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Dental Radiology Question Bank - 1581 Verified Questions

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Dental Radiology Question

Bank

Course Introduction

Dental Radiology is a foundational course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of radiographic imaging in dentistry. Students will learn about the physics of radiation, safety protocols, and the operation of radiographic equipment. The course covers intraoral and extraoral imaging methods, interpretation of dental radiographs, and the role of radiology in diagnosing oral diseases and planning treatment. Emphasis is placed on radiation protection, proper patient positioning, and image quality assessment to ensure accurate and safe diagnostic outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi

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64 Chapters

1581 Verified Questions

1581 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166 Page 2

Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not one of the four major concepts of paradigm for the dental hygiene discipline?

A) Client

B) Health and oral health

C) Environment

D) Nutrition

Answer: D

Q2) All of these services are provided by the majority of dental hygienists in the clinical setting except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Perform periodontal maintenance care.

B) Implement interventions to direct a person back to oral wellness.

C) Provide fluoride varnish treatment.

D) Place and remove restorations.

Answer: D

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3

Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23020

Sample Questions

Q1) Periodontal disease is epidemic in the United States and elsewhere. The human need for skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck is usually unmet in clients seeking dental hygiene care.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Answer: A

Q2) Which human need is characterized by the need to be exempt from physical discomfort in the head and neck area?

A) Conceptualization and understanding

B) Freedom from head and neck pain

C) Freedom from stress

D) Responsibility for oral health

E) Wholesome facial image

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23021

Sample Questions

Q1) Put the levels of evidence order of their ability to demonstrate causality and limit bias, with answer 1 as the highest level and 5 as the lowest level.

A) Case control study

B) Cohort study

C) Systematic review

D) Randomized controlled trial

E) Case report

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3

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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23022

Sample Questions

Q1) Enhancing people's capacity to cope with an ever-changing environment is a challenge of which healthcare movement?

A) Health promotion

B) Disease treatment

C) Treatment intervention

D) Disease prevention

E) Tertiary prevention

Q2) Health-promotion movement is the responsibility of the public health dental hygienist. Disease treatment is the responsibility of the clinic-based dental hygienist.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Dental hygienists focus on disease treatment. Health promotion is the responsibility of all health professionals.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23023

Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children

Q2) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)

Q3) Although perceptions are formed based on past experience, they are easily changed.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.

Q5) Interpersonal communication is the process by which a person sends a message to another person with the intention of evoking a response.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)

Q7) The Zones of touch are _________________ and

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Chapter 6: Cultural Competence

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23024

Sample Questions

Q1) An equitable, culturally sensitive environment is characterized by:

A) the care provider initiating a cultural encounter.

B) reciprocal inquiry between the client and care provider.

C) the client initiating sharing information about his or her cultural beliefs.

D) the care provider tailoring the information to the mindset of the client.

Q2) Statement 1: Health care literacy is the ability to understand health or disease.

Statement 2: Poverty is not a barrier to access healthcare.

A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.

B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.

C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.

D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

Q3) Stereotyping:

A) is effective in a strange environment with new people to ascertain the characteristics of a member of a particular group.

B) can be described as an inaccurate, biased assessment of another human being based on group characteristics.

C) is an essential step in analyzing cultural differences.

D) recognizes the uniqueness of the individual and allows an accurate perception of the individual.

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23025

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the terms do not belong in the four "Rs" model for reflective thinking and writing?

A) Revisit

B) React

C) Relate

D) Reply

Q2) A résumé is a summary of your experiences and skills relevant to the field of work you are entering. A curriculum vitae (CV) is a written description of your work experience, educational background and skills that is more detailed than a résumé.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Which of the following steps should come first in creating an e-portfolio?

A) Writing reflections

B) Selecting a design template

C) Collecting the artifacts

D) Finding a portfolio web site for publishing

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9

Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23026

Sample Questions

Q1) The dental laboratory is a well-ventilated are a. It is where dental work directly performed on the client takes place.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) Which of the following services can dental hygienists perform in a hospital setting?

A) bedside care to clients to ill to be transported to the dental clinic

B) care for person who are homebound

C) care for persons who are wheelchair bound

D) take radiographs

Q3) Digital radiography provides instant feedback for diagnosis, allows for client education, and involves less radiation exposure. All of the following are the current sensor sizes available except size:

A) 2.

B) 3.

C) 0.

D) 1.

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Chapter 9: Infection Control

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23027

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common type of sterilizer found in dental healthcare settings?

A) Dry heat sterilizers

B) Immersion chemical sterilants

C) Steam autoclaves

D) Unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizers

Q2) Which type of infection-control precautions guards against exposure, not just to blood, but to all body fluids except sweat and tears in healthcare settings?

A) Generic

B) Universal

C) Standard

D) Transmission based

E) Isolation

Q3) Which of the following pathogens is most likely to be effectively transmitted in a dental health care setting, if a bloodborne occupational exposure occurs?

