Dental Radiography Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Radiography is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of radiographic imaging in dentistry. Students will learn about the physics of X-rays, radiation safety protocols, image acquisition, processing methods, and interpretation of dental radiographs. The course covers intraoral and extraoral imaging techniques, radiographic anatomy, and the identification of common dental and maxillofacial conditions. Emphasis is placed on patient management, infection control, legal considerations, and the importance of accurate diagnostic imaging in dental care.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain accreditation status,dental and dental auxiliary schools are required to be reviewed every _____ years.
A)2
B)5
C)7
D)10
Answer: C
Q2) Dental disease was first recorded:
A)in the 1900s.
B)in the 1800s.
C)in the 1700s.
D)since the beginning of time.
Answer: D
Q3) The first cases of what later was identified as AIDS were reported in: A)1900.
B)1920.
C)1940.
D)1980.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important personal qualities of the dental assistant include:
A)maintaining a distance from the patient and not feeding into the patient's needs.
B)being sincere.
C)discussing aspects of your personal life, to reduce distance and create empathy.
D)learning to be a good talker with a soothing voice, rather than a good listener.
Answer: B
Q2) The duties an EFDA can perform will vary according to: A)state.
B)office.
C)personal ability.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) The single most important factor in helping to relieve the stress in a dental office is to maintain a positive attitude.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) The degree awarded when a dentist graduates from a dental university is:
A)Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS).
B)Doctor of Medical Dentistry (DMD).
C)Doctor of Oral Surgery (DOS).
D)either a or b.
Answer: D
Q2) The ________ normally does not work in the dental office with the other members of the dental health team.
A)dental laboratory technician
B)business assistant
C)dental hygienist
D)dentist
Answer: A
Q3) Pediatric dentistry does not treat:
A)patients with special needs.
B)children.
C)seniors.
D)adolescents.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a dentist extracts healthy teeth on the request of the patient,the dentist is:
A)ethical under autonomy.
B)unethical under autonomy.
C)ethical under "do no harm."
D)unethical under "do no harm."
Q2) The steps for solving an ethical dilemma include:
A)identifying the alternatives first.
B)ranking the alternatives last.
C)choosing a course of action before determining the professional implications.
D)determining the professional implications after ranking the alternatives.
Q3) Membership in the ADAA is:
A)required.
B)necessary to take the DANB.
C)an ethical decision.
D)unnecessary.
Q4) A patient has the right to refuse treatment even if the treatment would benefit him or her.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations must a dentist disclose information about the treatment?
A)A patient asks not to be advised.
B)The patient has a choice of treatment options.
C)The information is so upsetting that the patient cannot be rational.
D)Treatment is minor and rarely results in risk.
Q2) Consent for treatment of a minor child must be given by:
A)the child.
B)the parent.
C)the legal guardian.
D)both b or c.
Q3) Records for minors whose parents live separately need:
A)only to tell who the custodial parent is.
B)to contain letters from both parents providing consent.
C)both a and b.
D)neither a nor b.
Q4) A tort can only occur if intentional wrongdoing occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body standing erect with the feet together and arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward is in:
A)a resting position.
B)anatomic position.
C)position for an autopsy.
D)proper posture.
Q2) The two major body cavities are the _____ cavities.
A)parietal and dorsal
B)thoracic and ventral
C)dorsal and ventral
D)cranial and spinal
Q3) Organs :
A)are made up of many types of tissue groups.
B)perform a single function.
C)form body systems.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary center for regulating and coordinating the body's activities and functions is the:
A)heart.
B)spinal cord.
C)brain.
D)neuron.
Q2) _____ is a disorder associated with the integumentary system.
A)Renal failure
B)Heart attack
C)Migraine headaches
D)Acne
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of hormones?
A)Hormones produce long-term changes in humans, such as growth.
B)Hormones have nothing to do with emotions.
C)Hormones help maintain the amount of sugar in the blood.
D)Hormones can reach every cell in the body.
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three primary periods of odontogenesis are known as:
A)bud, cap, and bell.
B)growth, calcification, and eruption.
C)zygote, embryo, and fetus.
D)osteoblast, osteoclast, and ameloblast.
Q2) An example of a developmental disturbance that is a genetic factor where there is absence of one or more teeth is known as:
A)macrodontia.
B)microdontia.
C)anodontia.
D)dens in dente.
Q3) Every tooth is divided into:
A)enamel and dentin.
B)crown and root.
C)clinical crown and anatomic crown.
D)cementum and root.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eight bones that cover and protect the brain are collectively called the: A)face.
