Course Introduction
Diagnostic Hematology Exam Preparation Guide
Diagnostic Hematology provides a comprehensive overview of hematologic principles, focusing on the techniques and interpretation of laboratory tests used to diagnose blood disorders. The course covers the morphology and physiology of blood cells, bone marrow evaluation, and the pathophysiology of anemias, leukemias, lymphomas, and coagulopathies. Emphasis is placed on laboratory methodologies such as complete blood counts, peripheral blood smear analysis, specialized staining techniques, and molecular diagnostics. Students will develop practical skills in identifying hematological abnormalities and correlating laboratory findings with clinical presentations to support accurate diagnosis and effective patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lymphoblast can be identified morphologically by what characteristics?
A) Small round nucleus, basophilic cytoplasm, nucleoli
B) Large round nucleus, basophilic cytoplasm, no nucleoli
C) Small eccentric nucleus, basophilic cytoplasm, nucleoli
D) Large round nucleus, basophilic cytoplasm, nucleoli
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The first sign of neutrophilic differentiation and appearance of secondary granules is evident in what cell type?
A) Promyelocyte
B) Myelocyte
C) Segmented neutrophil
D) Metamyelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myeloid-to-erythroid ratio represents:
A) The ratio of granulocytic and their precursors to nucleated erythrocytes and their precursors
B) The ratio of myeloid to non-nucleated erythroid cells
C) The ratio of myeloid to eosinophilic cells
D) The ratio of monocytoid to erythroid cells
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Under which magnification should bone marrow initially be examined?
A) (\(\times\)40)
B)( \(\times\)4)
C) (\(\times\)10)
D) (\(\times\)100)
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of ATP needed by the RBC is generated by the Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 5%
D) 90%
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In hemoglobinuria, oxyhemoglobin predominates in alkaline urine and gives it what color?
A) Purple
B) Red
C) Brown
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heinz bodies may be seen in what hematologic disease?
A) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
B) Alpha thalassemia
C) Unstable hemoglobinopathies
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) In the presence of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), hemoglobin can more readily release the oxygen it is carrying to peripheral tissues. In the state of chronic anemia, this compound is usually:
A) Unchanged
B) Increased
C) Decreased
D) Change is regulated by pH
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the normal range for MCH?
A) 27-31 pg
B) 20-25 pg
C) 27-32%
D) 32-36%
E) 32-36 pg
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are proposed mechanisms of macrocytosis except:
A) Impaired DNA synthesis
B) Impaired RNA synthesis
C) Accelerated erythropoiesis
D) Increased membrane cholesterol and lecithin
E) None of the above
Q2) A normal size red cell with a slit-like area of central pallor is called a:
A) Drepanocyte
B) Ovalocyte
C) Sickle cell
D) Stomatocyte
E) Target cell
Q3) Evaluation of macrocytosis on a peripheral blood smear should include:
A) Shape
B) Presence of inclusions
C) Color
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by:
A) Macrocytic, hyperchromic RBCs
B) Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
C) Increased bone marrow storage iron
D) Increased bone marrow ringed sideroblasts
E) None of the above
Q2) Hemosiderosis is the accumulation of excess __________ in the macrophages of various tissues.
A) Iron
B) Heme
C) Hemopexin
D) Globin
E) All of the above
Q3) What percentage of total body iron is present as plasma/transport iron?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 20%
D) 50%
E) 10%
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Q1) Which cell lineage may also be affected by megaloblastic change?
A) Megakaryocytic
B) Lymphocytic
C) Granulocytic
D) A and C
E) B and C
Q2) What findings distinguishes megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficiency from that due to folate deficiency?
