Desktop Support and Management
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Desktop Support and Management explores the principles and practices involved in maintaining, troubleshooting, and administering end-user computing environments in a business setting. Students learn how to install, configure, and support hardware and software commonly found on desktops and laptops, including operating systems and productivity applications. The course also covers user account management, security best practices, remote support tools, and asset management. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, providing customer service, and preparing for industry-relevant certification exams, such as the CompTIA A+ or similar credentials.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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2
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Which domain is tested in the CompTIA A+ 220-901exam?
A)Windows Operating Systems
B)Security
C)Networking
D)Operational Procedures
Answer: C
Q2) The 220-901 exam tests your knowledge of computer _______________, expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs, including variations within device types.
Answer: components
Q3) Which CompTIA A+ exam goes into significant detail about iOS and Android configuration, including information on setting up e-mail and securing these devices?
A)220-901
B)220-902
C)220-903
D)220-904
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) Most companies require a signed _______________ to perform work.
Answer: Authorization of Work
Q2) What is a critical preventive measure to consider in almost every case?
Answer: Educate the user.Take advantage of the time with the user to informally train him about the problem.
Q3) What should you avoid learning at all costs?
A)Dependability
B)Customer passwords
C)Versatility
D)Responsibility
Answer: B
Q4) You should respect other people's property and follow the _______________, also known as the Golden Rule.
Answer: Ethic of Reciprocity
Q5) _______________ bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored.
Answer: Antistatic
Q6) _______________ can affect PC speakers and wireless networks, among other equipment.
Answer: Radio frequency interference (RFI)
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) In the Mac OS 10 operating system, a user can access frequently used applications by clicking on their icons on the _______________.
Answer: Dock
Q2) In the Windows _______________ menu, you'll find commonly accessed tools such as System Information and Disk Defragmenter.
Answer: System Tools
Q3) In Mac OS X, what launch point provides access to almost all the settings needed to administer a Mac OS X system?
A)System Preferences
B)Control Panel
C)Utilities folder
D)Administrative Tools
Answer: A
Q4) In Windows 8.1, how would a user pin apps to the Start screen?
Answer: Windows 8.1 makes it very easy to pin apps to the Start screen.Selecting the arrow at the bottom left brings up the Apps pane where you can sort and select apps and utilities.Right-click on an icon to pin it to the Start screen.
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) The number of caches included with most newer CPUs is _______________.
Q2) In today's computers, the CPU tells _______________ the clock speed it needs, and the clock chip then automatically adjusts for the CPU.
A)the motherboard
B)RAM
C)the address Bus
D)the hard disk
Q3) What performance-enhancing technique usually voids most manufacturers' warranties?
A)Overclocking
B)Underclocking
C)Overpowering
D)Undercooling
Q4) What is memory?
Q5) What is clock speed?
Q6) How does multicore processing differ from Hyper-Threading Technology?
Q7) What component in modern computers runs at some multiple of the system clock speed?
Q8) What risks come with overclocking a CPU?
Q9) What makes parallel execution possible? Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) How does a non-maskable interrupt (NMI) manifest itself?
A)By issuing a page fault
B)By displaying a proprietary crash screen
C)By issuing a single 3-second beep
D)By discretely increasing RAM latency
Q2) When implementing ReadyBoost, what is the maximum number of flash devices
Windows 7 and later can handle?
A)1
B)4
C)8
D)16
Q3) What does a Windows 8/8.1/10 system display as its NMI proprietary crash screen?
Q4) To optimize the flow of data into and out of the CPU, the modern MCC provides at least _______________ of data every time the CPU requests information from RAM.
A)8 bits
B)16 bits
C)32 bits
D)64 bits
Q5) How does DDR2 RAM accomplish its speed increase over DDR RAM?
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Southbridge called in newer CPUs?
Q2) What tool is used to change or remove device drivers manually in Windows?
A)Control Panel
B)CONFIG.SYS
C)Device Manager
D)SYSTEM.INI
Q3) After restarting your system, you notice that none of your CMOS settings changes are implemented.What is most likely the problem?