B)frontal lobe.
C)cranium.
D)skull.
Q2) The only bone in the human body that does not articulate with another bone is the: A)hyoid.
B)mandible.
C)maxilla.
D)ethmoid.
Q3) Which muscle of the floor of the mouth aids during swallowing?
A)Mylohyoid
B)Digastric
C)Styloid
D)Geniohyoid
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opening of the Stensen's duct of the parotid gland located in the buccal mucosa of the cheek is the:
A)parotid papilla.
B)lingual frenum.
C)buccal frenum.
Q2) The soft palate:
A)is the movable posterior third of the palate, posterior to the hard palate.
B)is supported by fauces.
C)ends with the uvula.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Two small papillae are located on either side of the lingual frenum under the tongue that serve as openings for the ______ salivary glands.
A)submandibular
B)sublingual
C)parotid
D)none of the above
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Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area where the mesial or distal surfaces of the tooth touch the adjacent tooth in the arch is the:
A)embrasure
B)contact point.
C)contact area.
D)point angle.
Q2) The posterior teeth include the _____ and the _____.
A)incisors; canines
B)canines; premolars
C)premolars; molars
D)incisors; molars
Q3) If the dentition is divided into sextants instead of quadrants,how many sextants are there in each arch?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Q1) The first premolar is posterior to the _____ while the second premolar is anterior to the _____.
A)lateral incisor, second molar
B)canine, first molar
C)second premolar, first molar
D)canine, first premolar
Q2) There are ___ teeth in a quadrant of the primary dentition.
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)8
Q3) The incisal surface of an anterior tooth is also known as the:
A)facial surface.
B)labial surface.
C)incisal edge.
D)incisal ridge.
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ caries is a carious lesion that occurs on the tooth around a restoration.
A)Smooth surface
B)Pit and fissure
C)Recurrent
D)Pulpal
Q2) A laser caries detector:
A)works on the principle that a carious tooth will show less fluorescence and a clean, healthy tooth will show more fluorescence.
B)is effective for adult teeth but not for primary teeth.
C)cannot be used to diagnose interproximal caries.
D)can be used to detect caries under an amalgam restoration.
Q3) Caries risk assessment tests include measuring the:
A)production of stomach acid and GERD.
B)saliva flow rate and bacterial testing.
C)saliva pH and buffering capacity.
D)maternal DNA.
Q4) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by bonding to the tooth surface and releasing fluoride.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue recession is associated with gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 50-year-old woman arrives in your dental office and complains of loose teeth,a bad taste in her mouth,and pain.Based on your knowledge,what do you think is occurring?
A)Gingivitis
B)Slight periodontitis
C)Moderate periodontitis
D)None of the above
Q3) _____ cannot be removed by the patient and must be removed by the dentist or the dental hygienist with scaling instruments.
A)Food debris
B)Plaque
C)Calculus
D)Erythrosine stain
Q4) An individual patient's response to oral bacteria and periodontal treatment is constant and predictable.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) For patient education to be effective,it should not be:
A)reinforced.
B)repeated.
C)done in a threatening manner.
D)done in a calm, reassuring manner.
Q2) Patients should be cautioned about abnormal _____ of tooth structure over time,caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth with any toothbrush.
A)attrition
B)abrasion
C)erosion
D)abfraction
Q3) Dental floss should be used _____ brushing teeth.
A)before B)after C)a or b
Q4) Since the 1950s,_____ has been the primary weapon in combating dental caries.
A)toothbrushing
B)fluoride
C)sealants
D)flossing
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any food that contains sugars or other carbohydrates that can be metabolized by bacteria in plaque is described as being:
A)sweet.
B)cariogenic.
C)composed of empty calories.
D)a complex carbohydrate.
Q2) The best source of calcium is:
A)milk and milk products.
B)sunshine.
C)fruits and vegetables.
D)whole grain breads and cereals.
Q3) On food labels,ingredients are listed in _____ to indicate the proportions of ingredients.
A)alphabetical order
B)descending order of weight
C)descending order by fat content
D)order by protein, fat, and carbohydrate content
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18
Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the condition of tooth development where congenital absence of teeth is present in the human dentition?
A)Anodontia
B)Macrodontia
C)Microdontia
D)Supernumerary teeth
Q2) An oral habit consisting of involuntary gnashing,grinding,and clenching of the teeth is:
A)bulimia.
B)bruxism.
C)attrition.
D)abrasion.
Q3) Dentists can use up to _____ different sources of information to make an accurate and final diagnosis.
