Descriptive Astronomy Final Exam
Course Introduction
Descriptive Astronomy provides a foundational understanding of the universe beyond Earth, exploring the structures and phenomena of the solar system, stars, galaxies, and the larger cosmos. The course delves into the motion of celestial bodies, telescopic observations, and the historical evolution of astronomical theories. Students will gain insight into the nature of planets, moons, black holes, and other cosmic entities while learning how astronomers use scientific methods to interpret observational data. The course also examines the influence of astronomy on human culture and advances appreciation for our place in the universe.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Preliminary Edition by Adam Frank
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Getting Started: Science, astronomy, and Being Human
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Q1) Pseudoscience refers to:
A) a belief or practice that is made to look scientific but that was not developed through the scientific method.
B) the first phase of the scientific method.
C) scientific theories that have been superseded by more recent explanations.
D) the application of the scientific method to our daily lives.
Answer: A
Q2) The characteristic that most clearly distinguishes modern astronomy from its use in the ancient world is:
A) its accuracy.
B) its relevance.
C) the telescope.
D) the scientific approach.
Answer: D
Q3) (4.0 × 10 )/ (8.0 × 10 )= :
A) 4.0 × 10<sup>4</sup>
B) 5.0 × 10<sup>3</sup>
C) 5.0 × 10<sup>4</sup>
D) 2.0 × 10<sup>3</sup>
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: A Universe Made, a Universe Discovered
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Q1) The Babylonians were important to the history of astronomy for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) recognizing the periodicity of astronomical phenomena.
B) measuring the diameter of Earth.
C) offering mathematical predictions of the lengths of days.
D) keeping detailed records of astronomical observations.
Answer: B
Q2) Compare and contrast the methodology Aristotle used to arrive at his model of the Universe with the scientific method.
Answer: Aristotle began with a set of beliefs he took to be self-evident and used reason,supported by select observations,to follow its consequences.He did not test his hypotheses with experiments,so did not follow the scientific method.
Q3) While a planet is undergoing retrograde motion,what direction does it move relative to the stars?
A) east to west
B) west to east
C) north to south
D) south to north
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: A Universe of Universal Laws
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Q1) Two asteroids have elliptical orbits around the Sun with the same semimajor axes but different eccentricities.Which of the following statements is true?
A) The orbit with the smaller eccentricity comes closest to the Sun.
B) The orbit with the smaller eccentricity has a longer period.
C) The orbit with the larger eccentricity has a larger semiminor axis.
D) The orbit with the larger eccentricity has a larger change in speed.
Answer: D
Q2) According to Newton,satellites orbit Earth because:
A) of gravitational forces.
B) circular motion is natural.
C) of inertia.
D) of free-fall.
Answer: A
Q3) Why did Copernicus's model set the scale of the solar system?
Answer: The timing of retrograde motion set the speeds and radii of the planetary orbits.
Q4) Why did Ptolemy's work remain popular in Europe through 1500 CE?
Answer: Ptolemy's model made accurate predictions about the locations of objects in the night sky.It also supported the worldview of the Catholic Church.
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Chapter 4: A Universe of Universal Laws
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Q1) Among the following,which is the most important reason to make telescopes large?
A) atmospheric seeing
B) chromatic aberration
C) magnification
D) light-collecting power
Q2) Two light waves have wavelengths of 200 nm and 400 nm,respectively.How are their frequencies related?
A) The wave with a 200 nm wavelength has one-quarter the frequency of the 400 nm wave.
B) The wave with a 200 nm wavelength has one-half the frequency of the 400 nm wave.
C) The wave with a 200 nm wavelength has the same frequency of the 400 nm wave.
D) The wave with a 200 nm wavelength has twice the frequency of the 400 nm wave.
Q3) The radiation spectrum produced by a blackbody depends on its:
A) temperature.
B) composition.
C) mass.
D) thickness.
Q4) List the seven components of the electromagnetic spectrum from shortest to longest wavelength.
