Developmental Psychology Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Developmental Psychology explores the scientific study of how humans grow, develop, and change throughout the lifespan, from conception to old age. The course examines major theories and research findings related to physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development at different life stages, including childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging. Students will analyze both universal patterns of development and individual differences, considering the roles of genetics, environment, culture, and individual experiences. Emphasis will be placed on understanding key developmental milestones, factors influencing developmental outcomes, and the application of developmental principles in real-world contexts such as education, parenting, and mental health.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 4th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
1520 Verified Questions
1520 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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Q1) Which of the following methods of study is advocated by Urie Brofenbrenner?
A) Studying the changes that a person undergoes throughout life
B) Studying two-way interactions between a child and his or her parents
C) Focusing on the unconscious conflicts and urges that primarily influence child development
D) Focusing solely on maturational forces that influence child development
Answer: B
Q2) In ancient times and in the Middle Ages, children were often viewed as _____.
A) innately good
B) innately evil
C) a tabula rasa
D) a genetic product
Answer: B
Q3) Case studies involve large numbers of subjects, each being studied once.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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Q1) _________ are problems that stem from the interaction of heredity and environmental factors.
A) Multifactorial problems
B) Cognitive problems
C) Horizon problems
D) Coronal problems
Answer: A
Q2) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked abnormality.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Chromosomes are _____ structures found in cells.
A) rod-shaped
B) circular
C) cone-shaped
D) octagonal
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: In the New World
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Q1) With a(n) _________, anesthesia is injected into the mother's spinal canal, temporarily numbing the body below the waist.
A) pineal block
B) epidural block
C) pudendal block
D) medullary block
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a similarity between postpartum depression and postpartum anxiety?
A) Both produce delusional thoughts about the infant in the mothers' mind.
B) Both are characterized by command hallucinations that are dangerous to mothers and infants.
C) Both are caused by high levels of estrogen in the mother's body.
D) Both are characterized by an obsessive concern for the well-being of infants.
Answer: D
Q3) An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Q1) The introduction of whole cow's milk to an infant:
A) should be delayed until the infant is 9 to 12 months old.
B) should be delayed until the infant is two to three years old.
C) is recommended from the time of birth of the infant.
D) is recommended by about four to six months of age.
Q2) An individual develops intellectual disability due to a disorder called phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following is most likely to have occurred to cause intellectual disability?
A) The replacement of myelin by hard fibrous tissue in the individual's neurons
B) The inhibition of normal myelin development in the individual's brain
C) The destruction of neurons in the individual's brain due to the transfer of myelin to the soma
D) Myelination of the prefrontal matter of the individual's brain
Q3) Organic failure to thrive (FTT) is caused by _____.
A) psychological factors
B) biological factors
C) social factors
D) both psychological and social factors
Q4) Define perceptual constancy. Briefly explain size constancy and shape constancy in infants.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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Q1) When infants babble, they tend to produce:
A) incomplete sentences.
B) sounds of the vowel A.
C) complete sentences of five to six words.
D) combinations of consonants and vowels.
Q2) Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage involves infants showing goal-directed behavior?
A) Invention of new means through mental connections
B) Coordination of secondary schemes
C) Primary circular reactions
D) Tertiary circular reactions
Q3) When an infant searches for an object that has rolled out of sight, this is evidence of _________ according to Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory.
A) object inheritance
B) object vocalization
C) object permanence
D) object reflex
Q4) Why are infants tested? Name a few scales with which they are tested.
Q5) What are mirror neurons? Explain mirror neurons in humans.
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) In their infancy, both girls and boys:
A) are provided with the same bedroom decoration and toys.
B) are encouraged to engage in the same amount of physical activity.
C) have the same preference for certain toys and play activities.
D) are similar in their social behaviors.
Q2) Adults, especially fathers, show more positive reactions when girls play with boys' toys and boys play with girls' toys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the context of autism, _________ refers to the refusal to speak.
A) mutism
B) echolalia
C) conditioned silence
D) unconditioned silence
Q4) _________ are scientists who study the behavior patterns characteristic of various species.
A) Ethologists
B) Psychoanalysts
C) Behaviorists
D) Cognitive theorists
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Appearance-reality distinction is the understanding that _____.
A) there is a difference between real events and mental events.
B) novel words refer to unfamiliar objects and events.
C) more than one aspect of a situation can be focused on at a time.
