Dentistry Pathology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dentistry Pathology is a comprehensive course that explores the nature, causes, and effects of diseases that affect the oral and maxillofacial regions. Students will gain an in-depth understanding of the cellular and molecular mechanisms underlying oral diseases, including inflammatory, infectious, neoplastic, and developmental disorders. Through case studies, lectures, and laboratory work, learners will develop diagnostic skills essential for identifying and managing oral pathologies. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between oral and systemic health, preparing students to approach patient care with a holistic and evidence-based perspective.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man who had generalized atherosclerosis died 24 hours after having a stroke. A cerebral infarct was found at autopsy. Necrosis of the brain is classified as A) coagulative necrosis
B) liquefactive necrosis
C) fat necrosis
D) fibrinoid necrosis
E) caseous necrosis
Answer: B
Q2) Continuous expression of the gene for atrial natriuretic factor in the myocardial cells of the left ventricle is typically a consequence of
A) myocardial infarction
B) angina pectoris
C) hypertension
D) hypotension
E) ventricular fibrillation
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by
A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following mediators of inflammation has chemotactic properties and is increased in persons taking aspirin?
A) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
B) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
C) Platelet-activating factor
D) Leukotriene B<sub>4</sub>
E) Interleukin-1
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of septic shock are caused by endotoxin-producing bacteria, which are classified as
A) pyogenic
B) gram-positive
C) gram-negative
D) encapsulated
E) acid fast
Answer: C
Q2) In the antiphospholipid syndrome of systemic lupus erythematosus, arterial thrombi occur most often in the arteries of the
A) brain
B) heart
C) kidneys
D) intestines
E) bronchi
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the predominant and most common cardiovascular manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Mural endocarditis
B) Valvular endocarditis of mitral valve
C) Myocarditis
D) Pericarditis
E) Conduction system injury with arrhythmia
Q2) Deposition of AL amyloid in the kidneys of patients with multiple myeloma usually results in
A) acute renal failure
B) tubular necrosis
C) nephrotic syndrome
D) chronic pyelonephritis
E) nephrocalcinosis
Q3) Autoantibodies to IgA are found in approximately 40% of patients who have
A) common variable immunodeficiency
B) isolated IgA deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) severe combined immunodeficiency
E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helicobacter pylori infection predisposes to formation of gastric tumors, but the association between the bacterial infection and a gastric tumor is the strongest for
A) adenocarcinoma of the stomach
B) gastrointestinal stromal tumors
C) marginal zone lymphomas
D) T-cell lymphoma
E) Burkitt lymphoma
Q2) Which mechanism affecting the genes or chromosomes accounts for the activation of the c-myc protooncogene in Burkitt lymphoma cells?
A) Overexpression
B) Amplification
C) Point mutation
D) Translocation
E) Inactivation of its promotor
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The soft core of an aortic atheroma consists primarily of
A) triglycerides
B) cholesterol
C) free fatty acids
D) fibrin
E) pus
Q2) Mutation of the gene for lysyl hydroxylase in the kyphoscoliosis type Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (ED type VI) causes weakness of bones and cutis laxa because of abnormal collagen
A) synthesis
B) secretion
C) cross-linking
D) degradation
E) resorption
Q3) Chromosome 22q11 deletion is typically associated with
A) rocker-bottom feet
B) horseshoe kidneys
C) thymic hypoplasia
D) microphthalmia
E) simian crease on hands
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unopposed exogenous estrogen administration in women after menopause will increase the risk of cancer of which organ?
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Ovary
D) Cervix
E) Endometrium
Q2) Xerophthalmia and night blindness typically result from deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q3) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppurative nail infection (paronychia) and abscesses of fingertips ("felons") are most likely caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Which African disease is complicated by elephantiasis of the legs?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
Q3) Diarrhea caused by cholera toxin results from the action of this toxin on cells of the A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) cecum
D) transverse colon
E) rectum
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of
A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q2) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin
B) elevation of angiotensin in blood
C) potassium retention in the kidneys
D) reduced sodium excretion in urine
E) increased diuresis
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Chapter 10: Heart
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following vascular tumors is classified as an intermediate grade (low-grade malignant) neoplasm?