A) Severe neurologic manifestation
B) Jaundice
C) Abnormal epithelial cells
D) High reticulocyte count
E) None of the above
Q3) A lack of intrinsic factor is diagnostic for which of the following?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
B) Folate deficiency
C) Pernicious anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 9
Chapter
Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone marrow in a PNH patient reveals:
A) Erythroid hyperplasia
B) Myeloid hyperplasia
C) Erythroid hypoplasia
D) Myeloid hypoplasia
E) None of the above
Q2) All may be present in the peripheral blood of a patient with aplastic anemia except:
A) Myelocyte
B) Metamyelocyte
C) Relative lymphocytosis
D) Reticulocytosis
E) None of the above
Q3) Which drug(s) is/are the primary cause(s) of aplastic anemia?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Phenylbutazone
C) Penicillin
D) A and B
E) B and C
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are classic clinical manifestations of hereditary spherocytosis (HS)?
A) Jaundice
B) Anemia
C) Enlarged spleen
D) Mild uncompensated hemolytic anemia
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following tests reflect an increase in red cell destruction?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Hemoglobinemia
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Hemosiderinuria
E) All of the above
Q3) The morphologic hallmark of HS hereditary spherocytosis on the peripheral blood smear is:
A) Polychromasia
B) Ovalocytes
C) Spherocytes
D) Poikilocytes
E) Sickle cells Page 11
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Q1) What is the major clinical feature of a patient with methemoglobinemia?
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Cyanosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pallor
E) Favism
Q2) Which of the following represents the second most frequently encountered enzyme deficiency that causes a hemolytic anemia?
A) Hexokinase
B) Lactic dehydrogenase
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
E) None of the above
Q3) A laboratory result that would suggest a PK deficiency on a 20-year-old patient is/are?
A) Negative direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
B) Abnormal autohemolysis test uncorrected by the addition of glucose
C) Normal osmotic fragility test in freshly drawn blood
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Q1) Which of the following hemoglobin(s) is/are present in hemoglobin SC disease?
A) HbS
B) HbA
C) HbC
D) A and C
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following sickle cell crises is the hallmark of sickle cell anemia?
A) Hemolytic
B) Aplastic
C) Painful or vaso-occlusive
D) Any of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following may be associated with inherited decreased affinity hemoglobins?
A) Mild anemia
B) Cyanosis
C) Shift to the right of the oxygen-dissociation curve (high P<sub>50</sub> levels)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
14
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin A consists of:
A) Two alpha (\(\alpha\)) chains and two gamma (\(\gamma\)) chains
B) Two alpha chains and two delta (\(\delta\)) chains
C) Two alpha chains and two beta (\(\beta\)) chains
D) Two alpha chains and two epsilon (\(\varepsilon\)) chains
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following comprise the clinical categories of alpha thalassemia except:
A) Bart's hydrops fetalis syndrome
B) Hemoglobin H disease
C) Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
D) Alpha thalassemia 1
E) Alpha thalassemia 2
Q3) Which type of \(\beta\)\(\beta\)+ thalassemia produces the least amount of beta chains?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Type 4
E) None of the above
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical feature suggests an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Fever
B) Chills
C) Hypotension
D) Nausea
E) All of the above
Q2) Which drug mechanism functions by modifying the red cell membrane so that normal plasma proteins are absorbed non-immunologically?
A) Immune complex
B) Drug absorption
C) Membrane modification
D) Methyldopa-induced
E) Autoimmune
Q3) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is usually characterized by the presence of:
A) Schistocytes
B) Increased platelets
C) Leukocytosis
D) Normocytes
E) Target cells
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the anemia of alcoholism, treatment of the underlying __________ disease is essential to the reversal of anemia.
A) Kidney
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Renal
E) Lymph node
Q2) In the anemia of inflammation it is suggested that one of the reasons for a decreased transferrin saturation may be:
A) Inadequate diet
B) Iron is blocked in the fixed macrophages in the bone marrow
C) Accumulation of porphyrin precursors in the liver
D) Dietary iron is not adsorbed from GI tract
E) Transferrin deficiency
Q3) Iron deficiency in patients with chronic liver disease is due to:
A) Blood loss
B) Poor dietary habits
C) Dysfunctional porphyria
D) Dysfunctional hemoglobin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of ingestion of foreign organisms by neutrophils, extensions located on the membrane surface surround the organism in a cup-like fashion until they fuse. These extensions are termed:
A) Pseudopods
B) Flagella
C) Cilia
D) Microtubule
E) Antigens
Q2) What other hematologic condition will support the diagnosis of May-Hegglin anomaly in addition to the neutrophil abnormalities?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Leukocytosis
D) Thrombocytosis
E) Lymphocytosis
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18
Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Q1) Which cytochemical stain is used to detect acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (M7)?
