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Descriptive Astronomy is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts and observations of astronomy without requiring advanced mathematical knowledge. Students will learn about the solar system, stars, galaxies, and the structure of the universe, as well as the history and development of astronomical thought. Emphasis is placed on understanding celestial phenomena such as eclipses, phases of the Moon, planetary motion, and the life cycles of stars through observation, visual interpretation, and descriptive analysis. This course provides a broad overview suitable for students from all academic backgrounds seeking a general appreciation of the cosmos.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering the Essential Universe 6th Edition by Neil F. Comins
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Q1) Because of precession,how long will it be before Earth's spin axis points toward the present pole star again?
A) at least 1 million years
B) 13,000 years
C) 26,000 years
D) 9 years
Answer: C
Q2) Where would you expect to see the Sun in the sky if you were at the North Pole at the beginning of fall (about September 21)?
A) on the horizon
B) at your zenith
C) at about 23.5° above your horizon all day
D) below your horizon all day
Answer: A
Q3) In general,a sundial is NOT a good timekeeper because:
A) Earth's orbital speed around the ecliptic is variable.
B) Earth's rotation rate changes throughout the year.
C) the Sun's large angular diameter produces a fuzzy shadow.
D) the sky is often cloudy.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions characterizes the Newtonian understanding of the mechanics of the solar system?
A) The natural motion of the planets is motion in a straight line. The planets are prevented from straight-line motion by the gravitational force of the Sun.
B) The natural motion of the planets is uniform circular motion. The gravitational force of the Sun distorts the orbits of the planets into ellipses.
C) The planets are held in their orbits by a gravitational balance between the Sun (which is closer) and the stars (which are farther away).
D) The planets are held in their orbits by a balance between gravitation (attraction) and magnetism (repulsion).
Answer: A
Q2) Which objects are often found to follow hyperbolic orbits?
A) small satellites of the outer planets
B) asteroids
C) None-all orbits have to be ellipses.
D) comets
Answer: D
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Q1) How much time elapsed from when Ole Rømer discovered that light did not travel at infinite speed to a time when the speed of light was first measured accurately?
A) No time at all-it was Rømer himself who measured this speed accurately!
B) 28 years
C) almost 1000 years
D) more than a century but less than two centuries
Answer: D
Q2) When light passes through a prism of glass:
A) the prism absorbs colors from different parts of the broad beam coming out of the prism, leaving the complementary colors that we see.
B) different colors are caused by multiple reflections within the prism and the resulting interference between the beams.
C) refraction changes the directions of different colors or wavelengths of light.
D) the prism adds colors to different parts of the outgoing and broadly scattered beam.
Answer: C
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Q1) What is the Kuiper belt?
A) a band of dust in the plane of the ecliptic, extending from near the orbit of Mars to beyond the orbit of Pluto
B) the broadest band of asteroids in the asteroid belt, separated from other bands by Kirkwood gaps
C) the relatively flat distribution of objects in the plane of the ecliptic, extending from around the orbit of Pluto out to about 50 AU from the Sun
D) the approximate spherical distribution of comets centered on the Sun and extending out to about 50,000 AU
Q2) Only three elements are believed to have formed directly in the Big Bang.These elements do NOT include:
A) hydrogen.
B) lithium.
C) oxygen. D) helium.
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Q1) In order for an exoplanet to be capable of sustaining life,all of the following situations would have to be true EXCEPT ONE.Which is the exception?
A) The planet would have to be far enough from its star that liquid water would not boil away.
B) The planet would have to be close enough to its star that liquid water would not be permanently frozen.
C) The planet would have to revolve around a Sun-like star.
D) The planet would have to be in a solar system containing a giant planet in a highly eccentric orbit.
Q2) Exoplanets were first observed in:
A) 1810.
B) 1931.
C) 1992.
D) 2012.
Q3) Extrasolar planets have NOT been found:
A) around burned-out remnants of stars.
B) around stars in the disks of other galaxies.
C) in globular clusters.
