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Diagnostic Audiology Exam Questions - 457 Verified Questions

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Diagnostic Audiology Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Diagnostic Audiology is a specialized course designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary for the assessment and diagnosis of auditory system disorders. Emphasizing both theoretical foundations and hands-on experience, the course covers a range of diagnostic procedures, including pure-tone audiometry, speech audiometry, immittance testing, otoacoustic emissions, and auditory brainstem response testing. Students learn to interpret test results, identify various types and degrees of hearing loss, and understand the underlying pathophysiology. Ethical considerations, case studies, and current best practices are integrated to prepare students for clinical environments and collaborative care with other healthcare professionals.

Recommended Textbook

Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall

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16 Chapters

457 Verified Questions

457 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74627

Sample Questions

Q1) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.

Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology

Q2) Up to _____in 1000 children is born with some degree of hearing impairment.

Answer: Six

Q3) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?

Answer: World war II

Q4) In the United States,audiometers started being used in clinical hearing assessment during the 19___s.

Answer: 1920s

Q5) A professional who has expertise in providing patient services along with research education and experience is termed a __________________.

Answer: Clinical scholar

Q6) According to the American Academy of Audiology 2011 Compensation and Benefits Report,which setting employs the highest percentage of audiologists?

A)Veterans Administration

B)Otolaryngology practice

C)Private practice

D)University hospital

Answer: B

3

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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Define dB HL

Answer: The unit dB HL stands for decibel hearing level.0 dB HL is defined as the lowest intensity that a normal hearing person can hear at any frequency).dB HL can be converted to the corresponding dB SPL using the appropriate RETSPL value.For example, 0 dB HL at 1000 Hz corresponds to 7.5 dB SPL 0 +7.5) when measured using TDH earphones.

Q2) ________ and ________ are two properties that are essential for vibration.

Answer: Inertia and elasticity

Q3) Constructive and destructive interference can change the intensity of sound. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) The typical medium for sound that audiologists deal with is ______. Answer: Air

Q5) The human voice can be characterized in terms of its _______________ and higher frequencies called _________.

Answer: Fundamental frequency

Q6) The faintest intensity level that can be detected is termed

Answer: Threshold of audibility

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) State four specific locations of tonotopical organization within the auditory system:

Answer: Cochlea, Auditory Nerve, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus

Q2) Identify at least five different centers in the central auditory nervous system. Answer: Cochlear nucleus, Superior Olivary Complex, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus, Thalamus, Auditory Cortex.

Q3) The hair cells and other important cochlear structures are found in the organ of __________.

Answer: Corti

Q4) The three ossicles are called ________,________,and _________.

Answer: Malleus, Incus, Stapes

Q5) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc. Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml

Q6) There are active processes in the cochlea.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q7) The eighth cranial nerve is also known as the ____________ nerve. Answer: Auditory Page 5

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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment

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26 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.

Q2) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.

Q3) Before a hearing assessment is conducted in a hospital facility,a patient or his or her legal guardian must provide written consent.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.

Q5) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.

Q6) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.

Q8) How can medical errors be prevented in audiology?

Q9) What is the best setting for hearing testing?

Q10) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.

Q11) Why is calibration of hearing test equipment important?

Q12) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound. Page 7

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Page 8

Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Fletcher pure tone average is best described as an average of

A)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,and 2000 Hz.

B)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,2000,and 3000 Hz.

C)The better two hearing thresholds at test frequencies of 500,1000 & 2000 Hz.

D)None of the above.

Q2) What is a hearing threshold?

Q3) Explain what is meant mixed hearing loss.

Q4) The audiogram configuration of noise-induced hearing loss is characterized by a notching decrease in hearing sensitivity in the frequency region of:

A)8000 Hz

B)500 Hz

C)250 to 500 Hz

D)4000 Hz

Q5) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?

Q6) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.

Q7) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in

A)Normal hearing.

B)Sensorineural hearing loss.

C)Conductive hearing loss.

D)All of the above.

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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.

Q2) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:

A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds

B)Speech reception threshold

C)Speech awareness threshold

D)Articulation index

Q4) What is a spondee word?

Q5) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?

Q6) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?

Q7) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.

Q8) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.

Q9) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.

Q10) What is meant by the term "rollover"?

Q11) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA? Page 10

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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.

Q2) Which of the following occurs when stimulus intensity in the test ear exceeds inter-aural attenuation:

A)Cross hearing

B)Cross masking

C)The occlusion effect

D)The Weber effect

Q3) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The goal in masking is to:

A)Verify accurate hearing test results

B)Ensure that the nontest ear is not contributing to the patient's response

C)Use an effective level of masking in the nontest ear

D)All of the above

Q5) How is the Weber test performed?