A) Hepatitis B virus

B) Hepatitis C virus

C) Human immunodeficiency virus

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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11

Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A ventilation mask has benefits over mouth-to-mouth resuscitation because it provides a barrier for prevention of disease transmission and creates a seal over the mouth and nose.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Which of the following are emergencies that would require placing the client in an upright position?

A) Syncope

B) Shock

C) Asthma attack

D) Congestive heart failure

E) Seizure

F) Adrenal crisis

G) Stroke

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Ergonomics

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23029

Sample Questions

Q1) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.

Q2) List three chairside preventive measures to minimize the occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome.

Q3) One environmental factor to consider to reduce the occurrence of repetitive stress injuries is the temperature of the workplace; this is because a cold room temperature is related to less-relaxed, less-flexible muscles and tendons.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

Q4) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.

Q5) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?

A) Ulnar nerve

B) Radial nerve

C) Median nerve

D) Nerves from the brachial plexus

Q6) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?

Page 13

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Chapter 12: The Health History

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23030

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis before oral procedures?

A) Heart murmur

B) Mitral valve prolapse

C) Prior infective endocarditis

D) Heart transplant

Q2) For the client who reports having an artificial heart valve, antibiotic prophylaxis should be given according to what schedule?

A) At the appointment time

B) One half hour before the appointment

C) 2 hours before the appointment

D) 1 hour after procedure is initiated

Q3) The case control study completed by the Mayo Clinic concluded that:

A) antibiotic prophylaxis did not prevent infection in a prosthetic joint.

B) antibiotic prophylaxis diminishes the risk for infection in the prosthetic joint.

C) antibiotic prophylaxis is essential to prevent prosthetic joint infection.

D) dental procedures lead to prosthetic joint infection.

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14

Chapter 13: Vital Signs

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23031

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the normal respiration rate for adults?

A) 6 to 8 breaths/min

B) 12 to 20 breaths/min

C) 15 to 22 breaths/min

D) 20 to 30 breaths/min

Q2) If the client reports an occasional premature ventricular contraction (PVC):

A) the client should be referred to a physician.

B) contact their physician if there is an increase in frequency.

C) the dentist should be notified to initiate a referral to the physician.

D) contact emergency medical services (EMS) for an immediate response to an emergency situation.

Q3) When vital signs are taken at the first office visit, the term used for these readings is:

A) baseline.

B) Korotkoff.

C) consultation.

Q4) When taking blood pressure, the systolic blood pressure measures which of the following?

A) The minimum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels

B) The maximum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels

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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23032

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following interventions has the greatest amount of evidence to support its caries-protective effects?

A) Amorphous calcium phosphate

B) Chlorhexidine

C) Fluoride

D) Xylitol

Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of xerostomia?

A) Sjögren's syndrome

B) Head and neck radiation

C) Medication use

D) Nerve damage

Q3) Clients with an allergy to penicillin are more likely to show a cross-sensitivity reaction to which of the following classes of antibiotics?

A) Cephalosporins

B) Tetracyclines

C) Macrolides

D) Fluoroquinolones

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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23033

Sample Questions

Q1) If a lesion is considered a macule with the oral cavity, it is usually due to:

A) hyperplasia.

B) hypertrophy.

C) pigmentation.

D) unchanged vascularity.

Q2) Which of the following terms is best used to describe an area that faces away from the head and toward the feet?

A) Anterior

B) Posterior

C) Superior

D) Inferior

Q3) Which is the most common malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity?

A) Verrucous carcinoma

B) Basal cell carcinoma

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

D) Malignant melanoma

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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the eruption period for the mandibular permanent canine?

A) 9 to 10 years

B) 11 to 12 years

C) 10 to 12 years

D) 11 to 13 years

Q2) All of the following are primary modifying factors in the process of tooth decay except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Lifestyle

B) Saliva flow

C) Biofilm pH

D) Oral hygiene

Q3) What is the critical pH for enamel dissolution?

A) 6.2 to 7.0

B) 4.5 to 6.7

C) 4.5 to 5.5

D) 5.7 to 6.0

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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23035

Sample Questions

Q1) A dental index converts specific clinical observations into a numeric value (score) to measure the level of oral hygiene of an individual or population. A high numeric value or index score indicates good oral hygiene.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) The best time to apply a disclosant is:

A) after the periodontal assessment.

B) after the oral prophylaxis.

C) before the oral assessment.

D) before the client sees the oral findings.

Q3) A major risk factor for caries and periodontal diseases is:

A) amount of materia alba.

B) food debris.

C) dental plaque.