A)two (medical and dental histories)
B)four (historical, clinical, radiographic, microscopic)
C)six
D)eight
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses breaks down the body's immune system?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)HIV
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q2) _______ is an extremely dangerous disease caused by a spore-forming bacillus found in soil,dust,or animal or human feces.
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)Syphilis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Tetanus
Q3) A viral disease can be transmitted through:
A)direct contact and blood transfusion.
B)insects and contaminated food or water.
C)coughing or sneezing.
D)all of the above.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about reducing microbial flora is true?
A)Alcohol-based hand rubs are more effective at reducing microbial flora than plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes.
B)Plain soap or antimicrobial handwashes are more effective at reducing microbial flora than alcohol-based hand rubs.
C)Alcohol-based hand rubs, antimicrobial handwashes, and plain soap are equally effective at reducing microbial flora.
Q2) Transmission of a disease,from the dental office to the family of a member of the dental team,is an example of _____ disease transmission in the dental office.
A)dental team-to-patient
B)patient-to-patient
C)dental office-to-community
D)community-to-dental office-to-patient
Q3) Protective Clothing Requirement Standards include all of the following except:
A)clothing made of fluid-resistant material.
B)disposable jackets or gowns with long sleeves and high neckline.
C)minimizing the amount of uncovered skin.
D)interchangeable clothing among dental assistant and dentist during procedures.
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agency regulates and registers disinfectants and chemical sterilants according to chemical classification?
A)OSHA
B)FDA
C)EPA
D)CDC
Q2) Which item is not single-use-only?
A)Patient napkins
B)Plastic orthodontic brackets
C)Impression trays
D)Irrigating syringes
Q3) Instability,daily preparation,strong odor,and corrosion are some of the disadvantages of:
A)halogens.
B)iodophors.
C)complex phenols.
D)sodium hypochlorite.
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22
Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will not cause a sterilization failure?
A)Excessive packaging
B)Using correct packaging material
C)Overloading of sterilizer
D)Inadequate instrument cleaning
Q2) All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient's _____ must be heat-sterilized.
A)blood, saliva, or mucous membranes
B)blood or saliva, but not mucous membranes
C)saliva or mucous membranes, but not blood
D)blood or mucous membranes, but not saliva
Q3) Process indicators that change color are useful for:
A)monitoring sterilization.
B)identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature.
C)determining whether an instrument package has been processed.
D)both b and c.
Q4) _______ is the process of killing all microorganisms,including bacterial spores.
A)Disinfection
B)Sterilization
C)Ultrasonic cleaning
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) The dental assistant must be able to understand the roles of:
A)government agencies.
B)professional organizations.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q2) OSHA standards related to dentistry include which of the following?
A)Blood-borne Pathogens Standard
B)Hazard Communication Standard
C)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings
D)Both a and b
Q3) Infection-control procedures practiced in dentistry today are based on the Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003 issued by the:
A)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
B)American Dental Association (ADA).
C)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
D)National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research (NIDCR).
Q4) Annual OSHA inspections are mandatory for every dental practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) OSHA requires a sharps container to be all of the following except: A)leakproof.
B)puncture-resistant.
C)not be labeled with a biohazard symbol.
D)closable.
Q2) Some chemicals can be absorbed through the skin.Repeated contact with a chemical can cause a skin condition called: A)acne.
B)dermatitis.
C)erythema.
D)inflation.
Q3) Which of the following is a form of toxicity that can be caused by chronic benzene exposure?
A)Headache
B)Dizziness
C)Unconsciousness
D)Leukemia
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacteria in the biofilm are up to _____ times more resistant to chemical germicides than planktonic bacteria.
A)3
B)5
C)100
D)1500
Q2) To temporarily reduce the microbial count and to help clean the handpiece waterlines,DUWLs should be flushed:
A)for 20 to 30 seconds between patients.
B)every morning for several minutes.
C)every evening for 20 minutes.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Flushing the dental waterlines for several minutes every morning and for 20-30 seconds between patients will help to:
A)reduce prep time.
B)reduce the microbial count.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
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26
Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Optimal operator positioning includes:
A)working from a neutral position.
B)repositioning the patient as necessary.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q2) What can a dental assistant do to relieve stress on the back,neck,and shoulders?
A)Periodically get up and walk around
B)Do the full back release and head rotations
C)Do shoulder shrugging
D)Both b and c
Q3) Deviation from the neutral position includes:
A)twisting and leaning forward.
B)overbending back and reaching.
C)neither of the above.
D)both a and b.
Q4) The first symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is often a(n):
A)decreased ability to squeeze an object.
