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Developmental Psychopathology explores the origins and progression of psychological disorders from a lifespan perspective, emphasizing how biological, psychological, and social factors interact to influence typical and atypical development. The course examines major theoretical models, research methods, and key issues such as risk, resilience, and the continuity or change of psychopathological symptoms over time. Students gain an understanding of how early life experiences, environmental influences, and developmental processes contribute to the emergence and diagnosis of disorders such as autism, ADHD, mood and anxiety disorders, and conduct problems, while critically evaluating intervention and prevention strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow
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Q1) DSM-IV-TR divides personality disorders into distinct clusters.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are common disorders that tend to be comorbid with borderline personality disorder EXCEPT
A) depression.
B) substance abuse.
C) bulimia.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Answer: D
Q3) One reason why individuals with narcissistic personality disorder tend to become depressed at times is that they
A) become upset when their intimate relationships fail.
B) seldom live up to their unrealistic expectations of themselves.
C) are overly sensitive to the pain of others.
D) don't think they will achieve success in life.
Answer: B
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Q1) Our understanding of psychology as an integrated process is in part a function of . A) better measurement tools
B) greater biological knowledge
C) application of scientific study to psychological processes
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) John has inherited a personality trait that makes him more likely to keep to himself than to socialize. As a result, he does not have many friends and spends a lot of time alone. If John were to develop depression, the model that would probably best explain this situation and the cause of his depression is .
A) diathesis-stress
B) biological
C) reciprocal gene-environment
D) interpersonal
Answer: C
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Q1) When Abernathy went to a psychologist for the first time, the clinician asked him what the date was, what time it was, what year was it, and where they were. Which category of a mental status exam do these questions cover?
A) Thought processes
B) Appearance and behavior
C) Sensorium
D) Intellectual functioning
Answer: C
Q2) The initial assessment of the patient in your textbook named Frank, who was anxious about his job and his marriage, revealed that he
A) had intrusive thoughts.
B) was disoriented.
C) showed inappropriate affect.
D) had a low intelligence level.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of what genes do and how they interact with the environment to create the symptoms associated with psychological disorders is called genetics.
A) molecular
B) behavior
C) environmental
D) interactive
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part considered part of proper ethical research?
A) Conducting research with many participants so that none are identified individually
B) Obtaining informed consent
C) Not coercing the participant to participate
D) Giving the participant full information from which to make a decision to participate in the research
Q3) The confounding of age and experience is referred to as the effect.
A) cohort
B) proband
C) longitudinal
D) participant
Q4) Why is replication important in research? Explain and give an example.
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Q1) In regard to the obsessions seen in patients with OCD, the term "need for symmetry" refers to
A) doing something a number of different ways.
B) keeping things in perfect order.
C) putting everything on one's right and nothing on the left.
D) accumulation of possessions.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE about anxiety disorders?
A) Major depression occurs in 65% of the cases of people diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
B) Having an anxiety disorder along with depression has no effect on the recovery rate.
C) Having an anxiety disorder might contribute to a physical disorder such as arthritis.
D) The most common additional diagnosis for all anxiety disorders was alcoholism.
Q3) When people experience severe anxiety, they
A) often know it is irrational, but can't help it.
B) usually are able to just "turn off" those feelings.
C) often experience a break with reality.
D) don't recognize that the feelings are, in fact, anxiety.
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Q1) George has completely lost his sight during the past year, but medical experts can find no physical reason for his blindness. This could be an example of .
A) somatization disorder
B) hypochondriasis
C) conversion disorder
D) dissociative disorder
Q2) Goodman et al. (2003) interviewed 175 individuals with documented child abuse histories and found that subjects remembered and reported the abuse.
A) 25%
B) 53%
C) 81%
D) 100%
Q3) Without treatment, it is expected that DID will last .
A) 10 years
B) a lifetime
C) several months
D) 20 years
Q4) Compare and contrast depersonalization-derealization disorder and dissociative amnesia.
