Q2) Which of the following clinical features is not significant when evaluating a patient with suspected thrombophilia?
A) History of recurrent fetal loss
B) Age at which thrombotic event occurred
C) History of myocardial infection (MI)
D) Chemotherapy
E) Height
Q3) Naturally occurring substances that limit thrombogenesis include antithrombin, heparin cofactor, and __________.
A) Protein S
B) Protein C
C) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following is a cause of a shift?
A) Rerunning a control material
B) Not performing maintenance when due
C) Improperly prepared reagent
D) Analyzing a patient sample without a barcode
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a postanalytical factor?
A) Entering patient's results into the computer
B) Calculating patient's results
C) Transporting the specimen to the laboratory
D) Notifying physician of patient's results
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a random error?
A) Bubbles in syringes
B) Leaky tubing
C) Clogs in tubing
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is a part of quality assurance?
A) Procedure manual
B) Equipment function checks
C) Calibration verification procedures
D) All of the above
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Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of cytocentrifugation?
A) Cell differentiation is determined by Wright-Giemsa staining
B) A good cell recovery is possible.
C) Malignant cells are difficult to identify with this type of preparation.
D) The cytocentrifuge slide becomes a permanent record.
Q2) Which type of crystal appears as small, bipyramidal or pleomorphic shapes?
A) Monosodium urate
B) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Basic calcium phosphate
E) Cholesterol
Q3) Which type of crystals typically appear as rectangles with notched corners and also as Maltese crosses under polarized light?
A) Monosodium urate
B) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Basic calcium phosphate
E) Cholesterol
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress reticulocytes can be differentiated from mature reticulocytes by:
A) Filamentous reticulum
B) Presence of polychromatophilic macrocytes on the peripheral smear
C) Presence of microcytes on the peripheral smear
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which stain is used to visualize reticulocytes?
A) Prussian blue
B) New methylene blue
C) Wright's stain
D) Giemsa stain
E) None of the above
Q3) When measuring the hematocrit, the RBCs are separated from plasma during centrifugation, rendering a white band consisting of WBCs and platelets. This band is termed the __________ .
A) Lecithin
B) Buffy coat
C) Red cell interface
D) Plasma interface
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Technicon H1 instrument identifies and grades (1+ to 4+) various RBC abnormalities including:
A) Microcytosis
B) Macrocytosis
C) Hypochromia
D) Hyperchromia
E) All of the above
Q2) In the Technicon H1, cells are counted as they pass in front of a laser beam by a __________ detector.
A) Cell volume
B) Conductivity
C) Light scatter
D) Ion
E) None of the above
Q3) The RDW is calculated as the coefficient of variation (CV) of the __________.
A) Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
C) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
D) Mean platelet volume (MPV)
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) vWF activity may become normal in patients with vWD:
A) During inflammation
B) During pregnancy
C) After transfusions with factor VIII
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The __________ is the time required for thrombin to convert fibrinogen to an insoluble fibrin clot.
A) PT
B) APTT
C) TT
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
Q3) All of the following interfere with the functional protein S assay performed with mechanical clot detection except:
A) 2 IU/mL unfractionated heparin
B) Activated protein C resistance
C) Lipemia
D) Oral anticoagulants
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Q1) While evaluating data from an analysis, the analyst suspects spectral bleed-over has occurred. What can be done so that each detector only measures the signal for the appropriate fluorescent dye?
A) Increase the voltage to each detector
B) Properly set the fluorescence compensation control
C) Decrease the threshold setting
D) Remove the optical filters
Q2) Flow cytometry is a technology that provides rapid measurement of:
A) Physical characteristics of cells
B) Cellular stain affinities
C) Suspension fluidics
D) Sample laminar flow rate
Q3) The forward-scattered (FSC) and side-scattered (SSC) values for lymphocytes compared with those for monocytes and neutrophils are:
A) Lower
B) Higher
C) Identical
D) Indeterminate
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes are most commonly used for sequence-specific cleavage of DNA?
A) EcoR1
B) BamH1
C) HindIII
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which substance acts as an intermediary to DNA in transmitting genetic information?
A) Oncogenes
B) Chromosomes
C) RNA (ribonucleic acid)
D) Nucleotides
Q3) Human DNA is packaged into how many chromosomes?
A) 46
B) 23
C) 26
D) 50
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ stain incorporates the substrate alpha-naphthol butyrate coupled with the diazo salt for staining of macrophages.
A) Peroxidase
B) Specific esterase
C) Nonspecific esterase
D) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
E) None of the above
Q2) __________ percent of patients with acute undifferentiated leukemia will have positive TdT activity.
A) 50
B) 30
C) 20
D) 5
E) None of the above
Q3) Auer rods are peroxidase __________.
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Variable
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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