Course Introduction
Dentistry Pharmacology Study Guide Questions
Dentistry Pharmacology is a course designed to provide dental students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles of pharmacology as they pertain to dental practice. The course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions of drugs commonly used in dentistry, including local anesthetics, antibiotics, analgesics, antiseptics, and agents for managing dental anxiety and infections. Special emphasis is placed on drug selection, dosage, and safe administration considering patient-specific factors, such as age, medical history, and concurrent medications. Additionally, the course explores the implications of pharmacological treatments in the management of oral diseases, prescribing practices, and the role of the dental professional in monitoring and educating patients about medication use.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1096 Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) A pharmacological event that characterises the Age of Synthetic Substances is the:
A) use of recombinant DNA technology.
B) introduction of tea, coffee and cocoa into Europe.
C) therapeutic use of camphor and cod-liver oils.
D) first isolation of a number of active plant constituents.
Answer: D
Q2) From which plant is morphine derived?
A) Erythroxylum coca.
B) Papaver somniferum.
C) Cannabis sativa.
D) Claviceps purpurea.
Answer: B
Q3) Observing the physiological effects of a drug in vivo involves:
A) organs and tissues that are removed from the body.
B) the whole organism.
C) IVF therapy.
D) trials on animal subjects.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Answer: A
Q2) In their role as client advocate, health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy, other health care related matters, or when confronted by adversaries, so as to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1-3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs administered transdermally must be:
A) lipophilic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophobic.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: A
Q2) Ointments are lipid-based preparations that act like an occlusive dressing to:
A) completely shut out the skin from the air, but allow sweating to still occur.
B) partially shut out the skin from the air, but allow sweating to still occur.
C) partially shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.
D) completely shut out the skin from the air and prevent sweating.
Answer: A
Q3) Suppositories, in general, when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glyceryl trinitrate is almost 96 per cent destroyed by the liver on its first journey through. It is therefore referred to having a:
A) low hepatic first-pass effect.
B) medium hepatic first-pass effect
C) high hepatic first-pass effect.
D) high metabolic first-pass effect.
Q2) A client that you are caring for has advanced kidney disease and is about to commence drug therapy. In order to maintain safe plasma drug levels, the prescriber might have to consider:
A) increasing the dosage.
B) decreasing the dosage.
C) increasing the frequency of dosing.
D) increasing the dose and frequency of administration.
Q3) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
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6
Chapter 5: To Xicology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hallucinogens can distort a person's perceptions or produce hallucinations that affect any or all of the senses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A chelating agent that can be used in the management of magnesium poisoning is:
A) calcium gluconate.
B) dicobalt edetate.
C) calcium disodium edetate.
D) desferrioxamine mesylate.
Q3) The effects of excessive stimulation of cholinergic nicotinic receptors include: nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sweating, drooling, bradycardia and miosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following is not a component of client assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred.
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose.
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose.
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the client's blood.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor in the ward setting, which of the following drugs should be kept on hand to reverse the effects of any decrease in pulse?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation.
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Atropine.
Q2) Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
Q3) In response to stressful ('fight or flight') situations, sympathetic nervous stimulation causes dilation of bronchioles (to allow rapid air movement) and of coronary blood vessels, and increases heart rate and contractile force.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of histamine receptor, located in the parietal cells of the stomach, is able to trigger gastric acid release upon activation?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Q3) To maximise the therapeutic effects of antihistamines for motion sickness, they should be taken:
A) when symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
B) before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
C) with milk.
D) in a double dose as soon as symptoms begin.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa, the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.
Q2) One of the pharmacological issues associated with the widespread distribution of receptors for a particular transmitter throughout the brain is that:
A) the number of unwanted drug effects is low.
B) there is a need to develop more specific agents.
C) the drugs will not work on peripheral body receptors.
D) the receptors are all of the same subtype.
Q3) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with:
A) Motor neurone disease.
B) Multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because:
A) they are not metabolised in the liver.
B) they do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) they are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) they do not affect platelet aggregation.
Q2) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine.
B) Methadone.
C) Codeine.
D) Fentanyl.
Q3) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a longer half-life, which contributes to weaker withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors leaving few receptors available for a heroin 'high'.
D) all of the above.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
Q2) An important consideration associated with anaemias caused by vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency is that:
A) high doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> can induce hyperkalaemia.
B) in pernicious anaemia, vitamin B<sub>12</sub> must be administered parenterally.
C) the clinical form of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is called pyridoxine.
D) solutions of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> must be kept refrigerated.
Q3) High levels of which of the following lipoproteins can be beneficial?
A) VLDL.
B) HDL.
C) LDL.
D) IDL.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.
Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine.
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam.
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine.
D) A hypnotic, midazolam.
Q2) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q3) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of: A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acromegaly is treated using:
A) lanreotide.
B) somatropin.
C) lisuride.
D) domperidone.
Q2) When administering somatropin produced from recombinant DNA technology in a young child, it is important to monitor:
A) urinary levels of potassium and sodium.
B) for limping.
C) serum levels of potassium and sodium.
D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with the glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of lymph nodes and spleen.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) St John's wort has proved to be effective, according to some studies, in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q2) At what rate are enteral feeds usually commenced?
A) 100mL per hour.
B) 30 mL per hour.
C) 10 mL per hour.
D) 60 mL per hour.
Q3) The use of garlic as a herbal medication should be avoided in all of the following conditions except in:
A) the person with atherosclerosis.
B) the woman who is pregnant.
C) the person on anticoagulant therapy.
D) the person on hypoglycaemic therapy.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents.
B) Vinca alkaloids.
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues.
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics.
Q2) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents such as doxorubicin and dactinomycin should only be administered:
A) orally.
B) intrathecally.
C) subcutaneously.
D) intravenously.
Q3) Tinea cruris is also known as:
A) athlete's foot.
B) ringworm.
C) onychomycosis.
D) jockstrap itch.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinion treatment?
A) To avoid sunscreen use.
B) To monitor iron levels.
C) To supplement with folate.
D) To ensure adequate contraception.
Q2) Which one of the following sunscreens blocks almost 97% of UVB light?
A) SPF 6.
B) SPF 15.
C) SPF 30.
D) SPF 50.
Q3) Nappy rash can occur due to:
A) the use of disposable nappy products.
B) the production of ammonia from the breakdown of urine.
C) hypersensitivity reactions to breast milk.
D) all of the above.
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