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Diagnostic Audiology is a specialized course designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary for the assessment and diagnosis of auditory system disorders. Emphasizing both theoretical foundations and hands-on experience, the course covers a range of diagnostic procedures, including pure-tone audiometry, speech audiometry, immittance testing, otoacoustic emissions, and auditory brainstem response testing. Students learn to interpret test results, identify various types and degrees of hearing loss, and understand the underlying pathophysiology. Ethical considerations, case studies, and current best practices are integrated to prepare students for clinical environments and collaborative care with other healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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Q1) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
Q2) Up to _____in 1000 children is born with some degree of hearing impairment.
Answer: Six
Q3) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?
Answer: World war II
Q4) In the United States,audiometers started being used in clinical hearing assessment during the 19___s.
Answer: 1920s
Q5) A professional who has expertise in providing patient services along with research education and experience is termed a __________________.
Answer: Clinical scholar
Q6) According to the American Academy of Audiology 2011 Compensation and Benefits Report,which setting employs the highest percentage of audiologists?
A)Veterans Administration
B)Otolaryngology practice
C)Private practice
D)University hospital
Answer: B

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Q1) Define dB HL
Answer: The unit dB HL stands for decibel hearing level.0 dB HL is defined as the lowest intensity that a normal hearing person can hear at any frequency).dB HL can be converted to the corresponding dB SPL using the appropriate RETSPL value.For example, 0 dB HL at 1000 Hz corresponds to 7.5 dB SPL 0 +7.5) when measured using TDH earphones.
Q2) ________ and ________ are two properties that are essential for vibration.
Answer: Inertia and elasticity
Q3) Constructive and destructive interference can change the intensity of sound. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The typical medium for sound that audiologists deal with is ______. Answer: Air
Q5) The human voice can be characterized in terms of its _______________ and higher frequencies called _________.
Answer: Fundamental frequency
Q6) The faintest intensity level that can be detected is termed
Answer: Threshold of audibility

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Q1) State four specific locations of tonotopical organization within the auditory system:

Answer: Cochlea, Auditory Nerve, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus
Q2) Identify at least five different centers in the central auditory nervous system. Answer: Cochlear nucleus, Superior Olivary Complex, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus, Thalamus, Auditory Cortex.
Q3) The hair cells and other important cochlear structures are found in the organ of __________.
Answer: Corti
Q4) The three ossicles are called ________,________,and _________.
Answer: Malleus, Incus, Stapes
Q5) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc. Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml
Q6) There are active processes in the cochlea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q7) The eighth cranial nerve is also known as the ____________ nerve. Answer: Auditory Page 5
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Q1) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q2) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.
Q3) Before a hearing assessment is conducted in a hospital facility,a patient or his or her legal guardian must provide written consent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q5) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q6) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.
Q8) How can medical errors be prevented in audiology?
Q9) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q10) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q11) Why is calibration of hearing test equipment important?
Q12) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound. Page 7
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Q1) The Fletcher pure tone average is best described as an average of
A)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,and 2000 Hz.
B)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,2000,and 3000 Hz.
C)The better two hearing thresholds at test frequencies of 500,1000 & 2000 Hz.
D)None of the above.
Q2) What is a hearing threshold?
Q3) Explain what is meant mixed hearing loss.
Q4) The audiogram configuration of noise-induced hearing loss is characterized by a notching decrease in hearing sensitivity in the frequency region of:
A)8000 Hz
B)500 Hz
C)250 to 500 Hz
D)4000 Hz
Q5) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?
Q6) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
Q7) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in
A)Normal hearing.
B)Sensorineural hearing loss.
C)Conductive hearing loss.
D)All of the above.
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Q1) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q2) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index
Q4) What is a spondee word?
Q5) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q6) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q7) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q8) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
Q9) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q10) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q11) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA? Page 10
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Q1) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
Q2) Which of the following occurs when stimulus intensity in the test ear exceeds inter-aural attenuation:
A)Cross hearing
B)Cross masking
C)The occlusion effect
D)The Weber effect
Q3) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The goal in masking is to:
A)Verify accurate hearing test results
B)Ensure that the nontest ear is not contributing to the patient's response
C)Use an effective level of masking in the nontest ear
D)All of the above
Q5) How is the Weber test performed?
Q6) Describe the occlusion effect.
Q7) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
Q8) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
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Q1) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry.
Q2) Which of the following is the correct description of the measurement of a contralateral acoustic reflex in the right ear?
A)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the left ear
B)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the right ear
C)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the right ear
D)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the left ear
Q3) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
Q4) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.
Q5) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Q6) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q7) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q10) The abbreviation ART stands for __________. Page 13
Q9) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
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Q1) Describe the PI-PB function.
Q2) The ABR can be used to estimate auditory thresholds at different frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q4) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____.
Q5) The acronym ABR refers to _______________________________________.
Q6) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Why are very brief sounds such as clicks good stimuli for eliciting an ABR?
Q8) There is usually no need for further assessment for a patient whose hearing complaints are confirmed by abnormal performance on pure tone and/or simple speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Describe the SSI-ICM test and why it is useful.
Q10) Wave III of the ABR is believed to originate from the ______ part of the brainstem. Page 15
Q11) How is a click different from a tone burst?
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Q1) Traditional site-of-lesion tests include each of the following EXCEPT
A)ABLB
B)SISI
C)Békésy audiometry
D)ENoG
Q2) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.
Q4) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ .
Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q6) When an audiologist has any concerns about ear disease or a patient meets certain criteria for ear disease,the prudent decision is to make a _________________ to a physician.
Q7) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q8) Best practice is ___________-based practice. Page 17
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Q1) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.
Q2) Another word for a growth or tumor is a ____________________.
Q3) Describe the effects on excessive noise exposure on the inner ear.
Q4) There are more than 600 syndromes with hearing loss as a feature.
A)True
B)False
Q5) State three different medications that can cause hearing loss.
Q6) Which of the following are viral infections that can cause hearing impairment?
a.Herpes viruses
b.Cytomegalovirus
c.HIV
d.All of the above
A)True
B)False
Q7) Cancer is never found on the pinna of the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.
Q9) The term used for the period around birth is ______________________ .
Q10) Constriction or narrowing of the external ear canal is called Page 19
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Q1) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?
Q2) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the ____________________.
Q3) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q4) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q5) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?
Q6) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________.
Q7) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.
Q8) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.
Q9) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q10) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds.. A)True B)False Page 21
Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q12) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
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Q1) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?
A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor
B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array
C)A receiver and amplifier
D)An amplifier and electrode array
Q2) The two terminals on a hearing aid battery or any other battery are referred to as the positive or _______________ and the negative or _________________.
Q3) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.
Q4) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.
Q5) A battery in a hearing aid that is used about 16 hours per day will last approximately
A)16 - 20 hours
B)2 days
C)5 - 7 days
D)7 - 14 days
Q6) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
Q7) The amount of amplification provided by a hearing aid is called ______.
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Q1) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.
Q2) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
Q4) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q5) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.
Q6) Helping a patient and family members cope with hearing loss is known as ___________________ counseling.
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Q7) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?
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Q1) A fear of specific sounds is called ________,while an extreme dislike of specific sounds is called ______.
Q2) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q3) Patients with tinnitus never experience hyperacusis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Management of children diagnosed with a false hearing loss often includes:
A)Hearing aids
B)Professional counseling
C)Cochlear implants
D)FM technology
Q6) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
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Q1) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
Q2) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:
A)Simple and clear
B)Accurate
C)Supported by clinical findings
D)All of the above
Q4) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____.
Q5) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:
A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists
B)Educators
C)Psychologists
D)All of the above
Q6) Knowledge required of audiologists working in schools includes:
A)Awareness of Federal legislation
B)Familiarity with special learning needs of children with hearing loss
C)Understanding of technology,such as the use of FM systems
D)All of the above Page 26
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