D) extrinsic stain.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Placement of restorations reduces the bacterial challenge. Bacterial challenge can be reduced by antibacterial therapy.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) All of the following types of fluoride are included in dentifrices marketed in the United States except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Sodium fluoride

B) Sodium monofluorophosphate

C) Stannous fluoride

D) Silver diamine fluoride

Q3) All of the following factors are protective factors for children 0 to 5 years of age except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Mother or caregiver who uses xylitol mints or gum 4 to 5 times daily

B) Mother or caregiver who has no more than one carious lesion

C) Residence in a fluoridated water community

D) Dental examination for a child with oral hygiene instruction for the parent

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Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23037

Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following conditions can be observed on radiographs except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Status of the lamina dura

B) Tooth crown to root ratio

C) Height of the facial boney plate

D) Changes in the PDL space

Q2) Each of the following is a gram-negative micro-organism associated with periodontitis, except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Porphyromonas gingivalis

B) Treponema denticola

C) Streptococcus mutans

D) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

Q3) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?

A) Phenytoin

B) Nifedipine

C) Cyclosporine

D) Tetracycline

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21

Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on

Overall General Health

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The presence of bleeding gums suggests that the epithelial lining of the pocket wall is:

A) thin and ulcerated.

B) thick and keratinized.

C) swollen and lacerated.

D) avascular and abraded.

E) ischemic and dehydrated.

Q2) The "blood-brain barrier" refers to:

A) bacteria in the bloodstream leading to the brain.

B) the link between periodontitis and systemic conditions.

C) bacteria in periodontal pockets that enter the brain.

D) junctions between the choroids plexus and capillary endothelial cells in the brain.

Q3) Preterm birth and low-birthweight babies are associated with which of the following?

A) Bacterial endotoxins associated with periodontitis in the blood that stimulate production of inflammatory mediators that induce labor

B) Convulsions and coma during labor

C) Lack of appropriate periodontal therapy during pregnancy

D) All of the above

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a dental hygiene diagnosis statement, the dental hygienist must avoid which of the following?

A) Cause

B) Signs and symptoms

C) Value judgments

D) None of the above

Q2) Which of the following is not an ideal dental hygiene diagnosis?

A) An unmet human need for biologically sound dentition due to poor dentistry, manifested by overhanging restorations

B) A potential unmet human need for freedom from health risks as manifested by use of "spit" tobacco

C) An unmet human need for skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck, related to skill deficiency in removing bacterial plaque, as evidenced by plaque and gingival bleeding scores of 5 and 2, respectively

Q3) All of the following are unmet human needs for the client except:

A) freedom from pain.

B) freedom from fear and stress.

C) biologically sound and functional dentition.

D) conceptualization and problem solving.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the legal term that applies to client consent for assessment, diagnosis, and care planning components of the dental hygiene process of care upon voluntarily coming to the oral care setting and sitting in the dental chair?

A) Implied consent

B) Informed refusal

C) Informed consent

D) Expressed consent

Q2) Select four characteristics of a well-written dental hygiene care plan.

A) Reflects current standards of evidence-based care

B) Identifies a relationship between the dental hygiene diagnoses, client goals, and intervention strategies

C) Is independent of the dental treatment plan

D) Reflects goals of care to prevent oral disease using primary, secondary, and tertiary preventive interventions

E) Identifies recommendation for continued care interval

F) Identifies the prognosis of care

G) Reflects goals of care to develop and maintain the individual's behaviors essential to oral health and the mastery of self-care and the environment

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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recession is a concern because it is associated with increased risk of dentinal hypersensitivity, loss of tooth support, root caries, and aesthetic dissatisfaction. The combined benefit of softer toothbrushes, less-abrasive toothpastes, and good toothbrushing technique has the potential to positively impact the prevention of gingival lesions.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) What is the most common method of toothbrushing?

A) Scrub

B) Roll

C) Bass

D) Stillman

E) Fones

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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tongue cleaners are most useful in improving which of the following oral conditions?

A) Caries

B) Gingivitis

C) Malodor

D) Bleeding

Q2) The interproximal device that is the least effective in removing plaque biofilm is the:

A) interdental brush.

B) tufted dental floss.

C) rubber tip stimulator.

D) power flosser.

Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate interdental recommendation for type I embrasures?

A) Dental floss

B) End-tuft toothbrushes

C) Toothpicks

D) Wedge stimulators

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26

Chapter 25: Dentifrices

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cinnamon may cause:

A) aphthous ulcers.

B) a metallic taste in the mouth.

C) a contact stomatitis.

D) xerostomia.

Q2) Sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS) may cause:

A) a metallic taste in the mouth.

B) a prickling sensation on the tongue.

C) aphthous ulcers.

D) a burning sensation.

Q3) For a client with an abundant amount of biofilm, one should choose a dentifrice:

A) which tastes good.

B) with a higher level of abrasiveness.

C) which contains antitartar.

D) which contains a desensitizing agent.

Q4) The role of humectants in dentifrices is to:

A) make the product delightful.

B) mask the taste.

C) dissolve the ingredients.

D) limit drying.

