Desktop Support and Troubleshooting
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Desktop Support and Troubleshooting is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills required to diagnose, resolve, and prevent common hardware and software issues encountered in desktop computing environments. The curriculum covers the essentials of operating system installation and configuration, hardware component identification and replacement, peripheral setup, basic networking, and security protocols. Emphasis is placed on troubleshooting methodologies, effective communication with users, and the use of industry-standard tools and utilities. Through hands-on labs and real-world scenarios, students will gain problem-solving experience and develop the confidence needed to provide professional technical support in both home and workplace settings.
Recommended Textbook
A+ Guide to IT Technical Support Hardware and Software 9th Edition by Jean Andrews
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Page 2
Chapter 1: First Look at Computer Parts and Tools
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Q1) draws heat from the CPU and pipes it to a fan, which then blows heat out of the case
A) DisplayPort
B) DIMM
C) heat sink
D) PCIe
E) POST
F) SO-DIMM
G) airplane mode
H) Bluetooth
I) central processing unit (CPU)
J) micro-ATX
Answer: C
Q2) How many pins are in the power supply connector that is typically used on most motherboards today?
A) 20-pin
B) 8-pin
C) 24-pin
D) 15-pin
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Working Inside Desktops and Laptops
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Q1) controls power to the motherboard, must be connected to power the PC up.
A) Power SW
B) front panel header
C) Power LED +/-
D) HDD LED
E) spacer
F) Reset SW
G) ESD strap
H) ZIF connector
I) service manual
J) expansion slot
Answer: A
Q2) What type of connector is not typically found on the front panel header?
A) Power SW
B) HDD LED
C) SATA controller
D) Power LED+
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: All About Motherboards
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Q1) What is the design of the Accelerated Hub Architecture?
Answer: This hub has a fast and slow end, and each end is a separate chip on the motherboard. The fast end of the hub, called the North Bridge, contains the graphics and memory controller, and connects directly to the processor by way of a 64-bit bus, called the Front Side Bus (FSB), system bus, or host bus. The slower end of the hub, called the South Bridge, contains the I/O controller hub (ICH). All I/O (input/output) devices, except video, connect to the hub by using the slower South Bridge.
Q2) The QuickPath Interconnect (QPI) replacement for the Front Side Bus utilizes how many lanes for data packets?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
Answer: C
Q3) Typically, PGA sockets give better contact than LGA sockets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Supporting Processors and Upgrading Memory
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Q1) What type of RAM is typically installed onto a motherboard and loses data rapidly, requiring it to be refreshed often?
A) SRAM
B) CMOS RAM
C) DRAM
D) Flash RAM
Q2) After installing the processor, if the system begins the boot process and suddenly turns off before completing the boot, the processor is most likely overheating.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two major manufacturers of processors are Intel and NVIDIA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are five questions that you should answer before adding memory to a system. List three of those five.
Q5) What are the four categories of DDR memory and how do they compare with regular SDRAM and each other?
Q6) Describe the three levels of cache used by a processor.
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Chapter
5: Supporting the Power System and Troubleshooting Computers
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Q1) a tool in Windows 8/7/Vista that tests memory
A) Windows pinwheel
B) BSOD
C) heat sink
D) CAG
E) dual rail
F) driver store
G) UPS
H) sheet battery
I) lithium ion
J) Memory Diagnostics
Q2) Why might you disable quick booting features in BIOS when you are troubleshooting a problem?
A) to enable access the advanced boot menu
B) quick booting prevents Windows from logging errors
C) to see a full POST report
D) quick booting bypasses the POST
Q3) What is the purpose of a chassis air guide (CAG)?
Q4) Why should a power supply be rated about 30 percent higher than expected needs?
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Q5) List three possible symptoms of a problem with a computer's electrical system.
Chapter 6: Supporting Hard Drives and Other Storage
Devices
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Q1) If a computer is performing slowly due to file fragmentation, what Windows tool can be utilized to rearrange fragments?
A) Computer Management
B) defragmentation tool
C) defraggler
D) Disk cleanup
Q2) How much data can an LTO Ultrium 5 tape hold, native and compressed?
A) 1.5TB native
B) 3.0TB native
C) 1.5TB compressed
D) 3.0TB compressed
Q3) Which statement regarding the selection of a hard drive is accurate?
A) a faster spindle speed keeps the drive cooler but doesn't improve performance
B) PATA drives are backward compatible with SATA drives
C) USB drives are a good choice for fast internal drives
D) magnetic drives have larger capacity for the money than solid state drives
Q4) The 2.5" size hard drive is typically used in devices such as MP3 players.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the parts of a magnetic hard disk.
