Developmental Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Developmental Biology explores the processes by which organisms grow and develop, tracing the transformation from a single cell into complex multicellular life forms. The course examines fundamental concepts such as embryogenesis, pattern formation, cell differentiation, and morphogenesis. Students will study key molecular and genetic mechanisms that regulate development, learn about experimental approaches used to investigate developmental processes, and consider the impact of developmental biology in areas such as evolution, regenerative medicine, and disease. Through lectures, case studies, and laboratory exercises, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how developmental processes are conserved and diversified across different species.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 5th Edition by Gary
C. Schoenwolf
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21 Chapters
248 Verified Questions
248 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is examined in utero by ultrasound,and a defect of its ventral body wall is noted.The location of the defect corresponds to which surface of the adult?
A) Superior
B) Anterior
C) Medial
D) Posterior
E) Lateral
F) Inferior
Answer: B
Q2) A child exhibiting early symptoms of progeria undergoes genetic testing.A gene coding for which protein is likely to be mutated?
A) Laminin
B) Fibronectin
C) Collagen
D) Lamin-A
E) Insulin
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is diagnosed with Down syndrome shortly after birth.Which of the following events occurred abnormally during prenatal development?
A) Anaphase of mitosis
B) Metaphase of mitosis
C) Telophase of mitosis
D) Anaphase of meiosis
E) Metaphase of spermatogenesis
Answer: D
Q2) Increase in the levels of which hormone prevents menstruation during a cycle in which fertilization occurs?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) hCG
E) Estrogen
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) X inactivation is an example of which process?
A) Imprinting
B) Meiosis
C) Mitosis
D) Dosage compensation
E) Oogenesis
Answer: D
Q2) A 45-year-old woman who tests positive on a home pregnancy test is later diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole.What is unusual about the chromosomes of complete moles?
A) All chromosomes are derived from the mother.
B) All chromosomes are derived from the father.
C) Roughly two-thirds of the chromosomes are derived from the mother.
D) 23 chromosomes are present.
E) 69 chromosomes are present.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher knocks out the Tbx6 gene in a mouse.Which tissue will not form in the early embryo?
A) Neural plate
B) Notochord
C) Lateral plate mesoderm
D) Endoderm
E) Somites
Q2) Rieger syndrome,which affects development of both the teeth and eyes,results from haploinsufficiency in which gene in humans?
A) NODAL
B) PITX2
C) SHH
D) LEFTY1
E) FGF8
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has a child with spina bifida aperta.She is planning to have another child and is concerned that the second child will also have spina bifida aperta.What should her physician advise her to take daily to reduce the chances that the second child will have spina bifida aperta?
A) Aspirin
B) Warfarin
C) Accutane
D) Folic acid
E) Calcium supplements
Q2) A researcher overexpresses the transcription factor Slug in the surface ectoderm.What change in the ectodermal cells would this overexpression cause?
A) The cells would be expected to die.
B) The cells would be expected to undergo convergent extension.
C) The cells would be expected to undergo mitosis.
D) The cells would be expected to undergo meiosis.
E) The cells would be expected to undergo apical constriction.
F) The cells would be expected to undergo an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transformation.
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Q1) A girl is born with the following facial features: microcephaly,short palpebral fissures,epicanthal folds,flat midface,and micrognathia.What might be the cause of this constellation of abnormal features?
A) In utero exposure to alcohol
B) In utero exposure to Accutane
C) In utero exposure to chicken pox
D) Oligohydramnios
E) Polyhydramnios
Q2) Quail-chick transplantation chimeras are useful for conducting what type of study?
A) Fate mapping
B) Gene overexpression
C) Gene knock outs
D) Forward genetic screens
E) Reverse genetic screens
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8
Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As a Patient
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Q1) A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy is sent for an ultrasound because her uterus is abnormally large.A diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made.What could be the cause of this condition?
A) Fetal spina bifida
B) Fetal cleft palate
C) Fetal anencephaly
D) Posterior urethral valves
E) Renal agenesis
Q2) A pregnant woman is told that one of the tests she has taken shows severely elevated alpha-Fetoprotein.Which defect might be present in her fetus?