27

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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In managing an instrument tip breakage, the dental hygienist must immediately stop instrumentation if a small metal fragment breaks off and inform the client. Low-speed or high-speed aspiration (suction) should be continued to prevent the client from swallowing the metal foreign object.

A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

Q2) The best stroke to detect burnished calculus is which of the following?

A) Root planing stroke

B) Exploratory stroke

C) Scaling stroke

D) Horizontal stroke

Q3) The pressure applied during periodontal assessment and treatment varies depending on the purpose of the instrumentation. To explore for calculus deposits, the stroke must have _____ pressure.

A) light

B) light to moderate

C) moderate to firm

D) firm

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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) What parts of the working end surfaces of a magnetostrictive ultrasonic insert are adapted to the root of the tooth for debridement?

A) Back and point

B) Point and lateral surfaces

C) Back and lateral surfaces

D) Concave surface and back

E) Concave surface and point

Q2) All of the following are true about the micro thin insert or tip except it is:

A) to be used with any level of power.

B) intended to reach further into deep pockets than other designs.

C) intended for periodontal debridement for light deposits including oral biofilm.

D) indicated for furcations.

E) intended for use in developmental depressions and concavities.

Q3) What actually causes the working end of an ultrasonic insert or tip to vibrate?

A) The voltage in the generator

B) The transducer contracting and expanding

C) The cavitation

D) Acoustic microstreaming

E) The wireless or wired foot pedal

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation

Implications

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a tooth with one root lost one-third of its attachment length, its loss of attachment surface would be greater than one-third because the root is larger in the cervical one-third of the tooth.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Dentinal hypersensitivity may occur as a result of the removal of cementum during root instrumentation. The goal of root instrumentation is to remove all cementum.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Which of these teeth have two roots?

A) Maxillary and mandibular first molars

B) Maxillary premolars and maxillary molars

C) Maxillary premolars and mandibular molars

D) Mandibular first and mandibular second molars

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common side effect resulting from home-use bleaching trays is which of the following?

A) A sore throat

B) Demineralization

C) Thermal sensitivity

D) Headaches

Q2) The primary objective of tooth polishing is to do which of the following?

A) Prepare teeth for the maximum uptake of fluoride.

B) Eliminate oral biofilm so the client can experience smooth enamel.

C) Loosen all soft calculus remaining after scaling.

D) Remove the extrinsic stain remaining after scaling.

E) Help the patient maintain good oral biofilm control.

Q3) All of the following systemic client conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing except:

A) hypoglycemia.

B) emphysema.

C) active tuberculosis.

D) asthma.

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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical

Periodontal Therapy

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048

Sample Questions

Q1) What phase of the dental hygiene process includes the delivery of the preventive and therapeutic procedures to meet the client's human needs?

A) Assessment

B) Planning

C) Implementation

D) Evaluation

E) Reevaluation

Q2) Research findings indicate that after scaling and root planing, the most predictable outcome is which of the following?

A) Osseous repair

B) Elimination of Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

C) A decrease in the percentage of cocci and nonmotile microbes

D) A reduction in the percentage of motile microbes and spirochetes

E) Elimination of spirochetes.

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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding the systemic delivery of antibiotics except:

A) ingested and then delivered via the bloodstream.

B) access the subgingival microflora via gingival crevicular fluid.

C) demonstrated efficacy on periodontal parameters.

D) delivers high concentrations to periodontitis sites compared with locally delivered methods.

Q2) Which of the following products is not an antibiotic-based controlled-release drug?

A) Actisite

B) Periowave

C) Elyzol

D) Arestin

Q3) Which of the following are considered to be the two most effective controlled-release agents?

A) Metronidazole and chlorhexidine

B) Doxycycline and minocycline

C) Minocycline and tetracycline

D) Chlorhexidine and doxycycline

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33

Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,

Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth

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8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?

A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain

B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity

C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites

D) Tooth mobility

Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of necrotizing periodontal diseases?

A) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae, pain, and spontaneous gingival bleeding

B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity

C) Occurrence in the palate

D) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms.

Q3) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?

A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium

B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae

C) Occur in the palate

D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis

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34

Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium

Phosphate, and Xylitol

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051

Sample Questions

Q1) Select four conditions that are associated with chronic fluoride toxicity (CFT).

A) Crohn's disease

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) Hypomineralized teeth

D) Skeletal fluorosis

E) Brittle bones

Q2) Which of the following statements is false regarding neutral fluoride gels, foams, and varnishes?

A) It should be used for patients with gold restorations because acidulated fluoride (APF) can corrode metal.

B) Neutral fluoride products include foams and gels for tray application.

C) Research has not yet demonstrated that it is as effective as APF or acidulated fluoride.

D) It should be used for patients with sealants.

E) Neutral fluorides are preferred for porcelain restorations because APF can cause pitting.

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35

Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pit and fissure sealants:

1) render pits and fissures more cleansable.

2) arrest incipient caries.

3) mechanically fill the pits and fissures.