B)painful tingling in one or both hands that occurs at night.
C)painful swelling of joints in the fingers.
D)inability to button clothing.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) To ensure safe care to the patient,medical alerts and other precautions should be noted by:
A)posting a warning sign on the entrance to the treatment area.
B)writing the medical condition that prompted the alert on the patient bib.
C)affixing an "alert" sticker to the outside cover of the patient record.
D)affixing an "alert" sticker to the inside cover of the patient record.
Q2) The goal of obtaining medical history information from a dental patient is to:
A)know of any existing allergies to foods or medications.
B)be alerted of any medical conditions.
C)identify special treatment needs of the patient.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Progress notes should document the:
A)date, tooth number, and treatment.
B)different treatment alternatives for the patient.
C)payment record of the patient.
D)use of insurance benefits for the current calendar or contract year.
Q4) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) Which instrument is used for measuring a patient's blood pressure in the arteries?
A)Stethoscope
B)Sphygmomanometer
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Blood pressure cuff
Q2) What are the three characteristics of a patient's respiration?
A)Volume, rate, rhythm
B)Rate, depth, volume
C)Palpate, depth, volume
D)None of the above
Q3) When tightening the blood pressure cuff around the patient's arm,how tight should the cuff be?
A)Tight enough to squeeze only two fingers between cuff and arm
B)Tight enough to squeeze only one finger between cuff and arm
C)Tight enough to stop blood flow
D)Does not matter how tight
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29
Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caries were found at the gingival third of the facial surface of tooth #11.What class would this be?
A)VI
B)I
C)V
D)II
Q2) What characteristics should be visible in the examination of healthy soft tissue?
A)Light pink in color
B)Uniform in color
C)No indications of swelling
D)All of the above
Q3) Abbreviations may be used in the progress notes or chart to save space.The correct abbreviation for a mesio-occluso-buccal filling would be:
A)BuOcMe.
B)BOM.
C)MOD.
D)MOB.
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stroke is caused by a sudden vascular lesion of the brain,such as:
A)embolism.
B)ruptured aneurysm.
C)hemorrhage.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Older adults (persons older than 65),some of whom have maintained some of their natural teeth but more of whom have fixed and/or removable prosthetics,and are beginning to have multiple health problems,are categorized as:
A)functionally independent older adults.
B)dependent older adults.
C)frail older adults.
D)senior citizens.
Q3) Treatment modifications for hearing-impaired patients include:
A)leaning toward one of the patient's ears while speaking.
B)talking with a family member rather than the patient.
C)using written information to supplement communication.
D)ignoring when they don't respond.
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who can prescribe drugs to a patient within the dental profession?
A)Dental office manager
B)Dental hygienist
C)Dental assistant
D)Dentist
Q2) PDR is a common drug reference material available to dentists.What does PDR stand for?
A)Pharmacy Drug Reference
B)Physician's Desk Reference
C)Pills and Drug Reference
D)Pharmacology Dentist Reference
Q3) A patient is allergic to penicillin.What drug could be used as an alternative antibiotic for dental infections?
A)Ampicillin
B)Clindamycin
C)Tetracycline
D)Amoxicillin
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32
Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventricular fibrillation causes _____ percent of cases of cardiac arrest.
A)10 to 20
B)25 to 50
C)50 to 70
D)80 to 90
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the specific techniques recommended for the performance of chest compressions?
A)Pushing hard and fast
B)Allowing complete chest recoil after each compression
C)Stopping for 30 seconds after each compression
D)Avoiding excessive ventilation
Q3) What certification credential does a dental assistant have to possess to meet emergency care standards?
A)Heart Saver-CPR
B)Advanced Life Support-CPR
C)Basic Life Support-Healthcare Provider-CPR
D)First-aid card
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient dental chairs:
A)are only available for adult sized patients; however, booster seats may be purchased.
B)come with many visible mechanical parts, to facilitate cleaning and maintenance.
C)have finger- or foot-operated control systems to adjust the chair for dental treatment.
D)have fixed chair arms to provide a secure feeling to the patient.
Q2) The patient is positioned in the dental chair so that the head is lower than the chest.This position is called:
A)supine.
B)upright.
C)subsupine.
D)recovery.
Q3) The control center of the clinical area in the dental practice is the dental treatment area,also called the:
A)dental operatory.
B)administrative area.
C)business computer center.
D)sterilization center.
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34
Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Q1) Based on the "clock concept" of operating zones,the patient's face would represent what area?