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Chapter 7: Survey of Windows Features and Support Tools
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Q1) Which of the following are valid types of user accounts in Windows?
A) visitor
B) administrator
C) standard
D) temporary
Q2) What type of software is used to control a computer?
A) application
B) operating system
C) interface routine
D) ROM routine
Q3) What part of the Windows display shows information about open programs and provides quick access to others?
A) Aero Snap
B) taskbar
C) notification area
D) properties
Q4) Describe the two types of user account in Windows 7, mentioning how they differ with respect to the UAC.
Q5) What is the Windows taskbar and how is it used?
Q6) What is the purpose of the UAC box?
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Chapter 8: Installing Windows
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Q1) A computer must have a DVD drive in order to install Windows 8.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a batch file?
Q3) Why might you not want to use all of the available space on a drive for a Windows installation?
Q4) contains a list of OS commands that are executed as a group
A) virtual machine
B) file system
C) Windows Easy Transfer
D) push automation
E) standard image
F) system BIOS
G) unattended installation
H) batch file
I) usmtutils
J) answer file
Q5) Describe some advantages of a 64-bit versus 32-bit version of Windows.
Q6) List the six editions of Windows 7.
Q7) Describe the three main functions of a motherboard BIOS.
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Chapter 9: Supporting I/O Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) transmits both digital video and audio, most common type is the Type A 19-pin
A) infrared (IR)
B) digitizer
C) dxdiag.exe
D) HDMI connector
E) OLED
F) projector
G) refresh rate
H) stylus
I) contrast ratio
J) ghost cursor
Q2) Describe an S-Video port.
Q3) What is DirectX?
Q4) What happens when a flash memory card is installed in a slot and it is recognized by Windows?
A) a window appears prompting you to initialize the device
B) a drive letter is assigned to the device and you can see it in Explorer
C) Windows automatically partitions and formats the device
D) the files are copied from the device to your Documents folder
Q5) What is MIDI?
11
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Chapter 10: Maintaining Windows
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Q1) the overall structure an OS uses to name, store, and organize files on a drive
A) Dynamic volumes
B) Virtual memory
C) Defragmenting
D) Backup
E) Mounted drive
F) Chkdsk utility
G) Pagefile.sys
H) Basic disk
I) restore points
J) file system
Q2) Discuss some cautions about software RAID.
Q3) Windows needs free space on the hard drive for normal operation, for defragmenting the drive, for burning CDs and DVDs, and for a variety of other tasks, so it's important to delete unneeded files occasionally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a user profile, and what are the two general items it consists of?
Q5) Describe a mounted drive and why you would use one.
Q6) List and describe the status indicators that apply only to a dynamic disk.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Optimizing Windows
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Q1) Shell subsystems that have only a limited access to system information and can access hardware only through other OS services are operating in what mode?
A) process mode
B) elevated privilege mode
C) user mode
D) kernel mode
Q2) Where can a user find out more information about a hardware or network failure that occurred on that particular PC?
A) Event Viewer
B) Performance Information and Tools
C) Task Scheduler
D) Resource Monitor
Q3) The Home editions of Windows 7 do not include the Local Security Policy or Print Management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the purpose of the priority level for CPU resources.
Q5) Describe the Windows kernel, including its two main components.
Q6) List and describe the ways to backup the registry.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Supporting Customers and Troubleshooting
Windows
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Q1) What is defined as a record of a call for help with a computer problem?
A) token tracker
B) online help database
C) expert system
D) ticket
Q2) What is an expert system and what is used for?
Q3) What should you do if you cannot solve a problem that you are working on?
Q4) What are three possible reasons for an application error that should be considered at step 3 of the application troubleshooting process? (Choose all that apply.)
A) back ups may be bad
B) consider data corruption
C) application settings may be wrong
D) application may be corrupted
Q5) What command will open the Memory Diagnostics utility?
A) memdiag.exe
B) mdsched.exe
C) ramcheck.exe
D) memfix.exe
Q6) What should you do if you are being verbally abused by a customer?
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Chapter 13: Troubleshooting Windows Startup
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Q1) a command to manage hard drives, partitions, and volumes.
A) Windows Recovery Environment (RE)
B) Last Known Good Configuration
C) POST (power-on self test)
D) EFI System Parition (ESP)
E) Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store
F) soft boot
G) diskpart
H) Windows Boot Manager (BootMgr)
I) cold boot
J) fixboot
Q2) In order to remove any partition or volume information from a selected disk, what diskpart command should be used?
A) format
B) select partition
C) clean
D) create partition primary
Q3) A hard boot takes more time than a soft boot.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Connecting To and Setting Up a Network
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Q1) The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) guarantees delivery of data to its destination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Originally developed by IBM, what protocol is used by Windows to share files and printers on a network?