A) Myeloperoxidase
B) SBB
C) Platelet peroxidase
D) TdT
E) None of the above
Q2) Leukemia cells are frequently present in the peripheral blood and commonly invade the reticuloendothelial tissue which includes the __________.
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Lymph nodes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The cytochemical reactions are performed by applying staining techniques to __________ smears.
A) Peripheral blood
B) Bone marrow
C) Touch preparation
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Q1) What is the etiology of chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A) Increased maturation in the granulocytic series
B) Neoplastic transformation of the hematopoietic pluripotent stem cell
C) Virus mediated
D) Suppression of myelopoiesis by cytokine
E) None of the above
Q2) In CML the term "maturation arrest" refers to the:
A) Presence of cellular differentiation beyond the blast stage
B) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the blast or promyelocyte stage
C) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the band stage
D) Absence of cellular differentiation beyond the metamyelocyte stage
E) None of the above
Q3) When CML is diagnosed in infants and toddlers, it is called __________ CML.
A) Young
B) Juvenile
C) Infant
D) Myelofibrosis
E) AML
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Chapter 18:
Chronic Myeloproliferative
Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with myelofibrosis secondary to gastrointestinal disease may develop a __________ anemia due to excessive blood loss.
A) Normocytic/normochromic
B) Microcytic/hypochromic
C) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
D) Normocytic/hypochromic
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following are causes of reactive thrombocytosis?
A) Acute hemorrhage
B) Postsplenectomy and hyposplenism
C) Malignancy
D) Iron-deficiency anemia
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the usefulness of myelosuppression as a treatment in polycythemia vera?
A) Alleviates pruritus
B) Suppresses abnormal bone marrow proliferation
C) Controls effects of splenomegaly
D) Suppresses thrombocytosis
E) All of the above
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Q1) What characterizes the cytogenetic analysis of patients with MDS?
A) Translocations
B) Inversions
C) Deletions
D) Reciprocal translocations
E) All of the above
Q2) Ringed sideroblasts (type III) are seen in what MDS classification?
A) RA
B) RAEB
C) RAEB-T
D) RARS
E) None of the above
Q3) Chromosomal abnormalities are directly correlated with the presence of the __________ population in patients with MDS.
A) Promyelocyte
B) Blast
C) Megakaryocyte
D) Erythrocyte
E) None of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Q1) What are the consequences of the accumulation of the lymphocytes in the peripheral blood and bone marrow in a patient with CLL?
A) Neutropenia
B) Anemia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which morphologic factors distinguish the lymphocytes of CLL from normal mature lymphocytes?
A) Nucleoli
B) N/C ratio
C) Exaggerated nuclear chromatin
D) Secondary granules
E) None of the above
Q3) Suppression of all classes of immunoglobulin is evident in CLL, resulting in:
A) Hypergammaglobulinemia
B) Decreased susceptibility to infections
C) Autoimmune disease
D) Hypothyroidism
E) None of the above
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Q1) The morphologic hallmark of Hodgkin's lymphoma is a peculiar cell called the __________ cell.
A) Ann Arbor
B) Reed-Sternberg
C) Hairy cell
D) Rappaport
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following cell types are commonly found in mixed cellularity Hodgkin's disease?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Histiocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) Reed-Sternberg cells
E) All of the above
Q3) Most patients with Hodgkin's lymphoma present with which symptom?
