Dentistry Pharmacology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Dentistry Pharmacology explores the principles of pharmacology with a focus on drugs commonly used in dental practice. The course covers the mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions of local anesthetics, analgesics, antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, and agents used in the management of dental and oral conditions. Emphasis is placed on safe drug prescribing, management of medical emergencies in dental settings, and special considerations for patients with systemic diseases. Through integrated lectures and case discussions, students gain the pharmacological knowledge essential for effective and safe dental care.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Macusi Indians of Guyana have a place in the history of pharmacology as the first users of which type of drug?
A) A hallucinogenic agent related to LSD.
B) A narcotic analgesic.
C) A skeletal muscle relaxant.
D) A central nervous system stimulant.
Answer: C
Q2) The generic name of a medication is:
A) the name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) the name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) the chemical name of the medication.
D) the shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q3) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) The doctor tells the nurse to administer excessive doses of opioid analgesic and sedative drugs to relieve the client's intractable pain, but not to tell the client's family. Which ethical principle would be breached if the nurse gives the drugs but does not tell the family?
A) Veracity.
B) Confidentiality.
C) Justice.
D) Beneficence.
Answer: A
Q2) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Answer: A
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laxative enemas are hypertonic in order to:
A) draw water into the lower gastrointestinal tract to soften stool.
B) dissolve faecal matter to enable it to be excreted.
C) improve the fluid balance of the client.
D) bulk up the faeces in order to minimise diarrhoea.
Answer: A
Q2) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Answer: D
Q3) In children over the age of three and adults, for aural administration the auricle is pulled:
A) down and back.
B) up and back.
C) down and outwards.
D) up and outwards.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q2) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is, the drug is extensively bound to a tissue), its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Q4) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol.
B) Salbutamol.
C) Isoflurane.
D) Metoprolol.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate antidote to warfarin overdose is:
A) protamine sulphate.
B) pralidoxime iodide.
C) vitamin K.
D) vitamin D.
Q2) Which of the following statements about caffeine is correct?
A) Caffeine is a very safe drug.
B) Caffeine can be ulcerogenic and exacerbates peptic ulcers.
C) Caffeine has agonistic action on the adenosine receptors.
D) Caffeine has an excitatory action on the enzyme phosphodiesterase.
Q3) What type of medication can be given prophylactically to reduce the chance of serum sickness developing in clients who have received large doses of antivenom?
A) An intravenous antibiotic.
B) An oral corticosteroid.
C) An oral antihistamine.
D) A topical antifungal agent.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical use for antagonists is in the treatment of:
A) bronchial asthma.
B) hypotension.
C) hypertension.
D) nasal decongestion.
Q2) Medications for myasthenia gravis are best taken:
A) in the morning.
B) at lunchtime.
C) in the late afternoon.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) Which one of the following statements best describes the actions of the ephedrines?
A) These drugs directly activate adrenergic receptor populations.
B) These drugs are pro-drugs of adrenaline.
C) These drugs trigger the release of presynaptic stores of noradrenaline.
D) These drugs work by a mixed action of releasing noradrenaline and direct agonist activity.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A human disease that may be associated with excessive nitric oxide production is:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) some forms of cancer.
D) poor wound healing.
Q2) Which of the following is a second generation antihistamine?
A) Fexofenadine.
B) Diphenhydramine.
C) Dimenhydrinate.
D) Promethazine.
Q3) Which of the following peptide mediators is normally involved in enhancing pain transmission?
A) Endorphin.
B) Substance P.
C) Endothelin.
D) Neuropeptide Y.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam.
B) Triazolam.
C) Diazepam.
D) Flunitrazepam.
Q2) The potentially fatal 'serotonin syndrome' is associated with SSRI therapy for depression. Which of the following signs or symptoms are not linked to serotonin syndrome?
A) Weight gain.
B) Hyperthermia.
C) Sweating.
D) Euphoria or drowsiness.
Q3) A seizure characterised by an unresponsive, blank state and stereotypic behaviours (such as eyelid fluttering) is:
A) an absence seizure.
B) a psychomotor seizure.
C) a Jacksonian seizure.
D) tonic-clonic seizure.
10
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preventative therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q2) When administering tramadol, it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q3) Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax.
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear.
C) Tachycardia.
D) Intestinal obstruction.
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11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches, the client should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a 'nitrate-free' time from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q2) High doses of vitamin B12 may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q3) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a person with depression?
A) Calcium channel blockers.
B) Centrally acting agents.
C) Angiotensin II antagonists.
D) ACE inhibitors.
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12
Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q2) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate.
B) Metoclopramide.
C) Ondansetron.
D) Hyoscine.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of drugs that act on the pituitary are given to prevent premature ovulation associated with assisted reproduction?
A) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone antagonists.
B) Partial oestrogen agonists.
C) Dopamine agonists.
D) Gonadotrophins.
Q2) In humans, the two feeding centres are located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q3) Which statement is true about oral hypoglycaemic drugs?
A) This group of drugs does not lower blood sugar levels directly.
B) This group of drugs alters liver function or increases effectiveness of endogenous insulin.
C) This group of drugs is always first-line treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus.
D) Both A and B.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged use of zinc may lead to:
A) hepatolenticular degeneration.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypertension.
D) copper deficiency and anaemia.
Q2) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the fridge about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q3) Thiamine deficiency may occur in any of the following conditions except:
A) infants under the age of two.
B) alcoholism.
C) cirrhosis.
D) gastrointestinal disease.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones.
B) Macrolides.
C) Nitroimidazoles.
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials.
Q2) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q3) Interferon is indicated in the treatment of the following except:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) selected leukemias.
D) genital warts.
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Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions is not a common adverse reaction to topical application of ophthalmic drugs?
A) A stinging sensation.
B) Altered colour vision.
C) Oedema.
D) A burning sensation.
Q2) The site of administration of an intracameral injection would be:
A) directly under the conjunctival membrane.
B) into the posterior cavity.
C) into the anterior chamber.
D) behind the eyeball.
Q3) Which of the following is a drug group that is used in the treatment of glaucoma that decreases aqueous humour production?
A) Prostamides.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -blockers.
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