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Developmental Psychopathology Final Exam - 1653 Verified Questions

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Developmental Psychopathology Final Exam

Course Introduction

Developmental Psychopathology explores the origins and trajectories of psychological disorders from infancy through adolescence and into adulthood. This course examines how biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors interact over time to influence the development of maladaptive behaviors and mental health problems. Students will study major theoretical frameworks, methods of research, and the classification of childhood and adolescent disorders, as well as risk and protective factors that affect developmental outcomes. The course emphasizes understanding the complexity of development, the role of context, and the importance of early intervention and prevention strategies.

Recommended Textbook

Essentials of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition by V. Mark Durand

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14 Chapters

1653 Verified Questions

1653 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Abnormal Behavior in Historical Context

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117 Verified Questions

117 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the Middle Ages, as well as at other times, mentally ill people were sometimes forced to undergo the religious ritual called exorcism. This was in order to

A)cure the mental illness by making the individual more religious.

B)build up muscle strength and make the person healthier.

C)rid the individual's body of evil spirits.

D)prove that the person was not a witch.

Answer: C

Q2) Compare and contrast the research of Watson and Rayner with Little Albert and the research of Mary Cover Jones Little Peter differed.

Answer: Watson and Rayner, as well as Mary Cover Jones, used classical conditioning methods in their behaviorist approaches to understand human behavior. Watson used classical conditioning to condition Little Albert to become afraid of furry animals. Mary Cover Jones used classical conditioning to un-condition Little Peter not to be afraid of furry animals.

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Chapter 2: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology

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98 Verified Questions

98 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) "Experience can change the mind." Explain how this quote can be applied to the human brain as it relates to psychosocial influences on the structure of the brain. Cite one piece of research to support your position.

Answer: Sample Answer:

-Because of plasticity the brain remains subject to changing in response to changes in need or experience.

-Research that supports this idea includes the effects of CBT on OCD patients brains and other top down approaches to treatment.

-Another research that supports the idea is the research on bullying rats and the effects of their aggression on the brains of smaller rats.

Q2) The neurotransmitter thought to regulate or moderate certain behavioral tendencies rather than directly influencing specific patterns of behavior or psychological disorders is

A)norepinephrine.

B)GABA.

C)dopamine.

D)serotonin.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Clinical Assessment, Diagnosis, and Research in

Psychopathology

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121 Verified Questions

121 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Believing that it would not be helpful, a therapist refuses to use the DSM-5 or any other diagnostic system. One problem that we may expect for this therapist is that it may be difficult to

A)apply what has been learned from treating other patients with similar problems.

B)think of patients as individuals.

C)monitor the progress of patients in therapy.

D)convince patients that their problems are taken seriously.

Answer: A

Q2) A variation of correlation research that is used to compare different people at different ages is called _________.

A)cohort effect

B)genetic marker

C)longitudinal designs

D)cross-sectional designs

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Anxiety, Trauma- and

Stressor-Related, and

Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders

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99 Verified Questions

99 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding anxiety?

A)Anxiety is an evolutionary flaw.

B)Anxiety used to have a function in our ancestors' time, but is no longer relevant to modern humans

C)Anxiety is good for us because it enhances performance

D)Anxiety is sometimes good for us; it enhances performance to an extent, but too much of it can hinder performance too.

Q2) In the general population, approximately ________ percent of people have specific fears severe enough to be diagnosed as phobias.

A)1

B)11

C)31

D)51

Q3) Define agoraphobia and discuss the concept of "safety" for a person with this condition. Explain what is meant by interoceptive avoidance.

Q4) Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatment of panic disorder and the three categories of panic attack.

Q5) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.

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Chapter 5: Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders and Dissociative

Disorders

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111 Verified Questions

111 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions is considered

A)a somatic symptom disorder.

B)the cause for conversion disorder.

C)the result of conversion disorder.

D)an archaic term for illness anxiety.