A) Fever
B) Painless lymph node swelling
C) Fatigue
D) Pallor
E) None of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Q1) Which monoclonal gammopathy occurs in the sixth to eighth decade of life and is characterized by the presence of an M-spike with IgG < 3.5 g/dL, IgA < 20 g/dL, urinary light chains < 1.0 g/24 hr, and < 10% plasma cells in the bone marrow?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
C) Solitary plasmacytoma
D) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
E) None of the above
Q2) Myeloma patients treated with alkylating agents have a significant risk of developing treatment-related __________.
A) Acute myelogenous leukemia
B) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) All of the following are characteristic of the three types of Gaucher's disease except:
A) Hepatosplenomegaly
B) Gaucher cells present in bone marrow
C) Increased serum acid phosphatase
D) Hypercalcemia
E) None of the above
Q2) In some patients with mucopolysaccharidoses, leukocytes such as lymphocytes and polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) contain abnormally large granules. These large granules are called:
A) Alder-Reilly bodies
B) Howell-Jolly bodies
C) Döhle bodies
D) Chédiak-Higashi anomaly
E) May-Hegglin anomaly
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) Which of the following represents factor IV?
A) Prothrombin
B) Stuart-Prower factor
C) Calcium
D) Hageman factor
E) None of the above
Q2) Platelet stored products are released through the __________.
A) Glycocalyx
B) Plasma membrane
C) OCS
D) Mitochondria
E) None of the above
Q3) Factor XIII is assigned as what coagulation protein?
A) Antihemophilic factor
B) Fibrin-stabilizing factor
C) Christmas factor
D) Hageman factor
E) None of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) All of the following are possible mechanisms for the pathogenesis in TTP except:
A) TTP plasma is deficient in a platelet-aggregating factor inhibitor
B) Large vWF multimers promote platelet agglutination.
C) Endothelial cell damage via a plasma factor results in platelet adhesion.
D) Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase (aspirin-like)
E) Deficiency of prostacyclin (PGI<sub>2</sub>) synthesis and release leading to platelet aggregation and thrombosis
Q2) Thrombocytosis may result from which of the following?
A) Increased platelet production
B) Proliferation of megakaryocytes
C) Reactive to transient stimuli to the bone marrow
D) Chronic marrow stimulation by malignancy or inflammation
E) All of the above
Q3) __________ is a common clinical manifestation of the various paraproteinemias.
A) Thromboembolism
B) Bleeding
C) Thyroid dysfunction
D) Disseminating intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E) None of the above
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Q1) The persistence of activated factor V in the circulation is caused by:
A) Antithrombin III
B) Antiphospholipid antibodies
C) Activated protein C resistance
D) Dysfibrinogenemia
E) Protein C
Q2) Prothrombin complex concentrates consist of which plasma factors?
A) II, VII, XI, XII
B) I, II, V, IX, X
C) I, IV, V, VII, XII
D) II, VII, IX, X
E) None of the above
Q3) Which test(s) (is) are performed in screening for vWD?
A) vWF activity
B) APTT
C) Bleeding time
D) FVIII:C level
E) All of the above
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Chapter
27: Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Which laboratory test differentiates decompensated DIC from compensated DIC?
A) PT
B) APTT
C) Fibrinogen
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which term refers to a condition of DIC in which active hemorrhage is evident and the consumption of coagulation factors and platelets exceeds the capacity to increase the synthesis of these components?
A) Decompensated
B) Compensated
C) Hypercoagulability
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The peripheral blood smear in DIC resembles that of:
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
C) Hemoglobin C disease
D) Megaloblastic anemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) Which laboratory test is used to monitor low-molecular-weight heparin therapy?
A) FDP
B) Anti-Xa chromogenic assay
C) Thrombin time
D) PT
E) APTT
Q2) Why is thrombogenesis greatly accelerated by the presence of platelets?
A) The phospholipid platelet membrane offers support for the surface-dependent activation process of coagulation.
B) Thrombin can stimulate the platelet release reaction.