Q6) Describe the occlusion effect.

Q7) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.

Q8) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.

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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry.

Q2) Which of the following is the correct description of the measurement of a contralateral acoustic reflex in the right ear?

A)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the left ear

B)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the right ear

C)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the right ear

D)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the left ear

Q3) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.

Q4) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.

Q5) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.

Q6) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.

Q7) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.

A)True

B)False

Q8) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.

Q10) The abbreviation ART stands for __________. Page 13

Q9) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.

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Page 14

Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory

Evoked Responses

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the PI-PB function.

Q2) The ABR can be used to estimate auditory thresholds at different frequencies.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?

Q4) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____.

Q5) The acronym ABR refers to _______________________________________.

Q6) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Why are very brief sounds such as clicks good stimuli for eliciting an ABR?

Q8) There is usually no need for further assessment for a patient whose hearing complaints are confirmed by abnormal performance on pure tone and/or simple speech audiometry.

A)True

B)False

Q9) Describe the SSI-ICM test and why it is useful.

Q10) Wave III of the ABR is believed to originate from the ______ part of the brainstem. Page 15

Q11) How is a click different from a tone burst?

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Page 16

Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Traditional site-of-lesion tests include each of the following EXCEPT

A)ABLB

B)SISI

C)Békésy audiometry

D)ENoG

Q2) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.

A)True

B)False

Q3) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.

Q4) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ .

Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?

Q6) When an audiologist has any concerns about ear disease or a patient meets certain criteria for ear disease,the prudent decision is to make a _________________ to a physician.

Q7) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.

Q8) Best practice is ___________-based practice. Page 17

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Page 18

Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders

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54 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.

Q2) Another word for a growth or tumor is a ____________________.

Q3) Describe the effects on excessive noise exposure on the inner ear.

Q4) There are more than 600 syndromes with hearing loss as a feature.

A)True

B)False

Q5) State three different medications that can cause hearing loss.

Q6) Which of the following are viral infections that can cause hearing impairment?

a.Herpes viruses

b.Cytomegalovirus

c.HIV

d.All of the above

A)True

B)False

Q7) Cancer is never found on the pinna of the ear.

A)True

B)False

Q8) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.

Q9) The term used for the period around birth is ______________________ .

Q10) Constriction or narrowing of the external ear canal is called Page 19

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Page 20

Chapter

Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?

Q2) The 1990s was known as the _______________of the ____________________.

Q3) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?

Q4) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?

Q5) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?

Q6) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________.

Q7) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.

Q8) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.

Q9) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.

Q10) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds.. A)True B)False Page 21

Define an auditory processing disorder APD).

Q12) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain

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Page 22

Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?

A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor

B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array

C)A receiver and amplifier

D)An amplifier and electrode array

Q2) The two terminals on a hearing aid battery or any other battery are referred to as the positive or _______________ and the negative or _________________.

Q3) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.

Q4) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.

Q5) A battery in a hearing aid that is used about 16 hours per day will last approximately

A)16 - 20 hours

B)2 days

C)5 - 7 days

D)7 - 14 days

Q6) What are some common problems with hearing aids?

Q7) The amount of amplification provided by a hearing aid is called ______.

Page 23

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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques

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21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.

Q2) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.

Q4) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:

A)Problem localizing the source of sound

B)Risk for academic problems

C)Risk for language impairment

D)All of the above

Q5) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.

Q6) Helping a patient and family members cope with hearing loss is known as ___________________ counseling.

Page 24

Q7) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?

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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis

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20 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A fear of specific sounds is called ________,while an extreme dislike of specific sounds is called ______.

Q2) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?

A)Hyperacusis

B)Anacusis

C)Pseudohypacusis

D)Phonophobia

Q3) Patients with tinnitus never experience hyperacusis.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Management of children diagnosed with a false hearing loss often includes:

A)Hearing aids

B)Professional counseling

C)Cochlear implants

D)FM technology

Q6) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.

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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations

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22 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.

Q2) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:

A)Simple and clear

B)Accurate

C)Supported by clinical findings

D)All of the above

Q4) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____.

Q5) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:

A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists

B)Educators

C)Psychologists

D)All of the above

Q6) Knowledge required of audiologists working in schools includes:

A)Awareness of Federal legislation

B)Familiarity with special learning needs of children with hearing loss

C)Understanding of technology,such as the use of FM systems

D)All of the above Page 26

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