Q2) While Alice is under hypnosis, she expresses strong emotions about being in a car accident that caused the death of her oldest son. When not under hypnosis, she expresses no emotion about the death of her oldest son when talking about the accident. This absence of emotion when not under hypnosis is characteristic of

A)general amnesia.

B)selective amnesia.

C)depersonalization.

D)derealization.

Q3) Somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety disorder have all of the following in common EXCEPT

A)they are both outdated terms that are no longer officially part of the DSM.

B)they are both associated with frequent visits to the doctor.

C)disease conviction is a core feature of both disorders.

D)for both, the essential problem is anxiety.

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Chapter 6: Mood Disorders and Suicide

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126 Verified Questions

126 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT usually a component of a major depressive episode?

A)Feelings of worthlessness

B)Flight of ideas

C)Altered sleep patterns

D)Change in appetite

Q2) Explain how a grief reaction can become a disorder. Is it possible to predict who will develop complicated grief?

Q3) A hypomanic episode refers to

A)a prolonged but less severe form of a manic episode that is easily treated.

B)a manic episode without hallucinations or delusions.

C)a manic episode that occurs without any depressive episodes.

D)a shorter and less severe form of a manic episode with less impairment in functioning.

Q4) Describe two psychological treatments for depression.

Q5) Describe the differences between feeling sad and depressed versus experiencing a major depressive disorder. Be sure to mention the diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder in your answer.

Q6) Explain the differences between hypomania and mania in terms of symptoms and severity.

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Chapter 7: Physical Disorders and Health Psychology

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122 Verified Questions

122 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jon has just been diagnosed with cancer. His initial response is to deny the seriousness of his condition. This type of coping mechanism

A)will enable him to develop better coping mechanisms later.

B)is never psychologically helpful.

C)doesn't really help him endure the initial shock any more easily.

D)results in higher levels of corticosteroids (stress hormones).

Q2) The majority of hypertension cases have no specific verifiable physical cause and are considered

A)feigned hypertension.

B)type A hypertension.

C)essential hypertension.

D)nonidentifiable hypertension.

Q3) Which of the following statements accurately describes a process in the activation of the HPA axis?

A)The hippocampus secretes corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF).

B)CRF stimulates the thyroid gland.

C)The pituitary gland (via the parasympathetic nervous system) activates the adrenal glands.

D)The adrenal glands secrete the stress hormone cortisol.

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Chapter 8: Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders

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114 Verified Questions

114 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Individuals who experience loss of control of their eating and consume great quantities of food but do not engage in any attempts to compensate for their binge would be diagnosed with A)bulimia nervosa, nonpurging type.

B)binge eating disorder.

C)obsessive-compulsive disorder.

D)buffet disorder.

Q2) The median range for onset for bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa is A)18 to 21.

B)8 to 15.

C)20 to 26.

D)25 to 30.

Q3) Joan is a six-year-old child who cries out in the middle of the night, appearing frightened and inconsolable. Her parents are unable to comfort her during these episodes, and Joan has no memory of the event in the morning. Joan appears to be experiencing A)dyssomnia.

B)hypersomnia.

C)nightmares. D)sleep terrors.

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Chapter 9: Sexual Dysfunctions, Paraphilic Disorders, and Gender Dysphoria

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110 Verified Questions

110 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the symptoms of three different forms of paraphilia. What do all paraphilias have in common?

Q2) JP often has problems with premature ejaculation. As he becomes more anxious about his problem, the amount of time between initiating intercourse and ejaculation will most likely A)increase.

B)decrease.

C)remain the same.

D)depend upon what is making him anxious.

Q3) Maggie and Jim have started sex therapy to deal with Jim's recent erectile dysfunction. The therapist has instructed them to refrain from intercourse or genital touching but to spend the next several days enjoying each other through hugging, kissing, and mutual massage. This is an example of A)nongenital pleasuring.

B)cognitive restructuring.

C)nonsensate focus.

D)performance "rehearsal."

Q4) Discuss possible reasons why sexual activity for men is higher than for women during the years of old age.

