Developmental Psychopathology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Developmental Psychopathology examines the origins and progression of psychological disorders from a lifespan perspective, focusing on how genetic, biological, psychological, and environmental factors interact to influence typical and atypical development. The course explores risk and protective factors, resilience, and the pathways that may lead to the onset of disorders such as anxiety, depression, autism spectrum disorder, and ADHD in children and adolescents. Through critical analysis of theoretical models, current research, and case studies, students gain insight into early identification, assessment, and intervention strategies, as well as the implications for prevention and treatment across the developmental trajectory.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1350 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26959
Sample Questions
Q1) Distress must be present in order for an individual to be diagnosed as suffering from a mental disorder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Groups of symptoms that tend to occur together are called A) biological.
B) disabilities.
C) categories.
D) diatheses.
E) syndromes.
Answer: E
Q3) What do the views of Paracelsus, Teresa of Avila, and St. Vincent de Paul have in common?
A) They all attempted to develop a new system of classification.
B) They believed that religious approaches could lead to a cure.
C) They established asylums to humanely care for the mad.
D) They argue for a more naturalistic approach to viewing mental illness.
E) Each of them contributed to Freud's system of psychoanalysis.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A theory of abnormal behaviour
A) should only consider biological factors.
B) should be abandoned when shown to be incorrect, regardless of whether there is a better one available.
C) should not be considered useful if it has been shown to be incorrect, even if it generates further research.
D) should be judged solely on how well it matches current information.
E) should be abandoned only when there is a better one available.
Answer: E
Q2) According to labelling theory, identifying someone as having a disorder
A) can lead to the perception by others that the labelled person is dysfunctional and different.
B) is an important first step for the person so labelled in seeking the proper type of treatment for their disorder.
C) typically has little significance in the way of proper treatment.
D) does not lead to unwarranted expectations by others about the person labelled. E) is important because it leads to the proper treatment.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a measure of substance abuse is able to determine which individuals will be only transient drug users, and which ones will go on to meet criteria for substance dependence or to abuse other drugs with more adverse health consequences, that measure would have
A) concurrent validity.
B) face validity.
C) etiological validity.
D) predictive validity.
E) measurement reliability.
Answer: D
Q2) In order to deal with gender biases in diagnostic systems, a reconceptualization of the way that women's behaviours are viewed will have to occur.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All physical illnesses have known lesions or anatomical abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychologists are usually most interested in correlation coefficients that are greater than or equal to
A) 0.
B) +1.00.
C) +0.30.
D) +0.30 or -0.30.
E) -0.30.
Q2) Which of the following was NOT suggested by the text as a problem with the unstructured interview?
A) It has poor validity.
B) It has poor reliability.
C) Clinicians using this type of interview may only look for information that confirms their hypotheses.
D) Clients often dislike participating in them.
E) The theoretical paradigm of the clinician greatly influences the type of information gathered.
Q3) What is epidemiology? What do the terms incidence and prevalence refer to?
Q4) What is random assignment? In what sort of research design is it found?
Q5) List the four sets of variables in the Kanfer and Phillips (1970) SORC model.
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used and effective medications for the treatment of anxiety disorders today are __________.
A) antidepressants
B) the benzodiazepines
C) stimulants
D) antianxiety drugs
E) minor tranquilizers
Q2) Cognitive factors associated with social phobia appear to involve
A) normal social information processing but negative beliefs about self and others.
B) abnormal social information processing despite generally positive beliefs about self and others.
C) abnormal social information processing.
D) abnormal social information processing and negative beliefs about self and others.
E) negative beliefs about self and others.
Q3) There is research support for mindfulness-based approaches to treating anxiety disorders
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the middle ages, supernatural beliefs of Plato were soon replaced by more scientific accounts of mental disorders, including the syndromes we recognize as dissociative and somatoform disorders.
A) True
B) False
Q2) Heather is deliberately faking symptoms of illness in order to gain the attention of doctors. This behaviour is best described by the term
A) conversion disorder.
B) factitious disorder.
C) malingering.
D) somatizing.
E) faking.
Q3) In the proposed revision of DSM-5, the somatoform disorders will A) remain unchanged.
B) be renamed as the somatic symptom disorders.
C) will be grouped together with the delerium, dementia and amnestic disorders.
D) will be re-grouped together with the dissociative disorders.
E) will have their criteria revised to require ruling out symptoms being secondary to a medical condition.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under precisely defined conditions in a doctor's office, hypertension is defined by
A) blood pressure reading of more than 140/80.
B) blood pressure reading of more than 120/70.
C) decreased tension in blood vessel walls.