D) around stars in the disk of our Galaxy.
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Q1) Roughly how much denser was Earth's second atmosphere (i.e.,how much gas was there in it?)compared with today's atmosphere?
A) the same density as the present atmosphere
B) 1/10 as dense
C) twice as dense
D) 100 times denser
Q2) What is the basic structure of Earth's interior?
A) solid iron inner core, molten iron outer core, rocky mantle, lighter rocky crust
B) molten iron inner core, molten rocky outer core, solid rocky mantle, lighter rocky crust
C) molten iron core, molten rocky mantle, solid rocky crust
D) molten iron inner core, solid iron outer core, rocky mantle, lighter rocky crust
Q3) The conditions on the surface of Venus are:
A) no atmosphere, hence very variable temperatures under direct sunlight.
B) a low-pressure, low-temperature, carbon dioxide atmosphere.
C) a high-pressure, high-temperature, carbon dioxide atmosphere.
D) a dense atmosphere of methane, ammonia, and water at a low temperature.
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Q1) The composition of the clouds we see on Jupiter is:
A) similar to the composition of Earth's clouds throughout the whole atmosphere-water droplets and crystals of frozen water.
B) very different from the composition of Earth's clouds-almost entirely ammonia and ammonium hydrosulfide crystals and almost no water.
C) similar to the composition of Earth's clouds (water droplets and crystals of frozen water) in the higher levels but very different (ammonia crystals) in the lower levels.
D) similar to the composition of Earth's clouds (water droplets and crystals of frozen water) in the lower levels but very different (ammonia crystals and other chemicals) in the higher levels.
Q2) What property is shared by Earth and Europa,one of Jupiter's large moons?
A) The Earth and Europa have both been shown to harbor intelligent life in their oceans.
B) The Earth and Europa both have thick atmospheres of nitrogen and oxygen.
C) The Earth and Europa both have oceans of liquid water.
D) The Earth and Europa are about the same physical size.
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Q1) What is the relationship between the Kirkwood gaps in the asteroid belt and the Cassini division in the rings of Saturn?
A) Both the Kirkwood gaps and the Cassini division are caused by large objects passing through swarms of smaller objects, sweeping out gaps in the swarms.
B) Both the Kirkwood gaps and the Cassini division were discovered by observers from the same group; Kirkwood and Cassini both worked at the same observatory.
C) Both the Kirkwood gaps and the Cassini division are caused by disruptions of the orbits of small objects by larger planets or moons. In both cases, the orbital distance of small objects in the gaps is related by simple fractions to the orbital distance to the disturbing object.
D) Both the Kirkwood gaps and the Cassini division are caused by disruptions of the orbits of small objects by larger planets or moons. In both cases, the periods of the small objects are simple fractions of those of the larger disturbing object.
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Q1) One of the effects which accompanied the Maunder minimum in sunspot numbers during the late seventeenth and early eighteenth centuries was:
A) a severe drought in western North America.
B) an unusual heat wave in Europe.
C) the Black Plague.
D) the onset of El Niño.
Q2) Spicules on the solar surface are:
A) jets of gas surging out of the photosphere of the Sun into the chromosphere, usually at supergranule boundaries.
B) intense eruptions from sunspot groups and active regions, associated with solar flares.
C) streams of solar coronal material, usually seen only during a total solar eclipse.
D) curtain-like structures hanging over sunspot regions.
Q3) The temperature of the Sun's photosphere is:
A) close to 1 million K.
B) about 10,000 K.
C) 5800 K.
D) 4300 K.
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Q1) Two of the brightest stars in Orion are Betelgeuse (apparent magnitude = 0.45)and Rigel (apparent magnitude = 0.15).From this information,you can determine that Betelgeuse is:
A) brighter than Rigel.
B) bigger than Rigel.
C) farther away than Rigel.
D) None of the answers is correct..
Q2) The difference in the brightness of a star as seen through two different colored filters,for example,blue and yellow,is directly related to which stellar property?