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Q1) All of the following statements about lithium therapy are true EXCEPT
A) for those patients who respond to lithium, approximately 70% will relapse.
B) for anyone with recurrent manic episodes, maintenance on lithium is recommended to prevent relapse.
C) once a person is symptom-free for 6 months, he/she may stop taking lithium.
D) people stop taking lithium to regain the euphoric feeling that mania produces.
Q2) Depressive individuals tend to exhibit
A) greater right anterior brain activity.
B) greater left anterior brain activity.
C) more alpha wave activity.
D) less overall brain activity.
Q3) An effective treatment for SAD is
A) exposure to bright light shortly after awakening.
B) exposure to bright light in the evening.
C) exposure to a negative ion generator shortly after awakening.
D) exposure to a negative ion generator in the evening.
Q4) Compare and contrast the symptoms of major depressive episode, a manic episode, persistent depressive disorder, and hypomania.
Q5) Identify and explain the risk factors associated with suicide.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about individuals with an eating disorder?
A) They have a diminished sense of personal control.
B) They may manifest as strikingly low self-esteem.
C) They display more perfectionistic attitudes.
D) All of these statements tend to be accurate.
Q2) Sleepwalking is fairly common, and recent research suggests that more than ____ of school-aged children sleepwalk.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
Q3) The most successful weight loss programs are
A) commercial self-help plans that limit carbohydrates or calories.
B) self-directed diet plans based on diet books.
C) professionally directed behavior modification programs.
D) hypnosis-based plans.
Q4) What current research supports the relationship between thin images in the media and eating disorders?
Q5) Discuss possible treatments for eating disorders.
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Q1) In the massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989, the results indicated that of the 10,000 fathers
In the intervention group quit smoking for at least 6 months in comparison to a control group of 10,000 in which only quit smoking.
A) 1%; 0.1%
B) 12%; 0.2%
C) 22%; 2.2%
D) 50%; 25%
Q2) Which of the following has been shown as the MOST effective to reduce your number of headaches?
A) Taking ibuprofen daily
B) Avoiding loud noises
C) General stress reduction techniques and desensitization to triggers
D) All of the above are correct
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Group psychotherapy always prolongs life in cancer patients.
B) Group psychotherapy seems to decrease depression in cancer patients.
C) Group psychotherapy may prolong life in some cancer patients.
D) Mothers of children with cancer benefit from therapy.
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Q1) Development of sexual dysfunction can be viewed as a negative cycle that involves a variety of factors, since the typical case progresses in the following manner:
A) Initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as substance use; concern about the dysfunction then leads to more dysfunction, and sex itself becomes associated with negative feelings.
B) Initial dysfunction may be triggered by an event such as substance use; this causes a strain on the relationship and reduces the intimacy in the relationship, which then leads to anxiety about one's desirability.
C) Initial dysfunction occurs through slow and gradual deterioration, possibly due to a medical condition; as the medical condition develops, the individual's concern with failing sexuality increases, resulting in relationship problems.
D) A general medical condition triggers the first dysfunction, which is followed by increased anxiety; as the anxiety increases, the sexual dysfunction becomes more severe over time and causes loss of interest in sex.
Q2) What does the research suggest about frequency of sex in older adults?
Q3) Are there gender differences in masturbation? If so, what might cause them?
Q4) According to your text, what is "normal" sexual behavior?
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Q1) According to your book, controlled drinking is believed to be A) a viable alternative to abstinence.
B) much more effective than abstinence.
C) much less efficient than abstinence.
D) helpful for everyone.
Q2) Research that asks individuals to indicate their frequency of alcohol use found that alcohol use is highest among ______________.
A) Hispanics
B) Asian Americans
C) Caucasian Americans
D) people with multiracial backgrounds
Q3) All of the following are informative and accurate statements about inhalants EXCEPT
A) inhalant use is most commonly observed among college students.