D) blood pressure reading of more than 160/100.
E) cardiac distress under high demand exercise.
Q2) Primary appraisal involves
A) deciding whether or not an event is threatening.
B) addressing our memory to determine how to deal with a threatening event.
C) choosing an appropriate course of action for dealing with the threat.
D) inducing a different feeling state as a way to deal with a problem.
E) seeking advice from a clinical psychologist about a problem.
Q3) The three body symptoms affected by psychosocial variables are the autonomic nervous system, the somatic nervous system and the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sign is a unmeasurable subjective experience of illness.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the techniques of TMS and VNS and their effectiveness in treating depression.
Q2) Recent biochemical theories of depression have examined the role of the postsynaptic receptor in the etiology of depression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Roman physician Hippocrates was the among first to extend the ideas on the relationship between emotional temperament (such as depression) and bodily fluids called humours first proposed by Galen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In Hippocrates' time, depression was thought to result from an excess of __________ from the spleen.
A) yellow bile
B) phlegm
C) blood
D) black bile
E) orange bile
Q5) List and briefly define activity scheduling and behavioural experiments.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hippocrates is credited with the first scientific descriptions of schizophrenia in about 300 BC.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dimitri has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Unless his mother carefully monitors his personal hygiene habits, he tends to ignore them. This is an example of A) anhedonia.
B) alogia.
C) avolition.
D) antilistlessness.
Q3) For Carl Jung, there was a universal connection between schizophrenia and the __________.
A) collective preconscious
B) unconscious
C) collective unconscious
D) subconscious
E) collective consciousness
Q4) Describe the five subtypes of schizophrenia in the DSM-IV-TR.
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the types of treatments that have been used for bulimia nervosa.
Q2) Family therapy for eating disorders appears to have greater effectiveness for: A) adults
B) adolescents
C) males
D) females
E) all patients
Q3) The integrative or biopsychosocial model is illustrated by the finding that persons who are dieting and suffer from _________ and _________ are most susceptible to an eating disorder, particularly following stress or failure.
A) unstable self-esteem; precocious sexual development
B) low self-esteem; affective instability
C) late psycho-sexual development; pubertal complications
D) unstable self-esteem; peer rejection
E) peer rejection; pubertal complications
Q4) Reduced serotonin transporter density has been associated with BOTH anorexia and bulimia
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the Operant Conditinoing approach to treating alcohol abuse and addiction.
Q2) If your blood alcohol level (BAL) is .08 percent, it means that there are 8 mg of alcohol in 100 mg of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Moderate alcohol consumption is associated with _________ whereas heavy alcohol use has been associated with _____________.
A) temporary enhancement of the heart muscle and vascular system functionality; damage to the cardiovascular system
B) moderately elevated risk of heart disease; damage to heart muscle and vascular system
C) reduced risk of heart disease; damage to the heart muscle and vascular system
D) mildly elevated blood pressure; dangerous suppression of the cardiovascular system
E) mildly elevated risk of heart disease; damage to the heart muscle and vascular system
Q4) Contrast substance abuse with substance dependence.
Q5) Describe the Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) approach to treating alcoholism.
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Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific causes of personality disorders were not considered until the development of
A) the psychoanalytic movement.
B) behaviourism.
C) cognitive-behavioural theories.
D) the existentialist movement.
E) attachment theory.
Q2) Several methods have been employed to determine whether the higher prevalence rates of personality disorders in women represents gender-biased criteria, gender-biased application of the criteria, or a true difference in prevalence. Briefly outline two such methods described in the text, and state their findings.
Q3) Which is NOT a reason provided in the text for the importance of assessing personality disorders (PDs)?
A) their presence complicates the treatment of Axis 1 disorders
B) a PD can disrupt the alliance between therapist and client
C) PD's can be mistaken for Axis 1 conditions
D) mixing up a PD with an Axis 1 condition can lead to the wrong treatment plan
E) presence of a PD usually rules out the presence of an Axis 1 disorder
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14
Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the historical view of sexual behavior. In your answer, discuss the beliefs regarding appropriate/inappropriate sexual activity, as described by both religious and scientific belief.
Q2) Which of the following sexual behaviors would receive a diagnosis of sexual dysfunction in the DSM-IV-TR?
A) a date rapist
B) a man who occasionally likes to participate in a threesome
C) a woman experiencing pain during intercourse
D) a man who exposed his genitals to women
E) a woman who masturbates excessively
Q3) The stages--desire, excitement, orgasm--were proposed as an alternative model by
A) Kinsey.
B) Kaplan.
C) Krafft-Ebing.