A) Capillary hemangioma
B) Lymphangioma
C) Hemangioendothelioma
D) Angiosarcoma
E) Glomus tumor
Q2) A 55-year-old man presented with fever, fatigue, and flu-like symptoms. Murmurs were heard in the pericardial area, and ultrasonography revealed lesions on the mitral valve. The patient suddenly developed right flank pain. Several hours later, urinalysis showed hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
B) Acute bacterial endocarditis
C) Rheumatic endocarditis
D) Fungal endocarditis
E) Atrial fibrillation with thrombus formation in the left auricle
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
C) Mantle cell lymphoma
D) Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
E) Angiocentric lymphoma
Q2) Aplastic crisis, which can be encountered in patients with hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, is most often precipitated by
A) deficiency of erythropoietin
B) negative feedback inhibition by bilirubin
C) adverse effect of iron released from hemolyzed erythrocytes
D) autoimmune mechanisms
E) parvovirus infection
Q3) Terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase is a marker of
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Precursors of B and T lymphocytes
D) Plasma cells
E) Natural killer cells
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inhalation of which substance is the most common cause of "humidifier" or "air-conditioner" lung?
A) Thermophilic bacteria
B) Cotton fibers
C) Animal proteins
D) Plant proteins
E) Talc
Q2) Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of pulmonary abscesses?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Escherichia coli
Q3) Which is the most prevalent chronic occupational lung disease found worldwide?
A) Complicated coal workers' pneumoconiosis
B) Asbestosis
C) Berylliosis
D) Silicosis
E) Stannosis
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) Amyloidosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Q2) The normal glomerular basement membrane is composed of which type of collagen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
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15
Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The finding of anti-endomysial antibodies in a person with intestinal malabsorption strongly favors the diagnosis of
A) Whipple disease
B) celiac sprue
C) tropical sprue
D) lactase deficiency
E) abetalipoproteinemia
Q2) Autoimmune atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia are most often associated with
A) Helicobacter pylori infection
B) peptic ulceration of the duodenum
C) Ménétrier disease
D) Hashimoto thyroiditis
E) trichobezoars
Q3) Carcinoma of the esophagus most often presents on gross examination as a
A) polypoid exophytic lesion
B) flat induration of the mucosa
C) volcano-like excavated lesion
D) diffuse narrowing of the esophageal lumen
E) linitis plastica
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Centrolobular necrosis is typical of intoxication with A) hydralazine
B) acetaminophen
C) methyldopa
D) methotrexate
E) chlorpromazine
Q2) Cryoglobulinemia is found in chronic hepatitis caused by which hepatotropic virus?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
Q3) The most common cause of cirrhosis unrelated to alcohol, viral hepatitis, or metabolic diseases (i.e., the so-called "cryptogenic cirrhosis") is
A) latent bacterial infection
B) amyloidosis
C) circulatory disorders
D) steatohepatitis
E) autoimmune diseases
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q3) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Androstenedione
D) Estriol
E) Inhibin
Q2) A patient who develops cancer later in life shows an increased tendency to develop urogenital congenital anomalies of the lower urinary tract. Which of the following anomalies is this patient most likely to develop?
A) Bladder diverticular
B) Bladder exstrophy
C) Hypospadia
D) Congenital urethral stenosis
E) Megaureters
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming that a vaccination will be discovered for the human papillomavirus in women, it is expected that the vaccination will reduce the incidence of carcinoma at which of the following sites?
A) Clitoris
B) Vagina
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Ovary
Q2) Comedocarcinoma of the breast is a type of which of the following carcinomas?
A) Ductal carcinoma in situ
B) Medullary carcinoma
C) Invasive ductal carcinoma
D) Invasive lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
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20
Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcifications of the basal ganglia are complications associated with parkinsonian-like movement disorders and calcification of the lens with cataract formation. These complications are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
A) Parathyroid adenoma
B) Secondary parathyroid hyperplasia
C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
D) Parathyroid carcinoma
E) Hypoparathyroidism
Q2) The best characterized molecular abnormality in pituitary adenomas involves which of the following?
A) Cell surface receptors
B) G-proteins mediating signal transduction
C) Adenylate cyclase related cytoplasmic effectors
D) Nuclear receptors
E) DNA repair enzymes
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscle diseases is classified as an ion channel myopathy (channelopathy)?
A) Dysferlin deficiency
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Malignant hyperpyrexia
D) Central core disease
E) Myotubular myopathy
Q2) Loss of heterozygosity, structural rearrangements, or point mutations of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene (RB) are found in 60%-70% of all sporadic bone tumors. Which of the following is the best classification for this tumor?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Osteoblastoma
C) Osteoid osteoma
D) Chondrosarcoma
E) Ewing sarcoma
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22
Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
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Chapter 23: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
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