Q4) While replacing the coin battery on the motherboard, how are CMOS settings retained?
A)Replace the old battery with a new one within 30 seconds.
B)Flash the BIOS to create a backup copy of CMOS settings.
C)Change the boot sequence in the CMOS setup utility prior to changing the battery.
D)Leave the PC plugged into an AC outlet.
Q5) What are three common reasons for losing CMOS data?
Q6) What is firmware?
Q7) What is the function of the POST?
Q8) What is the function of the CMOS Setup program?
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Q9) The _______________ extends the address bus to all the other parts of the PC.
Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) What steps should you take to correct a downward-pointing arrow error in Device Manager?
Q2) Some of the features in proprietary systems are _______________-part of a motherboard that is separate from the main one but connected by a cable of some sort-and unique power connections.
Q3) In what order should you install a device and its device driver?
Q4) The motherboard mounts to the case via small connectors called
A)fire wires
B)standouts
C)nylon bolts
D)standoffs
Q5) _______________ the BIOS for a motherboard can fix a lot of system stability problems and provide better implementation of built-in technology.
Q6) If you plug a hard drive controller card into an expansion slot, it functions just as if it were built into the motherboard, albeit with one big difference: _______________.
Q7) Optimally, an expansion card should always be in one of two places: in a computer or in a(n) _______________ bag.
Q8) What steps should you take to correct the "!" symbol error in Device Manager?
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) How do fuses provide basic protection from overflow of electricity?
Q2) The _______________-pin motherboard power connector is backward compatible with the older 20-pin connector so that users do not have to buy a new motherboard if they use an ATX12V 2.0 power supply.
Q3) Large sags in electricity are also known as _______________.
A)brownouts
B)blackouts
C)spikes
D)surges
Q4) What should be checked if a system does not seem to have power?
Q5) A(n) _______________ can protect equipment during power sags.
Q6) If a power supply is smoking or heating up, what is the best action to take?
A)Stop using it and replace it immediately.
B)Replace the fuse.
C)Switch the voltage from 110 to 220.
D)Replace the power supply fan.
Q7) _______________, which are large, square fans, provide extra cooling for key components inside a PC.
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Q8) _______________ current allows electrons to flow in alternate directions back and forth in a circuit.
Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) If the controllers are enabled and the drive is properly connected, the drive should appear in CMOS through a process called_______________.
Q2) _______________ is also called RAID 1+0 and sometimes called a "stripe of mirrors."
Q3) Disk _______________, spreading data across multiple drives, by itself provides no redundancy.
Q4) How many PATA drives-including hard drives, optical drives, and tape drives-can be connected to a single ATA controller?
A)One
B)Two
C)Four
D)Six
Q5) What are the factors that make either software or hardware RAID the best choice?
Q6) _______________is a disk-optimization feature for SATA drives that enables faster read and write speeds.
Q7) What options are generally available if you do not see a label on the drive that tells you how to set the jumpers?
Q8) What is disk mirroring?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) What is the purpose of encryption in NTFS?
Q2) Briefly describe FAT64.
Q3) Which code indicates that a sector in the hard drive is bad?
A)FFFF
B)FFF7
C)0007
D)0000
Q4) What is the difference between extending a disk and spanning a disk?
Q5) An MBR has four different operating systems installed.What is this setup called?
A)Dual-boot
B)Integrated
C)MBR-enabled
D)Multiboot
Q6) List any two advantages of NTFS over other file systems.
Q7) Windows can create partitions using the _______________ disk.
A)basic
B)extended
C)volume
D)system
Q8) The encryption capability in NTFS is called _______________.
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) How much data can the lowest capacity DVDs of today hold?
Q2) In addition to drivers, provide examples of specific software most digitizers require to use their advanced functions.
Q3) Because both CD-R and CD-RW drives require a powerful _______________, making a drive that could burn CD-Rs and CD-RWs became a simple process, and plain CD-R drives disappeared almost overnight.
A)disk
B)driver
C)laser
D)light
Q4) Webcams measure their resolution in _______________.