4) prevent caries in newly erupted teeth.

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 4

C) 3 and 4

D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q2) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?

A) Enhance the strength of enamel

B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces

C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth

D) All of the above

Q3) Which type of sealant is most likely to require an occlusal adjustment?

A) Unfilled sealant

B) Filled sealant

C) Both are the same.

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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a liquid form of supplemental nutrition is indicated for clients after dental surgery, he or she should be educated on which of the following?

A) High protein content

B) High sugar content

C) High fat content

D) Increased risk of GI disturbances

Q2) When treating the needs of a pregnant woman, a dental hygienist should do all of the following except:

A) make recommendations that the obstetrician may not have reinforced.

B) encourage the importance of eating nutrient dense foods.

C) encourage meticulous oral hygiene.

D) encourage the use of prenatal supplements as recommended by the obstetrician.

Q3) What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium in a healthy young adult diet?

A) 500 mg

B) 800 mg

C) 1000 mg

D) 1300 mg

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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Withdrawal symptoms of tobacco cessation peak within:

A) 12 to 24 hours

B) 24 to 48 hours

C) 48 to 72 hours

D) 1 to 2 weeks

E) 2 to 4 weeks

Q2) When assisting clients who are not ready to quit, the recommended goal is to help them think about the benefits of using tobacco versus the benefits of stopping tobacco use. What type of interview is recommended?

A) Protection from health risks interviewing

B) Personal advice to quit interviewing

C) Motivational interviewing

D) Responsibility for oral health interviewing

E) Makes a note in the chart when the client is not ready

Q3) Halitosis is a potential deficit of which type of human need due to tobacco use?

A) Wholesome facial image

B) Protection from health risks

C) Freedom from fear and stress

D) Responsibility for oral health

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances

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Sample Questions

Q1) may lose water due to imbibition.

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 2, 4

C) 1, 2

D) 1

Q2) Orthodontic aligners were recommended to remedy her:

A) parafunctional occlusal forces.

B) orthodontic relapse.

C) moderate BOP.

D) recession.

Q3) Silicone alginate-alternative impression materials are especially helpful when:

A) setting time is a concern.

B) elasticity is a concern.

C) dimensional stability is a concern.

D) multiple molds may be needed.

E) Both c and d are correct.

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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056

Sample Questions

Q1) A properly mixed amalgam has what characteristic in appearance?

A) Crumbly

B) Dry

C) Grainy

D) Shiny

Q2) Silver has what function in an amalgam?

A) Increases strength and corrosion resistance

B) Decreases strength and corrosion resistance

C) Increases oxidation

D) Decreases oxidation

Q3) A dental cement that is used for caries control is:

A) glass ionomer.

B) zinc phosphate.

C) polycarboxylate.

D) all of the above.

Q4) Which of the following is true of matrix bands?

A) Prevents overhangs

B) Provides a framework for reconstruction of missing anatomy

C) Supports establishment of proximal contacts

D) All of the above

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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) What term is used to refer to sites of tooth structure wear commonly found on the incisal or occlusal surfaces of teeth as a result of masticatory forces?

A) Abrasion

B) Erosion

C) Attrition

D) Abfraction

Q2) Dentinal hypersensitivity is most common on what region of the tooth?

A) Lingual

B) Buccal cervical

C) Facial

D) Occlusal

Q3) All of the following would be good self-care recommendations for this client except which one?

A) Use a daily, self-applied fluoride mouth rinse.

B) Use a soft toothbrush.

C) Use a low-abrasive fluoride toothpaste for sensitive teeth.

D) Use an oral irrigation system.

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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia

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Sample Questions

Q1) For each anesthetic, select short, medium, or long duration for pulpal and soft-tissue anesthesia, using each answer once only.

A) Short duration

B) Intermediate duration

C) Long duration

1) Bupivacaine HCL 0.5% epinephrine 1:200,000

2) Mepivacaine HCL 3%

3) Lidocaine HCL 2% epinephrine 1:50,000

Q2) What is the next step when you aspirate and get a positive aspiration?

A) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the cartridge.

B) Do not stop the procedure if the aspiration is a small red drop.

C) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change to a new needle.

D) Stop, withdraw the needle, and change the needle and cartridge.

Q3) The bevel of the needle should:

A) be turned toward the bone.

B) be turned away from the bone.

C) never touch the bone.

D) be turned in either direction as long as it fits snugly on the syringe.

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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Light anesthesia rather than relative analgesia may be indicated by:

1) hyperresponsiveness to stimuli.

2) relaxation.

3) exaggerated inspiration.

4) eyelids not resisting opening.

A) 1 and 2

B) 2 and 4

C) 1 and 3

D) 3 and 4

E) All of the above

Q2) The proportion of nitrous oxide the client in question 11 is receiving is which of the following?

