Chapter 2: Light and Telescopes
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Q1) This design combines the radiation from two different telescopes to greatly enhance resolution via computer synthesis.
A) Cassegrain reflector
B) Newtonian reflector
C) Prime focus reflector
D) Refractor
E) Interferometer
Answer: E
Q2) The light gathering ability of a telescope is most dependent on the diameter of its primary objective.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Give an example of the Doppler Effect being used in a baseball game.
Answer: The Doppler "gun" can focus on the motion of the baseball, and give us the speed that the pitcher is delivering it to the plate.
Q4) The emission line for a given atom shows spectral features at the ________ location as in its absorption spectrum.
Answer: same
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Chapter 3: The Solar System
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Q1) Galileo's discovery of four moons orbiting ________ provided new support for the ideas of Copernicus.
Answer: Jupiter
Q2) In the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, the rare transits of ________ were critical in determining the astronomical unit's length.
Answer: Venus
Q3) Which of the following is a contribution to astronomy made by Galileo?
A) The astronomical telescope can show us far more detail than the eye can.
B) Jupiter has four moons orbiting it.
C) The Moon has craters, mountain, valleys, and dark flat areas on its surface.
D) Venus appears almost fully lit when it lies on the far side of the Sun.
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Q4) The eccentricity of a perfectly circular orbit is 1.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) In terms of ________, all the terrestrials are greater than any of the jovians.
Answer: density
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Chapter 5: The Eight Planets
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Q1) How does the magnetic tilt of Jupiter compare with our field?
A) Both are exactly perpendicular to our equator, aligned with our rotation axis.
B) Jupiter's lies perpendicular to the ecliptic, while ours is tilted 23.5 degrees.
C) Both are tilted about 10 degrees, but Jupiter is opposite in polarity.
D) Both are tilted about 27 degrees, much like Saturn's.
E) Like Uranus, Jupiter is flopped over on its side.
Q2) The Great ________ Spot of Neptune was striking in 1989, but gone by 1995.
Q3) The largest shield volcano yet discovered is
A) Maxwell Mons on Venus.
B) Kilimanjaro on Earth.
C) Olympus Mons on Mars.
D) Prometheus on Io.
E) Caloris on Mercury.
Q4) Describe how conditions on Venus have produced a runaway greenhouse effect.
Q5) The Great Dark Spot on Neptune is probably as stable as Jupiter's famed Great Red Spot.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Small Bodies in the Solar System
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Q1) The moons of Saturn are darker than those of Uranus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Titan has oceans made chiefly of liquid ________, along with smaller amounts of methane and propane.
Q3) Why do Saturn's rings exist?
Q4) The rings of Uranus and Neptune are found
A) by the Hubble Space Telescope.
B) above their equators.
C) in the ecliptic plane.
D) outside the Roche limit.
E) all of the above
Q5) As with Saturn's F ring, shepherd moons play a major role in the structure of the thin narrow rings around Uranus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Neptune's large moon ________ is the only large satellite known in a retrograde orbit.
Q7) Which of the Galilean Moons may have a subsurface layer of liquid water?
Q8) The moons of Uranus are darker than those of Saturn, due to ________.
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Chapter 7: Formation of Planetary Systems
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Q1) The radial velocity method is less likely to detect low mass planets than high mass planets because low mass planets cause smaller ________ fluctuations.
Q2) Planets found in the habitable zone of other stars
A) are all rocky planets, like the terrestrial planets in our solar system.
B) are all jovian planets.
C) include some Earths and super-Earths.
D) include hot Jupiters.
E) have been demonstrated to be barren of all life.
Q3) Any model of solar system formation must explain why comets come from the Oort Cloud, with orbits very different from the planets, asteroids, and Kuiper Belt Objects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stars with multiple planets orbiting them are expected to be rare.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In general, the surfaces of the planets will be ________ than the age of the solar system.
Q6) The Kuiper Belt is located beyond the orbit of ________.
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Chapter 8: The Sun
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Q1) The percentage (by number of atoms) of the Sun that is hydrogen is about A) 91%.
B) 71%.
C) 27%.
D) 9%.
E) less than 1%.
Q2) The speed of light is 3.00 × 10 m/s. If 2.00 kg of mass is converted to energy, how much energy will be produced?