A) Myeloschisis
B) Club foot
C) Chondrodysplasia
D) Cleft palate
E) Atrial septal defect
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Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma or Gorlin syndrome predisposes individuals to basal cell carcinomas and is due to increased activity in a signaling pathway.Which signaling pathway is activated and which component of the pathway is usually mutated?
A) WNT, BETA-CATENIN
B) NOTCH, HES1
C) SHH, PTC1
D) BMP, NOGGIN
Q2) The skin consists of several definitive layers.Which layer contains the proliferating cells that replenish the skin throughout life?
A) Stratum granulosum
B) Stratum corneum
C) Stratum germinativum
D) Stratum spinosum
E) Periderm
Q3) Which phase of hair cell growth is the resting phase?
A) Anagen
B) Catagen
C) Exogen
D) Telogen
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Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Belgian Blue and Piedmontese cattle have enlarged muscles.Which gene is mutated in these breeds of cattle? A mutation in this gene has also been found in a human.
A) Frek
B) Scleraxis
C) Myostatin
D) MyoD
E) Pax7
Q2) The vertebrae are patterned by the Hox complex of transcription factors,which are expressed in nested domains along the cranial-caudal axis.How would gain of Hox function be expected to affect the developing vertebrae?
A) Cranialize them.
B) Caudalize them.
Q3) Genetic inactivation of MyoR and Capsulin in mice affects the development of which structures?
A) All striated musculature
B) Limb musculature
C) Epaxial musculature
D) Hypaxial musculature
E) Jaw musculature
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher interested in patterning of the early neural tube identifies a new secreted factor expressed in the isthmus signaling center.Assuming that the newly identified factor plays a role in patterning,which axis of the developing neural tube would you expect to be perturbed if this factor is inactivated?
A) Cranial-caudal
B) Dorsal-ventral
C) Medial-lateral
D) Right-left
Q2) A 45-year-old man develops Bell's palsy in which function of the facial (VII)cranial nerve is compromised.What specific level of the central nervous system does the facial nerve connect to?
A) Telencephalon
B) Diencephalon
C) Mesencephalon
D) Metencephalon
E) Myelencephalon
F) Spinal cord
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12
Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurogenesis in the PNS involves both positive and negative regulators.Which signaling pathway plays an essential role as a negative regulator of neurogenesis?
A) Tyrosine kinase
B) Tgfbeta
C) Integrin
D) Ephrin-Eph
E) Notch-Delta
Q2) A child is diagnosed with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis.The receptor for which growth factor is mutated in this condition?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) Transforming growth factor beta
C) Scatter factor
D) Fibroblast growth factor
E) Nerve growth factor
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Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Q1) A mouse exhibiting congenital diaphragmatic hernia was produced by ENU mutagenesis.What gene was mutated in this mouse?
A) Fgf8
B) HoxB1
C) Shh
D) Fog2
E) Vegfr
Q2) A premature baby,born at 30 weeks,is suffering from respiratory distress.What stage of lung development would the lungs have reached at the time of delivery?
A) Alveolar
B) Saccular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Canalicular
E) Embryonic
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14
Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the heart is derived from the left sinus horn?
A) Sinus venarum
B) Superior vena cava
C) Coronary sinus
D) Interatrial septum
E) Crista terminalis
Q2) Heart chamber specification is dependent on the loss,gain,or limited expression of several transcription factors.What pattern of expression supports specification and formation of the right ventricle?
A) Loss of expression of Tbx5 within the primary heart field
B) Loss of expression of Irx4 within the cranial portion of the primary heart field
C) Restricted expression of RALDH-2 to the cranial portion of primary heart field
D) Continued expression of Isl1 and Tbx1 within the secondary heart field
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15
Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the fetus,oxygenated blood coming from the placenta mixes with fetal systemic blood in all of the following places EXCEPT:
A) Between the junction of the ductus venosum and inferior vena cava
B) Within the right atrium
C) Within the ductus arteriosus
D) In the left atrium
E) At the junction between the dorsal aorta and umbilical artery
Q2) In the embryo,blood is channeled from the left umbilical vein into the right hepatocardiac channel.What is the name of the remnant of this left-to-right channel?