A) 20%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 50%

E) None of the above

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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities

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30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060

Sample Questions

Q1) Behavioral guidance techniques that use numerous short appointments or visits to the dental office to instill familiarity with the dental environment is termed:

A) modeling.

B) desensitization.

C) distraction.

D) guided imagery.

Q2) A client who is unable to put thoughts into words or to comprehend words is exhibiting which type of communication disorder?

A) Dysarthria

B) Apraxia

C) Aphasia

D) Autism

Q3) To assess a client's grip strength, the dental hygienist should have the client grasp:

A) a golf ball.

B) a tennis ball.

C) a softball.

D) various sizes of foam cylinders.

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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease

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30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061

Sample Questions

Q1) An increase in blood pressure may be related to obesity and stress. Control of associated risk factors may alleviate the client's condition without taking medications.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) What does the term infarction of heart muscle refer to?

A) Irregular heartbeat

B) Necrosis of an area of tissue

C) Sharp pain in heart muscle

D) Enlargement of the heart

Q3) A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute indicates:

A) normal pulse rate.

B) tachycardia.

C) bradycardia.

D) atrial fibrillation.

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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062

Sample Questions

Q1) What mechanism is thought to cause tissue damage in persons with diabetes?

A) Alteration of the immunoinflammatory response

B) Bacteriologic overgrowth

C) Ketoacidosis

D) Hypoglycemia

Q2) Neuropathy, xerostomia, and candidiasis in the person with diabetes may lead to which of the following?

A) Dental caries

B) Severe periodontal disease

C) Tongue changes

D) Hyperglycemia

Q3) What emergency care should be given to a client with signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis?

A) Four ounces of orange juice

B) Oxygen

C) Glucose tablets

D) Hospitalization

Q4) A person with prediabetes can prevent the onset of diabetes.

A)True

B)False

Page 46

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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer

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30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063

Sample Questions

Q1) Between 2004 and 2008, the incidence rate for oral cancer decreased in women and stabilized for men. Unfortunately, cancers of the lip, associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), have seen an increase in recent years.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) Before scaling/root planing or oral surgery, a client's absolute neutrophil count should be equal to or greater than 1000/mm³. The platelet count should be equal to or greater than 50,000/mm³.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Alteration of taste occurs because of which of the following cancer therapies?

A) Chemotherapy

B) Radiation therapy

C) Hormone therapy

D) Blood stem cell transplantation therapy

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064

Sample Questions

Q1) An HIV-positive woman presents for oral care. She has a line of red, inflamed gingiva, which is very painful when manipulated. This is most likely to represent:

A) cancrum oris.

B) necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

C) necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.

D) linear gingival erythema.

E) herpesvirus.

F) aphthous ulcer.

G) Kaposi's sarcoma.

Q2) A known HIV-positive patient is noted to have painless bleeding of the gingiva with minimal manipulation, as well as halitosis and gingival inflammation. Which of the following treatments will likely be helpful?

A) Twice daily 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate rinses

B) Twice daily hydrogen peroxide rinses

C) Encouragement to brush and floss daily

D) Nystatin mouthrinse by prescription

E) No treatment is needed.

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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Symptoms of AD include all of the following except which one?

A) Forgetfulness

B) Headaches

C) Personality changes

D) Impairment of judgment

E) None of the above

Q2) When treating a client with a hearing aid the operator should decrease extraneous noise, because loud noises may elicit seizure activity.

A) Both parts of the statement are true.

B) Both parts of the statement are false.

C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.

D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.

Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Parkinson's disease?

A) Akinesia

B) Muscle rigidity

C) Blinking eyes

D) Expressionless face

E) Hand tremors

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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most clients with autoimmune disease require prophylactic antibiotics before dental and dental hygiene treatment, because they are immunosuppressed and prone to infection.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Chronic steroid use often results in secondary adrenal insufficiency. Steroid supplementation is required for dental hygiene procedures.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Which autoimmune disease is associated with high levels of viral infection?

A) Chronic fatigue syndrome

B) Fibromyalgia

C) Rheumatoid arthritis

D) Myasthenia gravis

E) Scleroderma

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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In post-solid organ transplant recipients, immunosuppression:

A) is greatest immediately after transplant surgery.

B) is greatest 1 year after transplant surgery.

C) is greatest 6 months after transplant surgery.

D) never changes; it must always be high.

Q2) When dental hygiene care plans are prepared for pre-solid organ or post-solid organ transplant recipients, there are:

A) clear-cut guidelines based on the American Heart Association guidelines.

B) universal guidelines, depending on which organ is transplanted.

C) no universal guidelines.

D) guidelines based on the cause of the disease.

Q3) In persons with CKD, anemia and bone metabolism disorders become more common in stage:

A) 1.

B) 2.

C) 3.

D) 4.

E) 5.