D) the world can be perceived from another person's point of view.
Q2) Explain the major illnesses that occur in early childhood.
Q3) In right-handed individuals, the right hemisphere of the brain is superior in _____.
A) logical analysis
B) visual-spatial functions
C) computation
D) problem-solving functions
Q4) American children between the ages of one and three average eight to nine minor illnesses a year.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sprouting refers to the development of new memories.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe the nutritional needs of preschool children.
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) _________ parents have strict guidelines for right and wrong and demand that their children accept them without question.
A) Authoritative
B) Authoritarian
C) Permissive-indulgent
D) Rejecting-neglecting
Q2) In formal games, children:
A) do not use their motor skills.
B) invent or enhance games with rules.
C) indulge in solitary play.
D) observe other children who play games.
Q3) In middle childhood, girls spend more time than boys in play groups of five or more children and in competitive play.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Erik Erikson, children in the initiative versus guilt stage:
A) are curious, try new things, and test themselves.
B) tend to be extremely unwilling to learn new skills.
C) believe that all their plans, dreams, and fantasies can be realized.
D) are extremely dependent on their parents.
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the grammatical abilities of children in middle adulthood?
A) By seven to nine years of age, most children realize that words can have different meanings.
B) Children in middle years find it extremely difficult to interpret passive sentences.
C) By eight years of age, children make dramatic advances in articulation and in the capacity to use complex grammar.
D) Children in middle adulthood lack the ability to form indirect object-direct object constructions.
Q2) _________ is the ability to do things that are novel and useful.
A) Adaptability
B) Creativity
C) Heritability
D) Transitivity
Q3) How do sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory differ?
Q4) Decentration refers to the principle that if A > B and B > C, then A > C.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of teachers' influences on student performance?
A) Students learn more in classes when they are working on their own than when they are supervised by teachers.
B) Achievement is enhanced when teachers expect students to master the curriculum.
C) Students do well when teachers rely heavily on criticism and punishment.
D) Teachers' effectiveness increases when they give common feedback to all students.
Q2) Teachers, like parents, set limits, make demands, communicate values, and foster development.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Certain attributional styles can contribute to helplessness and hopelessness and hence to depression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain parent-child relationships during middle childhood.
Q5) Describe the effects of schools on child development in middle childhood.
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) In comparison with their late-maturing peers, early-maturing boys are:
A) likely to be more dependent and insecure.
B) more likely to bullied and dominated.
C) less aggressive and less delinquent.
D) more poised, relaxed, and good-natured.
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between early-maturing girls and girls who mature later on?
A) Early-maturing girls are at lower risk for psychological problems than girls who mature later on.
B) Early-maturing girls find that shorter boys are less reluctant to approach them than girls who mature later on.
C) Early-maturing girls are at greater risk for substance abuse than girls who mature later on.
D) Early-maturing girls obtain higher grades in school than girls who mature later on.
Q3) Discuss some common characteristics of programs designed to prevent dropping out of school.
Q4) Explain the concepts of asynchronous growth and the secular trend.
Q5) Evaluate Kohlberg's theory of moral development.
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Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) List at least five warning signs of suicide among adolescents.
Q2) The stage of identity achievement is characterized by individuals having:
A) high self-esteem and self-acceptance.
B) commitments based on identification with authority figures.
C) no firm commitments.
D) alienated and rebellious characters.
Q3) Ego identity is a(n):
A) sense of what one stands for.
B) identity of self that is adopted from one's parents.
C) inflated sense of one's abilities.
D) distorted perception of one's worth.
Q4) In comparison with adolescent girls, adolescent boys are:
A) more likely to share personal feelings with friends.
B) less likely to interact with those of similar status.
C) more likely to engage in organized group activities.
D) less likely to have large friendship networks.
Q5) Identity diffusion involves neither exploration nor commitment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Which of the following is an extrinsic motive for working?
A) To engage in stimulating activities
B) To extend one's social contacts
C) To avoid a sense of aimlessness
D) To earn money
Q2) Heart disease and cancer:
A) are more common causes of death in young adults than other causes.
B) kill a much lesser percentage of people aged 25 to 44 than aged 15 to 24.
C) are less common causes of death during early adulthood than accidents.
D) are more frequently diagnosed in early adulthood than in middle adulthood.
Q3) Which of the following is true of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A) HIV/AIDS is the most widely spread STI among young adults.