A)radiants
B)pixels
C)megapixels
D)gigapixels
Q5) _______________ is the oldest, most complex, and physically largest of all removable flash media cards.
Q6) When both the video and audio streams of a video file are compressed, the file is placed into some sort of container file or _______________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) A(n) _______________ is a fix for a single problem within an operating system.
A)driver
B)patch
C)service pack
D)update
Q2) During a(n) _______________ installation, the new operating system can be installed into a different subdirectory on a different drive, leaving the old operating system intact and usable.
A)automated
B)clean
C)multiboot
D)upgrade
Q3) The installation error message "RAID Array Not Detected" could indicate _______________.
A)that the RAID array needs configuring
B)that the drives are not properly formatted
C)the lack of the proper driver for the hard drive
D)the lack of support for RAID by the operating system
Q4) Why process need to happen before a user can get rid of an old system?
Q5) Briefly describe a thin client.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) What is a common reason to edit this Registry key: HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run?
A)To change the Windows boot options
B)To reset a password
C)To change the Windows Product Key
D)To delete autostarting programs
Q2) What are the risks of manually editing a Registry?
Q3) _______________ values are like binary values but are limited to exactly 64 bits.
Q4) What are Data Collector Sets?
Q5) _______________ in Reliability and Performance Monitor (Windows Vista) and Performance Monitor (Windows 7 and on) group counters that you can use to make reports.
Q6) What is the function of HKEY_CURRENT_USER?
Q7) What does the master boot record (MBR) hold?
Q8) What does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE root key contain?
Q9) Pressing CTRL-SHIFT-ESC will open Windows _______________.
Q10) In a BIOS-based system, the BIOS uses its boot order to scan a hard drive for a(n)
Q11) ______________ values are like binary values but are limited to exactly 32 bits. Page 16
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) Provide a brief overview of the concept of permission propagation.
Q2) What does BitLocker require on a motherboard to validate on boot that a Windows Vista computer has not been changed?
A)EFS
B)IPC$
C)Core i7
D)TPM
Q3) What is the Windows Vista tool for managing users and groups?
A)Users and Passwords applet
B)User accounts and Groups applet
C)Users and Groups applet
D)User Accounts applet
Q4) Briefly describe considerations of working on a Windows system administered by someone else.
Q5) Starting with Windows 8, Microsoft shifted the focus of user accounts from local accounts to _______________-wide Microsoft accounts.
Q6) In Windows Vista, managers and parents can use _______________ to monitor and limit the activities of standard users.
Q7) In Linux, the _______________ command is used to change permissions.
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) What are the three main tabs in the System Information tool?
Q2) What tool identifies files that can be deleted to gain more hard drive space?
A)Disk Cleanup
B)Disk Restore
C)Disk Defragmenter
D)System Restore
Q3) If you don't wish to count on the automatic creation of restore points in Windows, what can you do?
Q4) How is the Time Machine in Mac OS X useful?
Q5) In Windows Task Scheduler, what are triggers?
Q6) The _______________ utility in Windows collects information about hardware resources, components, and the software environment.
Q7) Actions or schedules that start a program are called _______________ in Task Scheduler.
A)triggers
B)actions
C)conditions
D)criteria
Q9) What changes occur during a restore process in Windows? Page 19
Q8) What is the executable name for the System Configuration utility?
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) Which key in the Windows command-line interface brings back the previous command, one letter at a time?
A)F1
B)F3
C)F10
D)F12
Q2) There are two commands that may be used to create new directories.One of them works only in Windows, the other works across all operating systems.Name them.
Q3) Which command is used to create a new directory in Windows?
A)newdir
B)md\
C)md
D)mfolder
Q4) The command to find every file that starts with the letter c is _______________.
Q5) Why should the command del *.* be used very carefully?
Q6) To make a directory, the command _______________ or _______________ is used.
Q7) The Windows _______________ command shows only filenames and arranges them in five columns across the screen.
Q8) How can a user list all the switches for a command?
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) What are the general rebuild options if a system boot issue can't be fixed?