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Chapter 5: The Architecture and Birth of Planetary Systems
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Q1) The most successful method to date in detecting Earth-sized exoplanets is:
A) the radial velocity method.
B) the transit method.
C) direct imaging.
D) gravitational lensing.
Q2) Suppose that a protoplanetary disk around a Sun-like star is heated past about 5 AU by an unknown process.How might the resulting planetary system differ from our own?
A) The outer planets would orbit faster.
B) The outer planets would be rockier.
C) The outer planets would be more massive.
D) This would not affect any of the planets.
Q3) Arrange the following types of planets in order of increasing distance from the Sun:
A) terrestrial planets, ice giants, gas giants.
B) gas giants, terrestrial planets, ice giants.
C) terrestrial planets, gas giants, ice giants.
D) ice giants, gas giants, terrestrial planets.
Q4) An asteroid follows a highly elliptical orbit that carries it into the inner Solar System.What could eventually happen to it?
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Chapter 6: Home Base: Earth and Moon
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Q1) The ultimate power source of plate tectonics comes from:
A) volcanoes.
B) radioactive decays.
C) convection.
D) friction.
Q2) During a field reversal,Earth:
A) has a solid inner and outer iron core.
B) has a stronger bow shock.
C) experiences a greater flux of particles from the solar wind.
D) experiences more geologic activity than average.
Q3) "Snowball Earth" phases of geologic history were most likely caused by a(n):
A) decrease in the Sun's luminosity.
B) reduced concentration of atmospheric methane.
C) increased solar wind.
D) increase in volcanism.
Q4) A shield volcano is most likely to be associated with a(n):
A) earthquake-active zone.
B) plate boundary.
C) mantle plume.
D) subduction zone.
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Chapter 7: Sibling Worlds: Mercury, Venus, and Mars
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Q1) The search for water on Mars is an example of a:
A) guiding principle.
B) hypothesis.
C) paradigm.
D) test.
Q2) About one billion years ago,Venus underwent a:
A) runaway greenhouse effect.
B) resurfacing following massive volcanism.
C) massive collision that dramatically slowed its rotation rate.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The origin of Mars's moons is:
A) capture of nearby asteroids.
B) ejecta from giant impacts.
C) fragmentation of a larger body.
D) currently an area of active investigation.
Q4) Which of the following has most strongly shaped Venus's surface?
A) weathering
B) cratering
C) volcanism
D) seismic activity
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Chapter 8: Gas, ice, and Stone: the Outer Planets
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Q1) The Cassini Division is:
A) a result of tidally disrupted comets.
B) maintained through gravitational interactions with moons.
C) driven by magnetic anomalies.
D) evolving significantly over the course of a few decades.
Q2) Uranus is unique among the Solar System planets because it has:
A) strong evidence for a giant impact affecting its rotation.
B) the strongest storms.
C) the lowest density.
D) the most extreme seasonal variations.
Q3) What process creates the zones and belts in Saturn's atmosphere?
Q4) What is the only moon in our Solar System to have a substantial atmosphere?
A) Io
B) Titan
C) Europa
D) Triton
Q5) What is the internal structure of the giant planets?
Q6) What two factors are most responsible for the icy composition of Uranus and Neptune compared to the other giant planets?
Q7) What is the source of Jupiter's magnetic field?
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Chapter 9: Life and the Search for Habitable Worlds
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Q1) What is responsible for the oxygen in Earth's atmosphere?
Q2) Experiments have shown that a mixture of methane,hydrogen,water,and free energy is likely to produce:
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) proteins.
D) amino acids.
Q3) An exoplanet orbits its star on a circular orbit with a radius of 2 AU.If the planet is in the star's habitable zone,the star has a luminosity of:
A) 1 solar luminosity.
B) 2 solar luminosities.
C) 4 solar luminosities.
D) 16 solar luminosities.
Q4) What is sensitivity in the context of the definition of life?
Q5) Which of the following is a function of proteins inside cells?