A)The center of the clock with the top of the head at the 12 o'clock position
B)The right of the clock with the head at the 3 o'clock position
C)The left of the clock with the head at the 9 o'clock position
D)None of the above
Q2) The position of the dental assistant includes all but:
A)feet resting on the floor.
B)4 to 6 inches above the operator.
C)seated well back on stool.
D)positioned as close as possible to the dental chair.
Q3) Which of the classification of motions should only be used with single-handed transfer?
A)Class I, Class IV, Class V
B)Class I, Class III, Class V
C)Class I, Class II, Class III
D)Class I, Class II, Class V
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articulating paper can be used to check a patient's bite on which of the following?
A)Crown/bridge
B)Denture
C)A new restoration
D)All of the above
Q2) Double-ended hand instruments _____ and have two working ends.
A)have two shanks
B)have two handles
C)have a single shank
D)are made in left-handed sets for left-handed operators and right-handed sets for right-handed operators
Q3) According to G.V.Black's instrument formula,hand cutting instruments have three sets of numbers.Which number(s) represents the angle of the blade?
A)First
B)Third
C)Second
D)All of the above
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not correct about diamond rotary instruments?
A)They have a metal base with flecks of industrial diamonds.
B)They are inexpensive.
C)They increase cutting ability.
D)They shorten preparation time and increase productivity.
Q2) Since the late 1940s,_____ burs have been used for cavity preparation.
A)steel
B)tungsten carbide
C)molybdenum
D)palladium
Q3) What handpiece uses mechanical radiant energy of water and sound vibrations to create a pulsating effect on a tooth surface to remove calculus and stains?
A)High-speed
B)Laser
C)Low-speed
D)Ultrasonic
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Q1) The high-volume evacuator (HVE) is able to take up water and debris because a _____ volume of air is moved into the vacuum hose at _____ pressure to create a strong suction.
A)high; high
B)high; low
C)low; high
D)low; low
Q2) Surgical suction tips are:
A)smaller in circumference.
B)used to remove large amounts of water and fluid.
C)used to remove blood, tissue, and debris.
D)both a and c.
Q3) Which of the following is used along with the HVE to complete the rinsing process?
A)Dental dam
B)Cup of water
C)Air-water syringe
D)Dry-angle
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Q1) Used or contaminated needles and cartridges are discarded in the:
A)trash can.
B)biohazard bags.
C)sharps container.
D)medical waste.
Q2) _____ is a condition in which numbness remains after the effects of the local anesthetic solutions should have worn off.
A)Analgesia
B)Anesthesia
C)Paresthesia
D)Electronic anesthesia
Q3) The most frequently used form of pain control in dentistry is:
A)local anesthesia.
B)topical anesthesia.
C)general anesthesia.
D)inhalation sedation.
Q4) During the loading of an anesthetic syringe,the _____ is loaded first.
A)needle
B)anesthetic cartridge
C)either a or b
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Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Q1) Dental imaging:
A)refers to film-based images.
B)refers to digitally produced images.
C)detects conditions that might otherwise remain undetected.
D)all of the above.
Q2) If a patient is small and petite,to get the same density radiograph it is best to reduce the:
A)exposure time.
B)mA.
C)kVp.
D)both a and b.
Q3) How well the image reproduces fine detail or distinct outlines of an object is called:
A)sharpness.
B)magnification.
C)density.
D)contrast.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a device that intensifies or increases the effect of the radiation and decreases the amount of exposure time needed when exposing an extraoral radiograph.
A)screen film
B)film cassette
C)intensifying screen
D)nonscreen film
Q2) When placing a dental film in the patient's mouth,the white side is placed ____ the tube and the raised dot to the ____.
A)toward; apical
B)toward; occlusal or incisal
C)away; apical
D)away; occlusal or incisal
Q3) The film is lighter than normal; what is the probable cause?
A)The developer solution is too weak.
B)The developer solution is too warm.
C)The fixer solution is too weak.
D)The film was not properly rinsed.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding the preparation of the operatory for dental imaging?
A)Barriers should be used on all surfaces that cannot be easily cleaned and disinfected.
B)Barriers are preferred over switches to prevent electrical shorts.
C)Barriers do not need to be used because spatter of blood and saliva is unlikely.
D)All of the above are not true.
Q2) The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a federal law that requires all:
A)persons who use x-rays to take dental images to be properly trained.
B)persons who use x-rays to take dental images to be certified.
C)dental x-ray machines to be registered.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Quality control for the darkroom should include:
A)checking for light leaks every six months.
B)safelight testing.
C)equipment testing.
D)all of the above.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertical angulation:
A)differs according to the technique being used.
B)refers to the up-and-down plane.