C) Alpha granules contain, among other things, fibrinogen, factor V, and von Willebrand's factor (vWF)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The central reaction in the fibrinolytic system is the conversion of:
A) Fibrinogen to fibrin
B) Prothrombin to thrombin
C) Plasminogen to plasmin
D) Plasmin to plasminogen
E) None of the above
Page 32
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which quality approach is used after a problem occurs to investigate the cause of the problem?
A) Root cause analysis
B) FMEA
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q2) Which of the following can be considered a matrix?
A) Urine
B) Whole blood
C) Synovial fluid
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a shift?
A) Rerunning a control material
B) Not performing maintenance when due
C) Improperly prepared reagent
D) Analyzing a patient sample without a barcode
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33
Chapter
Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Q1) Which of the following cell types are seen in normal serous body fluids?
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which type of fluid surrounds the subarachnoid space?
A) Pericardial
B) Pleural
C) Peritoneal
D) Cerebrospinal
E) Synovial
Q3) Which of the following laboratory data is not suggestive of a transudate?
A) White blood cell (WBC) count greater than 1000/µL
B) Specific gravity less than or equal to 1.015
C) Total protein (TP) less than or equal to 3.0 g/dL
D) Fluid TP to serum TP ratio less than 0.5
Page 34
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) When counting cells in a hemacytometer, cells inside a square with a double boundary line should be counted as well as:
A) Cells touching the middle inward line
B) Cells touching the innermost line
C) Artifacts
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) HbF is ________ to acid elution.
A) Sensitive
B) Resistant
C) Hypotonic
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which blood collection apparatus accommodates a multisample draw?
A) Syringe
B) Butterfly
C) Evacuated tube system
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Q1) What does "backlighting" refer to in the Coulter S Plus IV instrument?
A) Out-of-range results
B) The presence of abnormal cells or interferences
C) The possibility of erroneous or abnormal results
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Conductivity measurements in the Coulter VCS technology are made using a high-frequency electromagnetic probe and reflect the __________ properties of the cells.
A) Nuclear
B) Granular
C) Chemical
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The RDW is calculated as the coefficient of variation (CV) of the __________.
A) Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
C) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
D) Mean platelet volume (MPV)
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Q1) __________ is defined as the time taken for a standardized skin wound to stop bleeding.
A) Clot retraction
B) Bleeding time
C) Reptilase time
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) When performing an APTT, the addition of normal plasma __________ the clotting time in the presence of a lupus anticoagulant.
A) Will correct.
B) Will not correct.
C) Will not change.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which anticoagulant is used for samples to be tested in the reptilase test?
A) EDTA
B) Sodium citrate, 3.2%
C) Sodium oxalate
D) Sodium heparin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell suspensions prepared from lymphoid tissues should be processed quickly to avoid artifacts caused by _____________________.
A) Cell aggregation
B) Cellular swelling
C) Nonviable cells
D) Viable cells
Q2) The dyes utilized by flow cytometry instruments include:
A) Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
B) Phycoerythrin (PE)
C) Propidium iodide (PI)
D) All of the above
Q3) ______________ occurs when a chemical absorbs light, causing its electrons to be excited briefly to a higher, less-stable energy state.
A) Electronegativity
B) Light scatter
C) Fluorescence
D) Refraction
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Page 38
Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods can amplify particular segments of target DNA a billion-fold?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
B) Southern blot
C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D) Western blot
E) None of the above
Q2) Some individuals use the term "restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)" as a synonym for what method of detecting genetic alterations?
A) Northern blot
B) Southern blot
C) Western blot
D) Eastern blot
E) None of the above
Q3) A probe binds to its target through a process called _______________________.
A) Transcription
B) Hybridization
C) Neutralization
D) Translation
E) None of the above
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Q1) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is an enzyme marker for primitive __________ cells.
A) Megakaryocytoid
B) Myeloid
C) Lymphoid
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The purpose of the positive nonspecific esterase reaction which can be inhibited by the addition of sodium fluoride is to aid in differentiation of French-American-British (FAB) subclasses__________ and _____________.
A) M1, M2
B) M1, M3
C) M1, M6
D) M4, M5
E) L1, L3
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