Q2) A user has reconfigured the refresh rate on his monitor such that it no longer displays.To be able to access the settings, you would select ______________ from the Advanced Startup Options menu.
Q3) What should you do if the boot.ini file is missing or corrupted?
Q4) The system file checker helps ensure that critical ______________ are not modified.
Q5) Which tool enables you to see all applications or programs currently running or to close an application that has stopped working?
A)System Monitor
B)Event Viewer
C)System Configuration
D)Task Manager
Q6) What is the Recovery Console?
Q7) Which tool can you use to temporarily prevent programs from autoloading?
A)System Configuration
B)Task Manager
C)Performance Monitor
D)Event Viewer
22
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Discuss how virtualization eases the task of system recovery.
Q2) _______________ perform chores that previously required multiple physical boxes.
Q3) Describe the concept of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).
Q4) Describe the difference between emulation and virtualization.
Q5) What is another term for a virtual machine?
A)Host
B)Guest
C)Emulator
D)Environment
Q6) A virtualized machine can be seen as a complete system consisting of the physical machine (hardware), a hypervisor, and one or more virtual machines, each with its own set of virtual hardware, a supervisor (operating system) and ________________.
Q7) An example of a guest operating system that must be licensed is
Q8) What is a hardware concern of emulation?
Q9) Another name for virtual machine managers such as VMware Workstation is a(n)
Q10) A(n) _______________ is software or hardware that converts the commands to and from the host machine into an entirely different platform. Page 23
Q11) _______________ is an example of virtualization software for the Mac platform.
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) Every 3-D game stores a number of image files called _______________.
Q2) Why do advanced 3-D video cards come with huge amounts of video RAM?
Q3) A pixel on a certain color is a(n) _______________ pixel.
Q4) Average LCD panels are around _______________, which most monitor authorities consider excellent brightness.
A)100 kHz
B)100 bits
C)300 pixels
D)300 nits
Q5) Describe the difference between landscape and portrait rotational modes.
Q6) In an older CRT monitor, how did persistence affect picture quality?
Q7) The display adapter, or _______________, handles the video chores within computing devices, processing information from the CPU and sending it to the display.
Q8) Which video mode is used in larger CRT monitors?
A)XGA
B)UXGA
C)SXGA
D)WUXGA
Q9) What are some negative effects of excessive heat inside a case?
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) Twisted pair cabling consists of _______________ gauge wire twisted together into color-coded pairs.
Q2) Network technologies that use _______________ light use single-mode fiber optic cabling.
A)blue
B)fluorescent
C)laser
D)incandescent
Q3) What incoming frame type do routers automatically destroy by design?
A)Unicast
B)Broadcast
C)Multicast
D)Semicast
Q4) Describe twisted pair cabling.
Q5) A LAN is almost always a _______________.
A)homegroup
B)broadcast domain
C)workgroup
D)bridge
Q6) What is common to all flavors of Ethernet?
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) What is the purpose of the tracert utility?
Q2) When activating an NIC, the Windows operating system makes a(n) _______________ value for the last _______________ bits of an IPv6 address.
Q3) Describe the net command.
Q4) How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A)32
B)64
C)16
D)128
Q5) Describe the role of link lights on a NIC.
Q6) The ipconfig command shows an IP address of 169.254.0.27.This is indicative of the failure of what network element or service?
Q7) What organization is responsible for managing and adding Internet domain names and addresses?
Q8) The most famous TCP/IP service is called _______________, the language of the World Wide Web.
Q9) Describe the two methods for generating the lower 64 bits of an IPv6 address.
Page 27
Q10) What does the TCP/IP service SSH allow you to do?
Q11) What is a tone generator?
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) With ______________, you only need to plug a single Ethernet cable into the WAP to provide both power and a network connection.
Q2) When adjusting the radio power levels of your wireless antenna, decrease the radio power until you can get reception at the furthest point ______________ the target network space.
Q3) What is the security flaw in WPS?
Q4) What process needs to be undertaken to enable Bluetooth devices to create a secure connection?
A)Pairing
B)Duplicating
C)Searching
D)Finding
Q5) What is a service set identifier (SSID) parameter?