B) symptoms of inhalant use include slurred speech, dizziness, and euphoria.
C) long-term inhalant use can damage bone marrow, the kidneys, the liver, and the brain.
D) use of inhalants can cause users to be antisocial and aggressive.
Q4) According to your text, is it possible to use drugs without becoming addicted to them?
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Q1) Steve steals money from his friends and family, lies to get what he wants, and often hurts others with no sign of guilt or remorse. Steve should probably be diagnosed with personality disorder.
A) paranoid
B) histrionic
C) antisocial
D) narcissistic
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about those with antisocial personality disorder?
A) Having a lower IQ is predictive of having run-ins with the law.
B) Some function quite well in fields such as entertainment and politics.
C) They tend to come from families with a history of criminal problems.
D) They cannot avoid brushes with the law or learn to function well in society.
Q3) One of the greatest challenges for any therapist treating an individual with paranoid personality disorder is
A) understanding the patient's belief system.
B) getting the patient to trust the therapist.
C) convincing the patient to talk about his beliefs.
D) getting the patient to speak clearly.
Q4) Describe Narcissism. Create an example:
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Q1) Which of the following describes a delusion of grandeur?
A) A familiar person is actually a double
B) One is a famous or important person
C) People are out to get you
D) A body part has changed in some impossible way
Q2) The most common type of hallucination experienced by psychotic individuals is . A) visual
B) auditory
C) tactile
D) olfactory
Q3) James is a security guard at the mall who seems lost in his own world. Often, he feels the presence of his dead mother nearby. He knows it is an illusion and that she is not real. Her presence does give him comfort. James probably would be diagnosed with A) schizoaffective disorder.
B) schizotypal disorder.
C) schizoid disorder.
D) brief psychotic disorder.
Q4) Diagram some ways in which medication can work to treat Schizophrenia.
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Q5) Discuss the psychotic disorders that can be diagnosed other than schizophrenia.

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Q1) Your text discusses the racial differences in the diagnoses of Specific Learning Disorder. Based on what you learned about diagnosis, describe likely causes for these differences:
Q2) Based on a telephone survey of parents in the United States, researchers found that between 4 and 17 years of age were diagnosed with ADHD between 2011 and 2012.
A) 2.5 %
B) 6%
C) 9 %
D) 11%
Q3) The reason that "onset prior to age 18" is part of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability is that
A) the diagnosis indicates that the individual was affected during the developmental period.
B) the diagnosis is not intended to include individuals who have suffered any form of brain damage.
C) the diagnosis has legal implications for children.
D) this diagnosis is reserved for children; other diagnostic terms are applied once the mentally retarded individual reaches the age of 18.
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Q1) What is the primary goal of most psychosocial treatments for neurocognitive disorder?
A) Relieve depression
B) Enhancing the lives of those with the disease, as well as their family members.
C) Treat the anxiety associated with knowing that the disorder is progressive
D) Enhance family functioning
Q2) What is the biological version of the theory that states that formal education helps insulate people from the effects of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease?
A) Mind-body hypothesis
B) Neuronal network theory
C) Cognitive reserve hypothesis
D) Cortical activity theory
Q3) If the presence of a gene means you have a 100% chance of developing the disease, the gene is considered ________________.
A) deterministic
B) reductionistic
C) susceptible
D) absolutist
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Q1) Whether a particular intervention is effective with different patients, in different settings, or with different therapists is referred to as __________________.
A) generalizability
B) feasibility
C) external reliability
D) clinical replication
Q2) According to the Addington v. Texas (1979), which of the following is sufficient cause to commit a mentally ill person to the hospital involuntarily?
A) Needing treatment
B) Grave disability
C) Danger to self and others
D) Neither of these
Q3) Beginning in the mid-1970s, authorities were unable to confine non-dangerous mentally ill patients, a policy that emphasized ___________________.
A) individual freedom
B) society's rights
C) both of these
D) neither of these
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