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Chapter 10: Substance-Related, Addictive, and Impulse-Control Disorders

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127 Verified Questions

127 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Substance intoxication is determined by all of the following EXCEPT

A)the specific drug that is used.

B)how much of a drug is used or ingested.

C)the drug user's individual biological reaction.

D)physiological dependence on the drug.

Q2) All of the following are symptoms of withdrawal from alcohol EXCEPT A)nausea and/or vomiting.

B)hypersomnia.

C)hallucinations.

D)delirium tremens.

Q3) Substance abuse and substance dependence are

A)different terms for the same condition.

B)two similar but separate diagnoses in the DSM-5.

C)outdated terms that reflect incomplete understanding of neurobiology.

D)combined into a single diagnosis in the DSM-5.

Q4) The most common of the psychoactive substances, used by 90% of Americans, is A)nicotine.

B)caffeine.

C)marijuana. D)opium.

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Chapter 11: Personality Disorders

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116 Verified Questions

116 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rob is a 13-year-old boy who has been repeatedly arrested for theft and assault. In addition to shoplifting and other theft, he has been caught stealing money from his parents' wallets and his young sister's piggy bank. Rob shows no guilt or remorse for the many ways that he hurts others. Rob's current diagnosis is most likely

A)antisocial personality disorder.

B)attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

C)conduct disorder.

D)narcissistic personality disorder.

Q2) Amy quickly becomes the center of attention when she enters a room. She is a tall and attractive young woman who generally wears something striking. Amy is known as a flirt and acts in a seductive manner around men. When Amy speaks, she uses very exaggerated terms, even when describing relatively ordinary situations. Amy's diagnosis is most likely ________ personality disorder.

A)histrionic

B)narcissistic

C)borderline

D)dependent

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Chapter 12: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders

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124 Verified Questions

124 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the ways of improving patient compliance with regard to taking antipsychotic medication involves the use of

A)injections.

B)skin patches.

C)pills.

D)liquids.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

A)Grogginess

B)Blurred vision

C)Headaches

D)Dryness of the mouth

Q3) Discuss the characteristics of attenuated psychosis syndrome and explain why it is a "proposed" disorder.

Q4) Which of the following defines the somatic type of delusional disorder?

A)Believing that one is loved by an important person or celebrity

B)Falsely believing that one's sexual partner is unfaithful

C)Believing one is afflicted by a physical defect or general medical condition

D)Believing one is being malevolently treated in some way

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Chapter 13: Neurodevelopmental and Neurocognitive Disorders

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161 Verified Questions

161 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following individuals has the greatest risk of developing Alzheimer's disease dementia?

A)Paul, who is wealthy and well educated

B)Rena, who completed college, though she has an average IQ

C)Jason, who is extremely bright but never finished college

D)Carrie, who is poorly educated

Q2) Delirium brought on by withdrawal from alcohol or other drugs is generally treated

A)with rest and reassurance.

B)with antipsychotic medication.

C)with antidepressant medication.

D)by restraining the patient until the withdrawal symptoms are over.

Q3) Which disorder is associated with the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaque in the brain?

A)Huntington's disease

B)Pick's disease

C)Alzheimer's disease

D)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

Q4) Describe the typical social difficulties that a child with ADHD might experience.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Mental Health Services: Legal and Ethical Issues

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107 Verified Questions

107 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the Supreme Court, people are assessed as being competent to stand trial if they can

A)assist in their own defense.

B)understand the charges against them.

C)demonstrate familiarity with criminal law.

D)both a and b

Q2) When parens patriae is used to take a mentally ill individual into custody, it means that the state is acting as a A)criminal enforcer.

B)surrogate parent.

C)legal advisor.

D)social worker.

Q3) Since Roberto has been found incompetent to stand trial, he will be committed to a mental health facility. After a reasonable period of time, the law requires any one of the following outcomes EXCEPT that

A)he must be found competent.

B)he must be set free.

C)he must be medicated.

D)he must be committed under civil law.

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