A) 1.80 × 10¹ J
B) 6.00 × 10 J
C) 1.50 × 10 J
D) 6.00 × 10 J
E) 9.00 × 10¹ J
Q3) The primary source of the Sun's energy is
A) oxidation of carbon in the core.
B) gravitational collapse of the helium coreward.
C) dark energy.
D) the strong force fusing hydrogen into helium.
E) the weak force creating energy from uranium decay.
Q4) Iron is observed in the Sun's ________.
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Chapter 9: Measuring the Stars
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Q1) In a visual binary system with circular orbits, if in 20 years the two stars' position angles have shifted by 30 degrees, the pair's period must be
A) 60 years.
B) 90 years.
C) 120 years.
D) 240 years.
E) 360 years.
Q2) In an eclipsing binary, the longer the stages of the eclipse take, the ________ the star.
Q3) Procyon lies about 13 light-years distant, thus its parallax is about
A) 0.01".
B) 0.25".
C) 0.40".
D) 0.65".
E) 1.3".
Q4) In a binary system, the more massive stars always stay closer to the center of mass and move slower.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Star Formation and Evolution
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Q1) The order of evolutionary stages of a star like the Sun would be Main Sequence, giant, planetary nebula, and finally a ________.
Q2) What is the source of the large dust shells seen around some red giants and red supergiants?
A) Leftover material from their formation
B) Debris left behind by a supernova
C) Material from winds from these same stars
D) Debris left behind by passing comets
E) Star-forming molecular clouds
Q3) What inevitably forces a star like the Sun to evolve away from being a main sequence star?
A) The core begins fusing iron.
B) The star uses up all its supply of hydrogen.
C) The carbon detonation explodes it as a type I supernova.
D) Helium builds up in the core, while the hydrogen burning shell expands.
E) The core loses all its neutrinos, so all fusion ceases.
Q4) The Orion Nebula glows strongly in the infrared.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a low-mass star runs out of hydrogen in its core, it gets brighter. Why?
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Chapter 12: Black Holes
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Q1) Special relativity says that time is a separate ________ in the workings of the universe.
Q2) As a spaceship's velocity gets closer to the speed of light
A) its length will increase and its clock will run more slowly.
B) its length will decrease and its clock will run faster.
C) its length will increase and its clock will run faster.
D) its length will decrease and its clock will run more slowly.
E) None of these will happen.
Q3) Special relativity predicts that light bends near dense objects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If light from a distant star passes close to a massive body, the light beam will A) bend towards the star due to gravity.
B) continue moving in a straight line.
C) change color to a shorter wavelength.
D) slow down.
E) accelerate due to gravity.
Q5) Relate escape velocity to the event horizon.
Q6) How is the Schwartzschild radius calculated?
Q7) Why is the light from near a black hole redshifted?
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Chapter 13: The Milky Way Galaxy
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Q1) The infall of material in the Galactic halo to the Galactic disk stopped shortly after the formation of globular clusters.
A)True B)False
Q2) Henrietta Leavitt first showed the relationship between the mass and luminosity of Cepheids and their period of pulsation; the brighter, the longer this period.
A)True B)False
Q3) The major problem faced by optical astronomers in trying to deduce the structure of the Milky Way Galaxy is that we can see only a small part of it because of the
Q4) Density waves may explain
A) the lack of blue stars in the halo.
B) the random orbits of halo stars.
C) the density of red stars in the bulge.
D) the spiral arm structure of the Galaxy.
E) the large number of open clusters in the halo.
Q5) Of what is the Galactic halo presumed to be composed? What evidence supports this conclusion?
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Chapter 14: Galaxies
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Q1) Giant elliptical galaxies may be the result of ________ in the centers of rich clusters.
Q2) There is very little interstellar gas or dust in most elliptical galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Based on galactic rotation curves and cluster dynamics, we think dark matter
A) is a minor component of the entire mass of the universe.
B) is best detected from the X-rays it produces in the intergalactic medium.
C) will have no effect on the fate of the universe.
D) comprises over 90% of the entire mass of the universe.
E) will doom the universe to collapse, overcoming the red shifts we now observe.
Q4) Almost all active galactic nuclei seem to be involved in ________ with neighbors.
Q5) While examining the spectrum of a galaxy you find all the hydrogen lines are shifted to longer wavelengths. This galaxy is
A) moving away from us.
B) moving towards us.
C) expanding explosively.
D) blue shifted.
E) not forming new stars.
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