B) Chlamydia is the second most commonly occurring STI in young adults and it results in sterility.
C) There is no prevention for the human papilloma virus (HPV).
D) Herpes is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) which can lead to infertility.
Q4) Fertility is at its peak for both men and women during early adulthood.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Which of the following best describes gay marriage?
A) It is the marriage in which a person has more than one spouse.
B) It is the marriage between two males or two females.
C) It is the marriage in which two people live together for a certain period of time before tying the knot.
D) It is the marriage between two persons, but they also have sexual access to other people.
Q2) Which of the following involves passionate, obsessive love at first sight without intimacy or commitment?
A) Friendship
B) Attraction
C) Infatuation
D) Intimacy
Q3) Those who cohabit:
A) have less traditional views of marriage than others.
B) are more likely to be highly religious than those who do not cohabit.
C) do not believe in marriage.
D) are very unlikely to ever consider getting married in the "traditional" sense.
Q4) Discuss the characteristics of lonely people.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the health of middle-aged people in the U.S?
A) The majority of middle-aged Americans have not been vaccinated for preventable diseases.
B) There are racial, ethnic, and gender differences in the incidence and treatment of various diseases.
C) Women, more so than men, resist seeking health care when symptoms arise.
D) There is little awareness among middle-aged people about preventive health care.
Q2) Which of the following is a similarity between benign tumors and malignant tumors?
A) Both are cancerous and pose a threat to life.
B) Both invade and destroy surrounding tissues.
C) Both release cells that perform metastasis.
D) Both are formed by uncontrollable growth of cells.
Q3) The stress hormones connected with anger can constrict the blood vessels to the heart, leading to a heart attack in people who are vulnerable.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) Discuss how unemployment affects middle-aged adults.
Q2) The generativity versus stagnation stage is the _________ stage of Erikson's psychosocial development.
A) fifth
B) seventh
C) first
D) second
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to occur after a child is "launched" into the outside world?
A) Parents must prevent the last child from leaving home.
B) Parents need to find a balance between staying in touch and interfering.
C) Parents rarely see or talk with their children.
D) Parents need to cut off financial assistance so their children become independent quickly.
Q4) Erikson believed that the major psychological challenge of the middle years is generativity versus stagnation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe career change in middle adulthood.
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Q1) Nocturnal erections in late adulthood:
A) increase in frequency.
B) indicate abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland.
C) disappear as part of the normal aging process.
D) diminish in intensity and duration.
Q2) Which of the following theories is a cellular damage theory of aging?
A) The telomere theory
B) The endocrine theory
C) The wear-and-tear theory
D) The immunological theory
Q3) In the context of long-term memory, which of the following statements is accurate?
A) It is inherently limited.
B) It is subject to distortion.
C) It is not subject to bias.
D) It is unaffected by aging.
Q4) An older male may enjoy orgasm as thoroughly as he did at a younger age.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is sleep apnea?
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Q1) The inability to bounce back after bereavement is a symptom of _________.
A) acarophobia
B) depression
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) dyslexia
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of depression in late adulthood?
A) It is indicated and characterized solely by sadness or bereavement.
B) It is more common among older adults than among younger adults.
C) It can be connected with possible structural changes in the brain.
D) It cannot be linked to genetic factors.
Q3) According to researchers Margaret Baltes and Laura Carstensen, successful aging involves:
A) letting go and accepting one's place in the sweep of history.
B) emotionally detaching oneself from people and situations.
C) reshaping one's life to seek emotional fulfillment.
D) doing as little as possible.
Q4) It is normal for older people to be depressed when their friends and partners are dying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Q1) A person who is declared brain dead:
A) is unlikely to exhibit any vital life functions.
B) can continue to breathe.
C) can show normal activity in the cerebral cortex.
D) is likely to be conscious.
Q2) Which of the following is the purpose of the Death with Dignity Acts enacted in specific states of the United States?
A) They enable terminally ill patients to ask physicians to prescribe lethal doses of medication.
B) They make the practice of euthanasia illegal in case of terminal illnesses.
C) They regulate the practice of passive euthanasia.
D) They prohibit the practice of terminal sedation.
Q3) Explain the different stages of dying as suggested by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross.
Q4) Many people at most ages assume, or are encouraged to assume, a form of spiritual reversibility in their thinking about death.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do funerals allow people to respond to death?
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