C)can be determined in degrees marked on the outside of the tubehead.
D)all of the above.
Q2) In order to minimize image distortion,the:
A)film must be positioned perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth.
B)film must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
C)central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed parallel to the film.
D)central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
Q3) In the paralleling technique,the central ray of the x-ray beam must be ___ to the film sensor and the long axis of the tooth.
A)intersecting
B)interproximal
C)parallel
D)perpendicular
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Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The focal trough is an imaginary three-dimensional curved area or space,shaped like a:
A)gutter.
B)bowling pin.
C)horseshoe.
D)baseball diamond.
Q2) The cause of a panoramic image that comes out with a radiopaque cone-shaped artifact that interferes with the diagnostic information is the:
A)patient's chin was too high during the procedure.
B)patient's lead apron was incorrectly placed or a lead apron with a thyroid collar was used.
C)patient's head was posterior to the focal trough.
D)patient moved during the procedure.
Q3) Anterior teeth that appear fat are caused by the:
A)patient's teeth positioned too far forward on bite block.
B)patient's teeth positioned too far back on bite block.
C)patient not sitting or standing up straight.
D)chin positioned too low.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Composites can be used for class ___ restorations.
A)I, III, and V
B)I and IV
C)II, III, and IV
D)I, II, III, IV, and V
Q2) New dental materials must undergo strict evaluation by _____ before they Can be marketed.
A)FDA
B)ADA
C)MDA
D)ADAA
Q3) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A porcelain casting is chosen over other castings because it:
A)has higher strength.
B)has the ability to match natural tooth structure.
C)is a good insulator.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) ZOE mixed to a base consistency should not be:
A)thick and putty-like.
B)rolled into a one large ball.
C)placed to cover the entire pulpal floor.
D)tapped lightly into the preparation with a condenser.
Q2) Insulating base material should cover the entire _______ to a thickness of _____ mm.
A)cavity preparation; 1-2
B)pulpal floor; 1-2
C)cavity preparation; 2-3
D)pulpal floor; 3-4
Q3) Which is not a use of fluoride varnish?
A)Treatment of hypersensitive cervical areas
B)Dentin sealant
C)Luting agent
D)Topical fluoride application
Q4) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type _____ glass ionomer cement is designed for restoring areas of erosion near the gingiva.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Which of the following cement types is(are) the most versatile and the least irritating to the pulp?
A)ZOE cement
B)Glass ionomer cement
C)Composite resin cement
D)Both a and b
Q3) The dental assistant may have the responsibility of placing the mixed cement into the casting.The cement should be loaded:
A)into the casting until it is overflowing.
B)so that a thin lining covers all internal walls of the casting.
C)to the top margin of the crown so that it is full.
D)only on the very bottom of the crown.
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) How will a water temperature of 80° F (26.6° C) affect an alginate mix?
A)It will make the mix set faster.
B)It will not change the setting time.
C)It will make the mix set slower.
D)It will render it useless.
Q2) Alginate material not setting or setting too rapidly may be the result of:
A)expired shelf life.
B)humidity.
C)improper storage.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which is not true regarding reversible hydrocolloids?
A)Plastic stops are used during the impression.
B)The impression procedure requires the use of 3 conditioning baths for the material.
C)The material is 85% agar and 15% water.
D)Either tray or syringe material can be used for the impression.
Q4) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife after it has cured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which form of gypsum products is used for the creation of dies?
A)Plaster
B)Model plaster
C)Dental stone
D)High-strength stone
Q3) Infection control in the dental laboratory is:
A)as important as it is when you are with a patient.
B)not as critical as it is when you are with a patient.
C)not a consideration because impressions are disinfected before entering the dental laboratory.
D)all of the above.
Q4) A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for:
A)bleaching trays.
B)provisional coverage.
C)impression tray.
D)both a and b.
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true?
A)If loss of tooth structure becomes greater than the remaining tooth structure, the tooth is nonrestorable.
B)When using retention pins, one pin is placed for each missing cusp.
C)Retention pins are screwed into the pulp of the tooth for greater support.
D)Retention pins are available in varying lengths and types of metals.
Q2) The purpose of a veneer is to ______ teeth.
A)improve the appearance of anterior
B)improve alignment of
C)close spaces between D)all of the above
Q3) Decay that involves the lingual pit of a maxillary incisor is a class:
A)V.
B)II.
C)CHOICE BLANK
D)IV.
E)cHOICE BLANK
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true concerning wedges?
A)A wedge is used to apply pressure to the apical and gingival walls of the preparation.