A) Ligamentum teres
B) Ligamentum venosum
C) Ligamentum arteriosum
D) Supracardinal vein
E) Oblique vein
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16
Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old male infant is crying because of abdominal pain.Recently,he also began producing bloody stools.Barium enema and x-ray imaging show a bowel obstruction and intestinal ulceration in the ileum about 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal junction.What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Meckel's diverticulum
B) Hirschsprung's disease
C) Omphalocele
D) Umbilical hernia
Q2) What forms the definitive anorectal canal?
A) It is completely derived from the distal hindgut.
B) Two thirds of the anorectal canal is derived from the hindgut, and one third is from the anal pit.
C) It is completely derived from the anal pit.
D) It is entirely derived from the cloacal membrane.
E) It is entirely derived from the urogenital sinus.
Q3) What structure gives rise to the greater omentum?
A) Ventral mesogastrium
B) Dorsal mesogastrium
C) Transverse mesocolon
D) Septum transversum
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urinary System
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Q1) The collecting tubules of the definitive kidney are derived from what tissue (cells)?
A) Metanephric blastema
B) Ureteric buds
C) Uriniferous tubules
D) Renal corpuscles
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) Which developing kidney system ultimately becomes the definite kidney in humans?
A) Pronephric kidney
B) Mesonephric kidney
C) Metanephric kidney
D) Nephrogenic kidney
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18
Chapter 17: Development of the Reproductive System
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Q1) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for persistent müllerian syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) What effect would a loss of Shh expression within the urethral plate have on genital development?
A) Development of enlarged genital tubercle
B) Hypospadia
C) An increase in Hoxa13 and Hoxd3 expression in the genital tubercle
D) An increase in Fgf8 expression in the urethral plate
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Chapter 18: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Q1) Researchers have shown that the mandibular prominence can be transformed into the maxillary prominence by the genetic inactivation of two homeobox transcription factors in mice.What are these two factors?
A) Msx1 and -2
B) Barx1 and Msx1
C) Dlx1 and -2
D) Dlx5 and -6
E) Dlx2 and -5
Q2) A premature infant is examined by a neonatologist at University hospital.Based on its facial features and a maternal history,the child is diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome.Fetal alcohol syndrome most dramatically affects derivatives of which pharyngeal arches?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth and sixth
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Development of the Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary deafness can result from mutations in many genes.Which gene is mutated most frequently in nonsyndromic congenital deafness?
A) CONNEXIN 26
B) MYO7A
C) CADHERIN 23
D) HARMONIN
E) PROTOCADHERIN 15
Q2) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome,characterized by kidney and hearing defects,is due to mutation of which gene?
A) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 1(EYA1)
B) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 4 (EYA4)
C) POU4F3
D) CONNEXIN 26
E) FGF8
Q3) The cristae detect which modality?
A) Sound vibrations
B) Gravity
C) Linear acceleration
D) Angular acceleration
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Development of the Eyes
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Q1) Coloboma results from failure of which development event?
A) Eye induction
B) Differentiation of the photoreceptors
C) Regression of the hyaloid artery
D) Closure of the optic fissure
E) Formation of the eyelids
Q2) Which is the most frequent genetic syndrome that affects the retina?
A) Osteoporosis-pseudoglioma syndrome
B) Leber congenital amaurosis syndrome
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy
E) Norrie disease
Q3) What are the key protein constituent(s)of the lens?
A) Melanin
B) Crystallins
C) Keratins
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22
Chapter 21: Development of the Limbs
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Q1) The AER,the thickened ectoderm at the distal tip of the limb bud,controls limb outgrowth.Genetic inactivation experiments in mice and manipulation studies in chicks have identified the key factors expressed in the AER that control outgrowth once the limb bud has formed.What family of growth factors in the AER promotes outgrowth?
A) Bmp
B) Fgfs
C) Wnts
D) Shh
Q2) Aristaless-like 4 (Alx4)is a homeobox gene involved in the establishment of the limb pattern.What is the phenotype of the Alx4 mouse mutant (Strong's Luxoid)?
A) Amelia
B) Meromelia
C) Syndactyly
D) Polydactyly
E) Split hand/foot
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