D) Masters and Johnson.
E) Freud.
Q4) Systematic research has shown that vaginismus is likely caused by a conditioned fear of intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The influence of the __________ principle has contributed to the __________ of thousands of people living with disabilities.
A) regularity; deinstitutionalization
B) regularity; ostracizing
C) contact; normalization
D) normalization; ostracizing
E) normalization; deinstitutionalization
Q2) A small proportion of autistic people display exceptional behaviour in certain areas, such as mathematics or music. These individuals are referred to as
A) savants.
B) autists.
C) idiots.
D) excepts.
E) special.
Q3) The Dementia Scale for Down Syndrome (DSDS) was developed to detect and rate the severity of dementia among people who are not verbal and who cannot follow test instructions.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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113 Verified Questions
113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One purpose behind problem-solving skills training is to
A) help focus the child's energy on puzzles and games.
B) make treatment of the child more effective.
C) teach the child to interact better with other children.
D) help the child perform better in mathematics.
E) help the child perform better on school assignments.
Q2) The prevalence of mental disorders varies by the sex and age of the child.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Although most children display various fears and anxieties relating to separation from parents, for a clinical diagnosis of SAD to be made, the anxiety must
A) begin at a younger age.
B) clinically relevant.
C) be general in nature.
D) be more extreme.
E) accompanied by aggressive behaviour.
Q4) Compare and contrast the different types of treatments used for children with anxiety disorders.
Q5) Describe the pharmacological treatment of ADHD.
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large-scale community surveys suggest that
A) mental disorders are the most common among older adults.
B) men are more likely to have diagnosable health problems across the lifespan.
C) there is a linear increase with age in lifetime prevalence rates of combined major disorders.
D) except for dementia and sleep disorders, mental disorders are less common among older adults.
E) the highest 12-month prevalence of any mental disorder exists among those over 65.
Q2) Delerium in older patients is often misdiagnosed as A) dementia.
B) delusional disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) late-onset schizophrenia.
E) dissociative identity disorder.
Q3) Women are twice as likely as men to develop dementia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the three stages of Alzheimer's disease and the types of symptoms indicative of these three stages.
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Chapter 17: Therapies
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jack is concerned that he is not getting the most out of his psychotherapy. He no longer feels depressed yet has only been to seven sessions. As an expert on treatment length, what would be the best advice you could give him?
A) You should tell him to sign on with a new therapist because premature termination most likely is an indication of treatment failure.
B) You should tell him that if he truly feels better, he need not continue psychotherapy, as the number of therapy sessions attended is not necessarily related to whether the client's condition has improved.
C) You should tell him that even though he feels cured he should continue to attend therapy sessions for a minimum of 13 to 20 sessions, as he will otherwise receive less than optimal benefit from therapy.
D) You should point out that without further therapy sessions, relapse will be inevitable.
E) You should remind him of the cost of psychotherapy and that dropping out now would be a waste of his money.
Q2) What types of therapy have been found effective in treating anxiety disorders?
Q3) Describe meta-analyses and explain the importance of this technique.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, early childhood intervention programs have not been found to a high return on investment (ROI).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Better Beginnings, Better Futures differs from most prevention projects in that A) it was designed to address child, family, and community development. B) a home-visiting component is included.
C) funding was provided by the community members themselves.
D) community psychologists are responsible for most decisions.
E) it only focused on families falling below the poverty line.
Q3) Briefly describe Old's Prenatal Early Infancy Project; focus on results.
Q4) Although a community psychologist will advise and urge the individual to involve others in an intervention or to obtain social supports, s/he will not actively make those contacts for the client.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly outline the prevention and promotion policy in Canada.
Q6) Distinguish community psychology from clinical psychology.
Q7) Compare and contrast the high-risk vs. the universal approach to promotion/prevention programs. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What specific type of mental disorder can result in a person being acquitted, or NCRMD?
Q2) To be considered fit to stand trial, a defendant must
A) must have moderate cognitive capacity.
B) must have limited cognitive capacity.
C) must have an IQ of at least 90.
D) must have an IQ of at least 70.
E) must have full cognitive capacity.
Q3) Identify the untrue statement.
A) Most people who commit crimes are likely to have mental disorders.
B) Higher prevalence rates of mental illness in inmates have been obtained when samples have consisted only of those inmates referred by jail staff for mental health evaluations.
C) Most people with mental disorders are likely to commit crimes.
D) The prevalence of mental illness among offenders has generally been found to be higher than for people in the general population.
E) Specific rates of mental illness reported for jail inmates vary considerably among studies.
Q4) What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder?
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