Q6) What is the theoretical maximum range of the 802.11a wireless networking standard?
A)150 feet
B)200 feet
C)250 feet
D)300 feet
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) What is the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
Q2) Which high-speed Internet technology uses line-of-sight?
A)ISDN
B)Satellite
C)GSM
D)LTE
Q3) Phone lines have a speed based on a unit called a ______________, which is one cycle per second.
A)baud
B)byte
C)digit
D)flux
Q4) ______________ connections to ISPs use a standard telephone line with special equipment on each end to create always-on Internet connections at speeds much greater than dial-up.
A)FTTN
B)ISDN
C)DSL
D)Broadband cable
Q5) Describe the contents of the Privacy tab in the Internet Options applet.
Page 30
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) The _______________ mode takes everything in active memory and stores it on the hard drive.
Q2) What special key on a laptop enables a user to switch features on and off, such as wireless networking, cellular networking, and Bluetooth?
A)Function (FN)
B)Control (CTRL)
C)Alternate (ALT)
D)Spacebar (SP)
Q3) What is the main advantage of a touchpad over other pointing device options for laptops?
Q4) List the four APM power-usage operating levels for a system.
Q5) What special type of "suspend" occurs when critical configuration information is written to the hard drive?
A)Enabled
B)Standby
C)Soft power
D)Hibernation
Q6) All laptops run on _______________ electricity stored in batteries when not plugged into a(n) _______________ outlet.
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) What is the screen size for a typical tablet?
A)3 to 5 inches
B)5.5 to 6.5 inches
C)7 to 12 inches
D)8 to 13 inches
Q2) What is the screen size for a typical smartphone?
A)Three inches
B)Four inches
C)Five inches
D)Six inches
Q3) _______________ assistants on the latest smartphones and tablets enable quick, vocal interaction to accomplish common goals.
Q4) The stereotypical e-reader uses a low-power _______________ screen technology called e-paper.
A)OLED
B)virtual
C)digitized
D)grayscale
Q5) Describe a portable hotspot.
Q6) What is the subscriber identity module (SIM)?
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) Setting up equipment to spoof a carrier's tower and infrastructure is known as _______________.
A)network ghosting
B)cell tower control
C)network analysis
D)tower spoofing
Q2) What is the most common way to close a running application?
Q3) A phone's _______________ will not work underground, will probably be spotty indoors unless you're near a window, and can really struggle in dense urban areas with tall buildings.
Q4) What are some things that can cause a device to run hotter than normal?
Q5) When closing an app, keep in mind that you may lose _______________ data when you close it.
Q6) In Android, where would you go to force stop an app?
A)Home screen
B)Application manager
C)Battery settings
D)Task manager
Q7) What is a soft reset?
Q8) Why do mobile devices generally not need a firewall?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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Q1) Laser printers use a chip called the ______________ to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands to the laser.
Q2) Printers that create an image on paper by physically striking a(n) ______________ against the paper's surface are known as impact printers.
Q3) What kind of printer uses a grid of tiny pins, also known as printwires, to strike an inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper?
A)Dot-matrix
B)Inkjet
C)Laser
D)Thermal
Q4) A laser printer's heated roller has a nonstick coating to prevent the ______________ from sticking to it.
Q5) Which type of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface?
A)Dot-matrix
B)Inkjet
C)Impact
D)Laser
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43825
Sample Questions
Q1) What can be used to set security policies for users or computers in a network?
Q2) Together, what are viruses, Trojans, and worms called?
A)Encrypted software
B)Open source software
C)Malware
D)Spyware
Q3) What is spoofing?
Q4) What tool allows a computer to determine a user's identity with the most authority?
A)Biometric device
B)Password
C)User name
D)Firewall
Q5) List the four interlinked topics that should be considered when implementing access control.
Q6) What tool is used to set security policies on an individual system?
Q7) _______________ is a form of malware that encrypts all the data it can get access to on a system, and then asks for money to decrypt your data.
Q8) A(n) _______________ is the code pattern of a known virus.
Q9) What is a stealth virus?
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