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Developmental Psychology explores the psychological growth of individuals across the lifespan, from infancy to old age. This course examines the major theories and research findings related to cognitive, emotional, social, and physical development, highlighting how biological and environmental factors interact to shape human behavior at different stages of life. Topics include attachment, language acquisition, moral development, identity formation, and the influence of family, peers, and culture. Students will analyze developmental milestones, individual differences, and the role of early experiences in later life outcomes, gaining an understanding of both typical and atypical patterns of development.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 4th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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Q1) The major limitation of correlational research is that it:
A) can only be used with nonhuman (animal) participants.
B) may not always yield correct results.
C) cannot be used to determine cause-and-effect relationships between variables.
D) gives the researcher so much control over the variables that the results can be easily manipulated.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following factors plays a role in fixation during the anal stage of development?
A) Strict toilet training
B) Excessive breast feeding
C) Excess work load in school
D) Interaction with opposite-sex children
Answer: A
Q3) Fixed action patterns are learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Meiosis is responsible for the production of sperm and ova.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) How would one identify a person with Down's syndrome?
Answer: Down's syndrome is usually caused by an extra chromosome on the 21st pair, resulting in 47 chromosomes. The probability of having a child with Down's syndrome increases with the age of the parents. People with Down's syndrome have characteristic features that include a rounded face, a protruding tongue, a broad, flat nose, and a sloping fold of skin over the inner corners of the eyes. They show deficits in cognitive development and motor development and usually die from cardiovascular problems by middle age, although modern medicine has extended life appreciably.
Q3) Approximately how many sperm cells are contained in the average ejaculation of semen?
A) 1
B) 1000
C) 150 million
D) 2.5 billion
Answer: C
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Q1) An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Explain some of the risks faced by low-birth-weight babies.
Answer: Low-birth-weight babies are those who weigh less than 5.5 pounds at birth. Neonates weighing between 3.25 and 5.5 pounds are seven times more likely to die than infants of normal birth weight, whereas those weighing less than 3.3 pounds are nearly 100 times as likely to die. By and large, the lower a child's birth weight, the more poorly he or she fares on measures of neurological development and cognitive functioning throughout the school years. There are also risks for motor development. Please see the section "Birth Problems" for more details.
Q3) A(n) _____ refers to an infant from birth through the first four weeks of life.
A) embryo
B) fetus
C) neonate
D) toddler
Answer: C
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Q1) Samantha, a three-year-old girl, shows little progress in growth. She weighed only 22 pounds and was much shorter than most of her peers six months ago. She has been treated for failure to thrive and is now returning to her normal growth rate as her weight is showing an increase. Which of the following phenomena does this represent?
A) Canalization
B) Myelination
C) Differentiation
D) Habituation
Q2) Which of the following is true of myelination?
A) It is complete at birth.
B) Myelination of the brain's prefrontal matter is completed during neonatal development and is connected with advances in working memory and language ability.
C) The breakdown of myelin generally occurs in the second decade of life.
D) It is part of the maturation process that leads to the abilities to crawl and walk during the first year after birth.
Q3) Cephalocaudal development proceeds from the feet to the head.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate statement on the evaluation of Piaget's theory?
A) Piaget's theory excluded adult and peer influences on cognitive development.
B) Most of Piaget's observations on his own infants were denied to be true by others.
C) The pattern and sequence of events described in Piaget's theory were restricted only to American infants.
D) Piaget's theory overestimates infants' competence.
Q2) Coordination of secondary schemes in an infant lasts from _____ months of age.
A) one to four
B) four to eight
C) eight to twelve
D) twelve to eighteen
Q3) _________ is the ability to discriminate previously seen objects from novel objects.
A) Visual recognition memory
B) Genetic behavioral patterns
C) Cognitive assimilation
D) Deferred imitation
Q4) Why are infants tested? Name a few scales with which they are tested.
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Q1) The Strange Situation method assesses:
A) how an infant responds when the mother leaves the room and when she comes back.
B) how a child will recover after having suffered abuse at the hands of an unknown adult.
C) the type of temperament a child has.
D) a neonate's physical health.
Q2) In the mirror technique designed to assess the development of self-concept among infants, nose touching suggests that children recognize themselves and that they perceive that the dot of rouge is an abnormality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the study conducted by the Harlows and their colleagues, rhesus infants:
A) fended off attacks by other monkeys.
B) reared in the most solitary confinement later avoided other monkeys.
C) only extended their social contacts to older monkeys.
D) were physically and socially delayed when they started to walk.
Q4) Are attachment patterns shown by children influenced by the quality of care?