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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068

Sample Questions

Q1) The use of the ultrasonic scaler is either contraindicated or to be used cautiously with many lung diseases due to the possibility of pathogens found in bacterial plaque and periodontal pockets possibly being aspirated into the lungs.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Which of the following classifications of medications is taken on a daily basis to achieve and maintain control of asthma?

A) Short-acting inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonists

B) Inhaled synthetic corticosteroids

C) Systemic corticosteroids

D) Inhaled antiasthmatics (mast cell stabilizers)

Q3) What is the major concern associated with treating a client with tuberculosis?

A) Disease transmission

B) Proper client positioning to avoid symptom exacerbation

C) Stress prevention

D) Use of local anesthesia with epinephrine

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Page 52

Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged

Persons

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30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069

Sample Questions

Q1) The dental hygienist must determine the need for prophylactic antibiotic premedication based on current guidelines in persons with Down syndrome, because congenital heart disease is common in this population.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q2) A severe gag reflex may be managed by eliminating the use of toothpaste to reduce gagging and provide better vision for the caregiver. Water, an ADA-accepted antimicrobial mouth rinse, or an ingestible or low-foaming dentifrice can be used in place of toothpaste.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:

A) facial expressions.

B) eye contact.

C) nonverbal communication.

D) all of the above.

Page 53

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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070

Sample Questions

Q1) If a chemically dependent client is not ready to change unwanted behavior, the dental hygienist should:

A) alert the police.

B) dismiss client from the practice.

C) refer to primary care physician.

D) refer to intervention treatment facility.

E) state concerns and modify dental treatment.

Q2) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:

A) 12 to 14.

B) 18 to 25.

C) 20 to 35.

D) 40 to 55.

E) 50 to 59.

Q3) Substances that slow down the central nervous system (CNS) include:

A) alcohol, codeine, nicotine, and methamphetamine.

B) Adderall, PCP, and LSD.

C) benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol.

D) nitrous oxide, alcohol, and cocaine.

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Page 54

Chapter 53: Eating Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following describes the psychosocial dimension of bulimia nervosa?

A) Feelings of grandeur and superiority

B) Shy and socially inept

C) Expressive and loud

D) Blame-oriented and opinionated

E) Guilt and shame

Q2) Dental hygienists enhance care for clients with eating disorders through interprofessional collaboration. Eating disorders as complex mental health illnesses require many health professionals' expertise to help the client recover from the illness.

A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their

Children

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common site for ARONJ, exposed necrotic bone, in patients who have taken antiresorptive therapy, appears most in the:

A) maxillary posterior buccal region close to the parotid gland.

B) maxillary anterior lingual region close to the incisive papilla.

C) mandibular posterior lingual region close to the mylohyoid ridge.

D) mandibular anterior lingual region close to the genial tubercles.

Q2) The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommends that a child's first dental examination occur when the:

A) first tooth exfoliates or when accidents related to trauma occur.

B) child reports discomfort or by the age of 3.

C) child can sit properly in a dental chair and keep their mouth open.

D) first tooth appears or no later than the first birthday.

Q3) Educate parents to continue assisting their children on proper brushing and flossing until the child is _____ years old.

A) 1 or 2

B) 3 or 4

C) 5 or 6

D) 7 or 8

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Chapter 55: The Older Adult

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are reasons to recommend a powered toothbrush for older clients except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Require less physical skill and cognitive ability

B) Remove more plaque in less time

C) Reduce gingivitis and bleeding

D) Reduce caries rates

Q2) Which of the following are common age-related changes seen in the oral tissues?

A) Oral epithelium becomes thicker and fuller.

B) Osteoarthritis often affects TMJ function and occlusion.

C) Increased immune response masks any oral diseases.

D) Sense of taste becomes more acute due to increase of fungiform and filiform papilla.

Q3) How does aging affect periodontal therapy considerations with elderly clients?

A) Emphasizes the need for good control of biofilm, as well as nonsurgical care

B) Changes the sequence and speed of nonsurgical and surgical therapy

C) Is a relative contraindication for use of host modulatory therapy

D) Is an absolute contraindication for dental implants

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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental

Prostheses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:

A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.

B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.

C) food habits are broken.

D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.

Q2) Angular cheilitis is considered a _____ infection.

A) bacterial infection

B) fungal infection

C) mixed bacterial and fungal

D) mixed bacterial and viral

Q3) Sodium hypochlorite cleansers should be avoided with dentures that have:

A) acrylic components.

B) metal components.

C) porcelain components.

D) staining.

Q4) Older adults may consume fewer protein-rich or high-fiber foods because of:

A) dislike of their texture.

B) chewing difficulties.

C) lack of appetite.

D) desire to not gain weight.

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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a fractured jaw?

A) Deformed mandible

B) Malocclusion

C) Painful swelling at injury site

D) Difficulty closing

Q2) A multidisciplinary team works together to manage an orofacial cleft. Which specialist is the exception?

A) Periodontist

B) Pedodontist

C) Pediatrician

D) Prosthodontist

Q3) Embryologic development of the upper lip occurs during week:

A) 2.