A) distance from Earth
B) luminosity
C) surface temperature
D) radius
Q3) The first accurate measurement of stellar parallax was made in:
A) the fourth century b.c.e.
B) 1721.
C) 1838.
D) 1927.
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Q1) The main-sequence lifetime of a star with half the mass of the Sun:
A) could be longer or shorter than that of the Sun; more information is required to determine the length of its lifetime.
B) is longer than that of the Sun.
C) is the same as that of the Sun because mass does not affect the lifetime of a star.
D) is shorter than that of the Sun.
Q2) Which easily observed molecular species is used as a tracer for the fundamental but difficult to observe H molecules in giant molecular clouds?
A) hydroxyl (OH)
B) water vapor (H O)
C) carbon dioxide (CO )
D) carbon monoxide (CO)
Q3) All stars on the main sequence:
A) generate energy by hydrogen fusion in their centers.
B) have approximately the same age, to within a few million years.
C) are changing slowly in size, by gravitational contraction.
D) are at a late stage of evolution, after the red giant stage.
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Q1) What is it that keeps a white dwarf from collapsing inward on itself?
A) electron degeneracy, or "quantum crowding"
B) the physical size of the neutrons of which this star is composed
C) convection currents, or updrafts, from the nuclear furnace
D) normal gas pressure
Q2) During which phase of a low-mass star's life does helium shell fusion occur?
A) main sequence
B) asymptotic giant branch
C) first red giant
D) horizontal branch
Q3) The main source of cosmic rays,the high-energy atomic nuclei that strike Earth's atmosphere from interstellar space,is believed to be:
A) rotating, magnetized neutron stars.
B) matter from accretion disks surrounding neutron stars and black holes.
C) acceleration of nuclei by neutrinos during supernova explosions.
D) supernova debris colliding with interstellar material.
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Q1) The typical diameter of a spiral galaxy is about:
A) 10 ly.
B) 10 ly.
C) 1 ly.
D) 100 ly.
Q2) How many stars per cubic parsec are there in the spiral arms of a spiral galaxy compared with the regions between the spiral arms?
A) There are more than 100 times as many stars in the spiral arms as there are in the regions between the arms.
B) There are about twice as many stars in the spiral arms than in the regions between the arms.
C) There are a lot of stars in the spiral arms and none at all in the regions between the arms.
D) There are about 5% more stars in the spiral arms than in the regions between the arms.
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Q1) Does the initial rate of star formation have any effect on the type of galaxy that is formed from a pre-galactic gas cloud?
A) No, the initial rate of star formation determines the size of the galaxy. A high initial rate of star formation means that many stars have formed a large galaxy before the remaining gas and dust dissipate and star formation ceases. But a galaxy of any type is equally likely to form.
B) Yes, a high initial rate of star formation uses up the gas and dust before it has a chance to settle into a disk. So this results in an elliptical galaxy.
C) Yes, a high initial rate of star formation produces an early generation of stars that evolve and send out more gas and dust to form a disk and to perpetuate star formation. So this results in a spiral galaxy.
D) Yes, an initially high rate of star formation produces many high-mass stars that explode and send out shock waves to trigger the formation of other stars. This chaotic situation results in an irregular galaxy.
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Q1) Which idea has been borne out by actual astronomical observations over the past few centuries?
A) The probability of life existing elsewhere in the universe, even elsewhere in our own solar system, is extremely great.
B) Earth appears to occupy a unique position in the universe, unrepeated anywhere, since the Sun is unique in properties and position in a remarkable galaxy.
C) All the observational evidence so far suggests that conditions for the evolution of life exist only on Earth in its position near the Sun.
D) The Sun is an unremarkable star in a commonplace galaxy, and many similar stars exist in the universe around which life might evolve on planets.
Q2) Which phenomenon was probably NOT a source of large organic molecules,the building blocks of life,on the early Earth?
A) comets
B) meteorites
C) lightning flashes in the early terrestrial atmosphere
D) volcanic eruptions
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