Q5) Briefly describe the three types of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of inner speech?
A) It is proof that cognitive development precedes language development.
B) It is proof that language development precedes cognitive development.
C) It is the ultimate binding of language and thought.
D) It is the conversation that a child has with his or her imaginary playmate.
Q2) Nathan and Joseph are chasing each other around the park and wrestling in the grass. Which of the following forms of play are the children involved in?
A) Sociodramatic play
B) Cooperative play
C) Creative play
D) Rough-and-tumble play
Q3) Which of the following is true of bed-wetting?
A) Bed-wetting is a sign of poor parenting.
B) Bed-wetting increases in occurrence with age.
C) Bed-wetting is more common among girls than boys.
D) Bed-wetting occurs more often during deep sleep.
Q4) Egocentrism is characterized by one-dimensional thinking.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
Q5) Explain the major illnesses that occur in early childhood.
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Q1) Firstborn and only children show somewhat lower anxiety levels than later-born children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Children with high self-esteem are more likely to be securely attached and have parents who are attentive to their needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Older siblings:
A) are more aggressive than younger siblings.
B) are more self-reliant than younger siblings.
C) tend to imitate younger siblings and accept their direction.
D) tend to be more caring but also more dominating than younger siblings.
Q4) A difference between children of permissive-indulgent parents and rejecting-neglecting parents is that children of rejecting-neglecting parents:
A) are fairly high in social competence and self-confidence.
B) show less misconduct and substance abuse.
C) are less competent in school.
D) are high in self-reliance and self-esteem.
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Q1) _________is a stimulant used in the treatment for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
A) Epinephrine
B) Rhodopsin
C) Melanin
D) Ritalin
Q2) According to Wechsler, intelligence refers to the:
A) capacity to understand the world and the resourcefulness to cope with its challenges.
B) free and fluent association to the elements of a problem.
C) trait characterized by flexibility, ingenuity, and originality.
D) thought process that attempts to focus on the single best solution to a problem.
Q3) Which of the following statements is accurate of growth patterns in middle childhood years?
A) In middle childhood, the average child's body weight doubles.
B) Girls are heavier and taller than boys through the age of nine or ten.
C) From the age of 11, boys develop relatively more body fat than girls do.
D) Children in middle childhood experience an even, slow growth rate.
Q4) How do sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory differ?
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Q1) Children between ages 8 and 11 are less likely to recognize the importance of friends meeting each other's needs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Except for extreme cases, it is usually not better for children with _____ to remain at home until the origins of the problem are uncovered and resolved.
A) school phobia
B) learned helplessness
C) conduct disorder
D) social cognition
Q3) A similarity between teachers and parents is that both:
A) do not set limits on behavior.
B) act as important confidants.
C) communicate values and foster development.
D) allow children to share troubling ideas and experiences.
Q4) Explain parent-child relationships during middle childhood.
Q5) Explain Freud's psychoanalytic theory of personality in the context of middle childhood. Do Erikson's views on middle childhood contradict those of Freud?
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Q1) Which of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
A) Codeine
B) Barbiturate
C) Marijuana
D) Amphetamine
Q2) In the context of moral development, in adolescence, many-not all-individuals:
A) become capable of formal-operational thinking.
B) judge right and wrong in terms of social conventions, rules, and laws.
C) tend to view right and wrong in terms of rewards and punishments.
D) tend to make preconventional judgments.
Q3) Bulimia nervosa, like anorexia nervosa, _____.
A) is connected with irregular menstrual cycles
B) involves following a good diet to maintain a healthful weight
C) afflicts males more than females during adolescence
D) is related to severe weight gain
Q4) Which of the following is the first noticeable sign of puberty in boys?
A) Development of pubic hair
B) Outburst of acne
C) Deepening of the voice
D) Accelerated growth of the testes
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Q1) During _____, adolescents undergo an identity crisis in which they examine their values and make decisions about their life roles.
A) identity diffusion
B) psychological moratorium
C) psychological foreclosure
D) identity achievement
Q2) According to Ritch Savin-Williams:
A) homosexual individuals take about ten years to disclose their orientation.
B) homosexuality is a hereditary trait.
C) human beings are genetically predisposed to bisexual orientation.
D) it is unlikely for a person to recognize their sexual orientation before actual sexual experience.
Q3) During adolescence, individuals become increasingly aware of the disparity between their ideal selves and their real selves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Boys are much more likely than girls to engage in delinquent behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Sandy is really concerned as she has not menstruated for a really long time. She tested negative for a pregnancy test. She is only in her mid-20s and is far too young for menopause. Sandy is suffering from _____.