B)The wedge presses the band against the tooth, causing a slight separation of the teeth.
C)The most commonly used type of wedge is the rounded plastic form.
D)Both a and b are true statements.
Q2) The system that is used with posterior composite restorations is the:
A)automatrix.
B)Tofflemire.
C)T-band.
D)Palodent.
Q3) For posterior restorations,the wedge is positioned from the _____ side.
A)facial
B)lingual
C)buccal
D)labial
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tapered finish line of the margin at the cervical area of a tooth preparation is a(n):
A)articulator.
B)chamfer.
C)core. D)shoulder.
Q2) The metal of choice for inlay and onlay cast restorations is:
A)porcelain.
B)ceramics.
C)gold.
D)amalgam.
Q3) When one or more teeth are missing from the same arch,a permanent _____ is recommended.
A)partial denture
B)fixed bridge
C)porcelain-fused-to-metal crown
D)denture
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it necessary to keep the preliminary alginate impression moist?
A)To reduce the chance of cross-contamination
B)To aid in the setting time of the acrylic being used
C)To make it easier to remove the acrylic after it is set
D)To keep the alginate from distorting
Q2) If the liquid/powder acrylic material is being used for the provisional,how many drops of liquid are used?
A)5
B)10
C)12
D)Enough to wet the powder
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of prefabricated crowns?
A)The crowns are supplied in many types of materials, depending on the location of the provisional.
B)Prefabricated crowns can be used for posterior and anterior preparations.
C)The crowns are available for bridges as well as for single units.
D)Prefabricated crowns can be shaped to match adjacent teeth.
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple repairs of broken denture acrylic are sometimes handled in the dental office laboratory by using:
A)glutaraldehyde.
B)cold-cured acrylics.
C)Palodent.
D)Eugenol.
Q2) The artificial teeth are set in wax for the patient and dentist to evaluate at the _____ appointment.
A)records
B)preparation
C)try-in
D)delivery
Q3) The patient will be without denture for _____ while it is being relined or rebased.
A)4 to 8 hours
B)8 to 24 hours
C)2 to 3 days
D)3 to 4 days
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54
Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental team that works together to perform the implant procedure may includes a periodontist,prosthodontist,oral and maxillofacial surgeon,and:
A)implantologist.
B)orthodontist.
C)pedodontist.
D)endodontist.
Q2) During the second surgery of the osseointegrated implant,the:
A)endosteal implant fixture is exposed.
B)abutment screw is connected to the anchor.
C)abutment screw is connected to the prosthesis.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Extraoral radiographs,which are needed to evaluate the height,width,and quality of bone,include which of the following views?
A)Reverse Towne projection
B)Waters projection
C)Tomographic
D)Submentovertex
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding pulp capping?
A)Some of the carious dentin is left in the tooth to promote self-healing of the dentin so pulp exposure can be avoided.
B)With direct pulp capping the tooth is nonvital and material is placed to protect the pulp.
C)Indirect pulp capping is a permanent procedure, but the patient needs to be informed because problems may develop later and periodic monitoring is necessary.
D)The goals of indirect pulp capping are to promote pulpal healing by removing all of the decay and to stimulate the production of reparative dentin through placement of calcium hydroxide.
Q2) Which vitality test is the least useful?
A)Heat
B)Cold
C)Percussion
D)Electronic pulp
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Q1) _____ is a preventive measure that is most often performed during a recall appointment,and it is the primary treatment for gingivitis.
A)Dental prophylaxis
B)Root planing
C)Coronal polish
D)Gingival curettage
Q2) The process of scraping or cleaning the gingival lining of the pocket to remove necrotic tissue from the pocket wall is:
A)gingival curettage.
B)gingival debridement.
C)scaling.
D)root planing.
Q3) The _____ provides rapid calculus removal by converting very-high-frequency sound waves into mechanical energy and also reduces operator hand fatigue.
A)sickle scaler
B)ultrasonic scaler
C)universal curette
D)Gracey curette
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral surgery instruments are classified as _____ instruments and must be sterilized after each use.
A)critical
B)semicritical
C)noncritical
D)both b and c
Q2) The difference between surgical and suture scissors is:
A)surgical scissors are more delicate than suture scissors.
B)surgical scissors have a small notch on the cutting edge of blade, whereas suture scissors have straight blades.
C)suture scissors have serrated cutting edges designed to cut only suture material, whereas surgical scissors have only smooth cutting edges.
D)suture scissors are interchangeable with surgical scissors, whereas surgical scissors should only be used for surgical tasks.