B) 3.

C) 4.

D) 5.

E) 6.

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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are contraindicated on dental implants except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Metal-tip inserts of sonic and ultrasonic instruments

B) Air abrasive systems

C) Gold-tipped scaling instruments

D) Rubber-cup polishing with flour of pumice or course grit abrasive paste

Q2) In a dental implant, what functional tissue entity is created that adapts to the titanium abutment?

A) Biologic seal (also known as the perimucosal seal)

B) Chemical seal

C) Titanium seal

D) Osseointegration seal

Q3) All of the following instruments can be used by the dental hygienist to maintain the dental implant except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Air-polishing device

B) Gold-tipped Gracey instrument

C) Wood-tipped or porte polisher

D) Teflon-coated scaler

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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23077

Sample Questions

Q1) If a client experiences significant pain after orthodontic appointments, when is it best to schedule supportive periodontal therapy appointments?

A) Before orthodontic adjustment appointments

B) Immediately after orthodontic adjustment appointments

C) Every 8 months

D) Shortly after the client has taken an over-the-counter analgesic

Q2) Two types of spacing that are desirable in the primary dentition are:

A) posterior and distal spacing.

B) anterior and eruptive spacing.

C) primate and developmental spacing.

D) none of the above.

Q3) Which of the following statements regarding home care for the orthodontic client is true?

A) Oral irrigating devices are contraindicated because the water lavage can cause a breakdown in the cement or bonding seals.

B) Electric toothbrushes are contraindicated because they have been found to damage fixed appliances.

C) Daily fluoride therapy is an important component of preventive care.

D) All of the above are true.

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Page 61

Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23078

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following may be a perpetrator of domestic elder abuse?

A) Staff of nursing homes

B) Paid caregivers in board and care facilities

C) The victim's child

D) The victim's spouse

E) Both c and d

Q2) Human trafficking victims:

A) should be reported to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Homeland Security.

B) often speak the language of the country they are transported and trafficked to.

C) will often have a dental home.

D) usually carry large amounts of cash to pay for their own dental treatment.

E) All of the above are correct.

Q3) Failure of dental hygienists and dentists to report suspected cases of child maltreatment has led in some cases to:

A) death of the child.

B) repeated maltreatment of the child.

C) loss of the dental professional's license.

D) all of the above.

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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23079

Sample Questions

Q1) Appliances with metal clasps need to be soaked in chlorhexidine solution, because sodium hypochlorite corrodes the metal clasps.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Frequent hydration with sips of water, saliva substitutes, ice chips, or sugar-free popsicles are all ways to treat which oral complication?

A) Xerostomia

B) Oral candidiasis

C) Mucositis

D) Ulcers

Q3) All of the following are symptoms associated with oral candidiasis except: A) pain.

B) hypersalivation.

C) bleeding.

D) burning mouth.

E) inability to taste food.

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Page 63

Chapter 62: Practice Management

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23080

Sample Questions

Q1) Client information should be posted in the client's chart:

A) before starting treatment on the client.

B) right after treating the client.

C) at the end of the day.

D) at the end of the week.

Q2) Assisted dental hygiene practice increases production for the practice by:

A) 20%.

B) 30%.

C) 40%.

D) 50%.

Q3) To effectively establish a positive relationship with the client, the provider should understand _____ needs.

A) physical

B) psychologic

C) spiritual

D) emotional

E) None of the above are correct.

F) All of the above are correct.

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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching

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29 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23081

Sample Questions

Q1) A cover letter:

A) should be emailed to a potential employer 1 day before the interview.

B) should be submitted to a potential employer along with a résumé.

C) is an optional tool that may be used to market your job potential.

D) is a dated protocol and is no longer necessary.

E) includes social, personal, and work history.

Q2) Fringe benefits are paid services in addition to regular wages. Some benefits are required by law, and some are optional services offered by the employer or requested by the dental hygienist.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Q3) As of 2012, how many states allowed dental hygienists to administer local anesthesia?

A) 25

B) 35

C) 50

D) 30

E) 44

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 65

Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23082

Sample Questions

Q1) The dental hygienist responsible for the continued-care (recare) program is seeking to terminate the dental practice's relationship with clients who have failed to schedule a maintenance visit for more than 2 years. The dental hygienist sends the letter by certified mail. The letter reads as follows: "Dear Patient: This is to notify you that you are no longer a patient of AAA Dental Practice. You have failed to schedule a maintenance visit for more than 2 years. The office staff will provide necessary emergency care only. Your records will be forwarded to another provider when you return the enclosed release-of-records permission sheet."

To protect the office from allegations of client abandonment, which of the following elements necessary to appropriately terminate a provider-client relationship is not evident in the letter?

A) Notification of the termination

B) Reason for the termination

C) Length of time the client will remain a patient of record

D) All elements necessary to appropriately terminate are evident.

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