A) amenorrhea
B) premenstrual syndrome
C) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
D) dysmenorrhea
Q2) The leading cause of death during early adulthood is cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true of sexual harassment?
A) For legal purposes, sexual harassment in the workplace always requires physical contact.
B) Only 10% of working women are victimized by sexual harassment.
C) Unwelcome sexual jokes do not amount to sexual harassment.
D) Charges of sexual harassment are often ignored or trivialized by coworkers and employers.
Q4) Explain Labouvie-Vief's theory of pragmatic thought.
Q6) Describe physical development during early adulthood. Page 15
Q5) Briefly describe the stages in Donald Super's theory of career development.
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Q1) When young men's views differ from those of their parents, they are:
A) more likely to engage in an active struggle or a fight for independence.
B) less likely to succumb to societal pressures.
C) less likely to follow their own ambitions.
D) more likely to return home to live for financial reasons even after graduating college.
Q2) Clive and Susanna have been romantic partners for two years. Six months ago, Clive proposed marriage to Susanna and she declined. However, she agreed to his proposal to move in with him. This scenario is an example of:
A) cohabitation
B) reciprocity.
C) individuation.
D) intimacy.
Q3) The experience of _________, as opposed to attachment or sexual arousal, occurs within a cultural context in which the concept is idealized.
A) romantic love
B) consummate love
C) fatuous love
D) empty love
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Q1) Which of the following changes occurs during middle adulthood?
A) Aerobic capacity increases.
B) The amount of muscle decreases.
C) Bone density increases.
D) The amount of fat decreases.
Q2) All types of memory functions decline in middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of inflammation?
A) It is a function of the cardiovascular system.
B) It is characterized by unpleasant sensations like hot flushes and night sweats.
C) It leads to an increase in brittleness and porosity of bones.
D) It increases the supply of white blood cells that combat antigens at points of damage.
Q4) Which of the following measures increases during middle adulthood?
A) Bone density
B) Body mass index
C) Blood sugar tolerance
D) Basal metabolic rate
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Q1) The term "sandwich generation" refers to older adults who are squeezed into homes with their children and grandchildren.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a study of more than 2,000 university employees, blue-collar workers reported greater levels of job satisfaction compared to others in the study.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _________ is a factor in the "big five" model of personality that contrasts talkativeness, assertiveness, and activity with silence, passivity, and reserve.
A) Conscientiousness
B) Agreeableness
C) Neuroticism
D) Extraversion
Q4) In the context of adult sibling relationships, sisters tend to have more intimate relationships than brothers.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is a result of stiffening of collagen?
A) Brittle bones
B) Coarse and dry skin
C) Increase in vaginal lubrication
D) Excessive apoptosis
Q2) Is substance abuse by adults a major problem in America?
Q3) An older male may enjoy orgasm as thoroughly as he did at a younger age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sleep problems in late adulthood may involve physical changes that bring discomfort.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Aging has a more detrimental effect on memory for single items than on associative memory.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is sleep apnea? Page 20
Q6) Discuss long-term memory in late adulthood. Do adults recall all their life events with the same intensity?
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Q1) It seems that well-being among older adults generally increases when they pursue goals rather than withdraw from society. This statement refutes the accuracy of the
A) activity theory
B) psychosocial theory
C) disengagement theory
D) socioemotional selectivity theory
Q2) Looking back on the events of one's past in late adulthood, often in an effort to construct a meaningful narrative is called _________.
A) life review
B) ego transcendence
C) identity search
D) ego differentiation
Q3) Which of the following takes place when couples reach their 60s?
A) They show less affectionate behavior when they discuss conflicts.
B) They disagree frequently over household chores.
C) They get to spend more time together.
D) They find that they have no concerns about companionship.
Q4) What is selective optimization with compensation?
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Q5) "Self-esteem of older adults is tied into independence and dependence." Discuss.

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Q1) Which of the following accurately defines the term whole brain death?
A) It is the absence of activity of the cerebral cortex alone.
B) It is the cessation of activity of the cerebral cortex and brain stem.
C) It is the end stage of life in which bodily processes decline, leading to death.
D) It is the irreversible cessation of vital life functions.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of terminal sedation?
A) It is carried out by means of withholding potentially life-saving treatments from patients.
B) It is the equivalent of passive euthanasia.
C) It is carried out to relieve the distress of terminally ill patients in their last days.
D) It is considered homicide in the eyes of the law.
Q3) In active euthanasia, death is hastened by means of withholding potentially life-saving treatments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Funerals are tied to religious custom and cultural tradition.
A)True
B)False
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