A) structural components
B) enzymes
C) signalers
D) all of the above
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Chapter 10: The Sun As a Star
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Q1) Approximately what fraction of the Solar System's mass is inside the Sun?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 99.9%
Q2) A star loses one billion kilograms of material per second as it fuses hydrogen to helium.Approximately how much energy does the star produce each second?
A) 9 × 10<sup>25</sup> joules
B) 3 × 10<sup>25</sup> joules
C) 4 × 10<sup>26</sup> joules
D) 3 × 10<sup>31</sup> joules
Q3) A blob of gas just above the Sun's radiative zone absorbs energy.How does this energy reach the Sun's surface?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT identical among all isotopes of a given element?
A) number of protons
B) atomic number
C) atomic mass
D) proton number
Q5) How can heat be transported across a vacuum?
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Chapter 11: Measuring the Stars: the Main Sequence and Its Meaning
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Q1) A star has a surface temperature of 15,000 K.At what wavelength does the star produce the most energy?
Q2) What causes a star to leave the main sequence?
A) the decreasing temperature of the star
B) the decreasing temperature of the star's core
C) the consumption of all the star's hydrogen
D) the consumption of the stellar core's hydrogen
Q3) Which of the following must be measured in order to determine a star's proper motion?
A) angular position at multiple times
B) mass
C) redshift or blueshift
D) radius
Q4) The Sun is expected to spend about 5 billion more years on the main sequence.If its luminosity increased suddenly to four times its usual value,how much time would it remain on the main sequence?
Q5) In a typical observation of a globular cluster,90% of the observed stars will lie on the main sequence.What does this tell you about the life cycle of stars?
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Q6) What property of Cepheid variable stars makes them useful for distance measures?
Chapter 12: Nursery of the Stars: the Interstellar Medium and Star Formation
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Q1) What factor provides a giant molecular cloud's primary support against gravitational collapse?
Q2) Which of the following provides the best example of turbulence?
A) a molecular cloud with large whorls containing many smaller whorls
B) a jet launched at near the speed of light by a supermassive black hole
C) a large network of convection cells inside a star
D) an accretion disk rotating around a black hole
Q3) Which of the following is an important effect of interstellar dust?
A) a platform for the formation of molecules
B) pressure equilibrium in the interstellar medium
C) a source of diagnostic emission lines
D) heating of the interstellar medium
Q4) A protostar forming without magnetic fields will most likely lack:
A) a molecular outflow.
B) an accretion disk.
C) an envelope.
D) the conditions necessary for fusion.
Q5) List the five phases of the interstellar medium in order from coolest to hottest.
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Q6) Why is carbon important to the energy-generation process in a massive star?
Chapter 13: To the Graveyard of Stars: the End Points of
Stellar Evolution
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Q1) A neutron star has a radius of 10 km and twice the mass of the Sun.How does the gravitational acceleration of a ball on the surface of a neutron star compare to that on the surface of the Sun? (The Sun has a radius of about 700,000 km.)
Q2) What explodes in Type Ia and Type II supernovas?
Q3) Astronomers detect a roughly spherical shock wave 50 light-years across in the plane of the Milky Way galaxy.This was most likely caused by:
A) photoionization from a very massive star.
B) the death of a massive star.
C) the death of an intermediate mass star.
D) magnetized jets during star formation.
Q4) In order from most to least common,what are the possible remnants of stars that run out of fuel for fusion?
A) white dwarf, neutron star, black hole
B) white dwarf, black hole, neutron star
C) neutron star, white dwarf, black hole
D) neutron star, black hole, white dwarf
Q5) How can a binary companion affect a star's evolution?
Page 15
Q6) How is a neutron star supported against its own gravity?
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Chapter 14: Down the Rabbit Hole: Relativity and Black Holes
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Q1) What kind of objects exhibit the strongest frame-dragging effects?
Q2) Experiments to measure the properties of the luminiferous aether were problematic for scientists in the early 20th century because there was no evidence for:
A) the motion of observers relative to the aether.