A) Server Message Block (SMB)
B) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
C) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Q3) What TCP port is utilized by an SSH server listening for connections?
A) 20
B) 21
C) 22
D) 23
Q4) What is the name of the 32-bit or 128-bit number that is used to identify a device on a network?
A) port number
B) protocol number
C) IP address
D) IP version
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Supporting Network Hardware
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Q1) uses a covering or shield around wire pairs
A) broadband
B) throughput
C) ferrite clamp
D) latency
E) fast Ethernet
F) patch cable
G) STP
H) switch
I) repeater
J) DSL
Q2) What is fiber optic cabling and what are the two types of fiber-optic cable?
Q3) What is the unit of information called when a network adapter adds the source and destination MAC address to the segment of data before it is transmitted on the network?
A) frame
B) packet
C) bit
D) segment
Q4) Describe a WAN and give an example of a WAN.
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Chapter 16: Supporting Mobile Operating Systems
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Q1) Which devices utilize an operating system based on the Mac OS X operating system? (Choose all that apply.)
A) iPhone
B) iPad
C) iPod touch
D) Samsung Galaxy
Q2) a feature that uses Bluetooth to detect nearby compatible devices, then creates a peer-to-peer network using a Wi-Fi signal between the devices
A) accelerometer
B) hotspot
C) gyroscope
D) iOS
E) Android
F) AirDrop
G) Handoff
H) IMSI
I) IMEI
J) Pairing
Q3) Describe Android's Safe Mode.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Windows Resources on a Network
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Q1) When utilizing both share and NTFS permissions, what statement is inaccurate?
A) if both permissions are used, the least restrictive permission between the two applies
B) if NTFS permissions conflict between a user and group the least restrictive permission applies
C) when you copy a file, the file takes on the permissions of the destination folder
D) inherited permissions pass from parent folder to child file or folder
Q2) When working with a workgroup, what statement is accurate regarding which folders to use to hold shared data?
A) private data for each user should be kept in their c: \Users folder
B) all users have access to the folders in the c: \Users folder
C) c: \Users\Public should only be used by the Guest account
D) Only Administrators and Guest have access to c: \Users\Public
Q3) What is a data source, and how is it used?
Q4) Describe two of the four different ways a Remote Assistance session can be initiated.
Q5) Describe Workgroup sharing and how it compares to Homegroup sharing.
Q6) How does Remote Assistance differ from Remote Desktop?
Q7) Briefly describe Remote Desktop and its OS requirements.
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Chapter 18: Security Strategies
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Q1) What is a Trojan, and how is it installed?
Q2) What technology can be used to locate a device such as a laptop after it has been stolen?
A) Management software
B) LoJack
C) Trojan
D) Multifactor Trace software
Q3) When using the Windows Encrypted File System, what statement is accurate?
A) files can be marked for encryption, but not folders
B) an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted
C) EFS only works on NTFS and FAT32
D) you need to download special software to use EFS
Q4) What are the risks in using BitLocker to secure your system and how can you mitigate these risks?
Q5) Anti-malware software relies on what sort of update in order to define or detect malware as it gets into the wild?
A) rootkits
B) malware signatures
C) static updates
D) Windows updates
20
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Chapter 19: Supporting Printers and Customizing a System
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Q1) For heavy business use, the best practice is to purchase one machine for one purpose, instead of bundling many functions into a single machine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do you stop and restart the Windows Print Spooler service?
Q3) Compare and contrast local versus network printer.
Q4) If loose toner comes out with your printout, the fuser is not reaching the proper temperature and professional service is required.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the first thing you should do to get toner dust off your clothes?
A) clean immediately with hot water
B) use a hot hair dryer to blow it off
C) throw the clothes in the dryer set on high heat
D) use a can of compressed air to blow off the toner
Q6) Describe the fusing step of laser printing.
Q7) Laser printers automatically calibrate themselves periodically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Virtualization, Linux, and Mac OS X
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Q1) software that is installed on a computer and used to manage virtual machines
A) dump
B) client-side virtualization
C) Finder
D) hypervisor
E) clone
F) presentation virtualization
G) vi editor
H) bash shell
I) thin client
J) Spotlight
Q2) What operating system is based on open source code?
A) Android
B) Blackberry
C) Windows Phone
D) iOS
Q3) List three methods for keeping a virtual machine secured.
Q4) What are the three methods of implementing client side virtualization?
Q5) What is the terminal in Linux?
Q6) Define a Type 2 hypervisor, and provide two examples of a Type 2 hypervisor.
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