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Q1) The success rate for replantation of permanent teeth is highest when the tooth is replanted within _____ of the avulsion.
A)30 minutes
B)60 minutes
C)2 hours
D)4 hours
Q2) A tooth that was knocked completely out of the mouth is said to be:
A)avulsed.
B)extruded.
C)exfoliated.
D)luxated.
Q3) The services routinely provided in a pediatric dental office include:
A)preventive procedures.
B)restorative procedures.
C)interceptive orthodontics.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Parents should be encouraged to put their children to bed with a bottle of milk,formula,or juice.
A)True
B)False
Page 59
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disclosing agent can be used for:
A)identifying areas of plaque.
B)evaluating the effectiveness of the polishing.
C)showing intrinsic stain.
D)both a and b.
Q2) The operator should ask the patient to ______ throughout the procedure.
A)wear safety glasses
B)keep their eyes closed
C)keep the mouth open wide
D)all of the above
Q3) A stain that is dull and yellowish/brown in color is caused by:
A)cigarettes or cigars.
B)inadequate toothpaste or poor hygiene.
C)tetracycline.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following choices represents an endogenous stain?
A)An excessive amount of fluoride during the development of the tooth
B)Blueberries
C)Dental amalgam that has been incorporated into tooth structure
D)Coffee
60
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Q1) The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is:
A)the type of material used.
B)that it be properly placed.
C)that the patient be recalled.
D)that the child continues to brush.
Q2) The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with _____,to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
A)citric acid
B)phosphoric acid
C)eugenol
D)pumice
Q3) Which is an indication for sealants?
A)Presence of small interproximal decay
B)A partially erupted tooth
C)Adjacent teeth with occlusal decay
D)Patient has adequate fluoride program
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ separators are placed between contacts with a "sawing" or flossing motion.
A)Brass wire
B)Elastic
C)Steel spring
D)Either b or c
Q2) To floss under the arch wire,the patient should be instructed to use:
A)an interproximal brush.
B)floss threader.
C)a Waterpik.
D)all of the above.
Q3) In class _____ occlusion,or distoclusion,the mandibular arch and the body of the mandible are in bilateral,distal relationship to the maxillary teeth.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)none of the above
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41127
Sample Questions
Q1) When trying to resolve a conflict it is important to:
A)involve the dentist or office manager so they will know what is going on.
B)keep it personal; use "I" or "me" instead of "we."
C)try to get other coworkers "on your side."
D)know the difference between "conflict" and "harassment."
Q2) Peer pressure:
A)is when we adapt personal behavior to fit into a particular group.
B)is used in an attempt to feel more acceptable.
C)can have positive or negative consequences.
D)all of the above.
Q3) A parent reprimanding a child for eating candy by telling him "it will cause a hole in his tooth and the dentist will have to give him a shot to drill the hole and fix it" is an example of:
A)peer pressure.
B)acquired fear.
C)objective fear.
D)learned fear.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) What is necessary to achieve organizational goals and team-oriented employee satisfaction?
A)Communication skills
B)Effective management
C)Team cooperation
D)Patient satisfaction
Q2) A patient of record is one who:
A)has a criminal record.
B)has been seen in the practice before.
C)is on the waiting list.
D)is a new patient.
Q3) Approximately one file guide should be used for every ____ folders,depending on the size of the folders.
A)9 to 12
B)10 to 20
C)5 to 10
D)3 to 5
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Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) A Truth in Lending form should be given to the patient:
A)at the initial visit to the dental office.
B)when the first monthly statement is sent.
C)before a payment plan of more than four monthly payments is set up.
D)after the patient has paid off the balance.
Q2) Calculate the monthly payment using the monthly payment plan outlined: Total charge = $3500,minus the down payment of ¹/ of the total charge,with the balance of charges divided into 6 monthly payments.
A)$565.83 per month
B)$583.33 per month
C)$389.17 per month
D)$390.84 per month
Q3) In insurance,the dentist who provides the treatment to the patient is the:
A)subscriber.
B)group.
C)carrier.
D)provider.
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65
Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) When dressing for an interview:
A)it is appropriate to wear a "scrubs" type uniform, since that is what is usually worn in the dental office.
B)keep make-up and jewelry to a minimum.
C)dress in conservative business attire, such as a dress pants and a blouse.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Most employers routinely consider the first several weeks to _____ days as provisional employment,during which either party may terminate the relationship without notice.
A)30
B)60
C)90
D)180
Q3) A follow-up letter should be sent to the interviewer within _____ after the interview.
A)48 hours
B)1 hour
C)1 week
D)6 to 10 days
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