B) absorption as light traveled through the aether.
C) emission of light from the aether.
D) gravitational effects of the aether.
Q3) A galaxy is positioned precisely behind another,very massive,galaxy on the sky.We would observe the more distant galaxy as a:
A) ring, displaced from the galaxy's true location.
B) pair of identical images, displaced from its true location.
C) single magnified image, at its true location.
D) single magnified image, displaced from its true location.
Q4) Which of the following is essential for galactic jets?
A) a starburst
B) strong magnetic fields
C) a molecular cloud
D) an elliptical galaxy
Q5) What is the event horizon of a black hole?
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Chapter
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Q1) Two stars have identical masses,but star A is part of Population I and star B is part of Population II.
How do these stars compare,if they are both on the main sequence?
A) Star A is redder than star B.
B) Star A is hotter than star B.
C) Star A has weaker absorption lines than star B.
D) The stars are nearly identical.
Q2) How did Harlow Shapley avoid the bias of dust when measuring the size and shape of the Milky Way?
A) by observing in the infrared
B) by observing in the radio
C) with star counts
D) using globular clusters
Q3) Which of the four fundamental forces of nature could dark matter experience?
A) gravity and the weak nuclear force
B) gravity, the strong nuclear force, and the weak nuclear force
C) gravity and the strong nuclear force
D) gravity only
Q4) How does the fraction of heavy elements inside gas clouds vary with location in the Milky Way's disk?
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Chapter 16: A Universe of Galaxies
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Q1) A low-mass galaxy is situated 10 kiloparsecs from a flocculent spiral galaxy.Which of the following is most likely to describe the low-mass galaxy?
A) irregular
B) spiral
C) barred spiral
D) elliptical
Q2) What two observables of a galaxy correlate most strongly with the mass of the galaxy's supermassive black hole?
Q3) Why was the large size of Edwin Hubble's telescope essential for resolving the nature of spiral nebulae?
Q4) An astronomer discovers a knot of emission that appears to escape a radio galaxy at three times the speed of light.What makes this phenomenon possible?
A) The central black hole produces an exotic particle that travels faster than the speed of light.
B) Magnetic fields accelerate the jet particles.
C) Nothing; it is an optical illusion.
D) Nothing; it is a consequence of the cosmological expansion.
Q5) Why are the bars in barred spiral galaxies typically bright?
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Chapter 17: The Cosmic Web: the Large-Scale Structure of the Universe
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Q1) An astronomer observes three large spiral galaxies within a radius of 1 Mpc of each other.This is most likely a galaxy:
A) group.
B) cluster.
C) association.
D) merger.
Q2) The high temperature and pressure of gas in the intracluster medium of galaxy clusters implies that:
A) clusters are in the midst of expanding.
B) clusters host powerful active galactic nuclei.
C) many of the cluster galaxies are obscured by absorption from the intracluster medium.
D) clusters are dominated by dark matter.
Q3) How would the history of structure formation in our Universe have been different if dark matter were not cold,but moved at a moderately fast velocity?
Q4) Why do redshift surveys require so much telescope time?
Q5) In what sense is the Universe homogeneous?
Q6) Why do astronomers refer to the Dark Ages as "dark"?
Q7) Why were quasars most common 10 billion years ago?
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Chapter 18: Cosmology
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Q1) A photon is emitted from a galaxy with a wavelength of 100 nm.By the time it reaches a telescope on Earth,the photon has a wavelength of 800 nm.By what factor has the Universe expanded between the photon's emission and detection?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
Q2) What process is thought by most astronomers to be responsible for making the Universe flat?
Q3) Which of the following were necessary for Einstein to formulate equations describing the Universe as a whole?
A) homogeneity
B) isotropy
C) general relativity
D) all of the above
Q4) How did astronomers rule out the steady-state model of the Universe in the 1960s?
Q5) What were the two most common nuclei in the Universe ten minutes after the Big Bang,and what were their relative abundances?
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