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Dental Radiography Exam Preparation Guide - 811 Verified Questions

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Dental Radiography Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Dental Radiography is a course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles, techniques, and safety protocols involved in obtaining and interpreting dental radiographic images. The curriculum covers the physics of X-ray production, radiographic anatomy, patient positioning, film and digital imaging technologies, infection control, and radiation protection measures. Students gain hands-on experience in operating dental radiographic equipment, conducting intraoral and extraoral exposures, and assessing image quality for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Emphasis is placed on ethical and legal considerations, record keeping, and maintaining patient comfort and safety throughout radiographic procedures.

Recommended Textbook

Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS

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35 Chapters

811 Verified Questions

811 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Radiation History

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Sample Questions

Q1) The x-ray was discovered by:

A) Heinrich Geissler

B) Wilhelm Roentgen

C) Johann Hittorf

D) William Crookes

Answer: B

Q2) Radiation is defined as:

A) A form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles.

B) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.

C) A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube.

D) A branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays.

Answer: A

Q3) The variable kilovoltage x-ray machine was introduced in:

A) 1895

B) 1913

C) 1923

D) 1957

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Radiation Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the wave concept of electromagnetic radiation?

A) Wavelength refers to the speed of the wave.

B) Velocity refers to the number of wavelengths that pass a given point in a certain amount of time.

C) Frequency is defined as the distance between the crest of one wave and the crest of the next.

D) Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.

Answer: D

Q2) Approximately what percentage of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the anode?

A) Less than 1%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 100%

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Radiation Characteristics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity?

A) Decreasing the kilovoltage peak

B) Decreasing the milliamperage

C) Decreasing the exposure time

D) Decreasing the source-to-film distance

Answer: D

Q2) In dental radiography, the term ____ is used to describe the mean energy or penetrating ability of the x-ray beam.

A) quality

B) quantity

C) intensity

D) wavelength

Answer: A

Q3) When the voltage is increased:

A) Electrons move from the anode to the cathode with more speed.

B) Photons move from the anode to the cathode with more speed.

C) Electrons move from the cathode to the anode with more speed.

D) Photons move from the cathode to the anode with more speed.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Radiation Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the dose-response curve, when dose and damage are plotted on a graph, a ____ relationship is seen.

A) nonlinear, nonthreshold

B) linear, nonthreshold

C) nonlinear, threshold

D) linear, threshold

Q2) Naturally occurring background radiation includes:

A) Cosmic radiation.

B) Consumer products.

C) Terrestrial radiation.

D) Both a and c.

Q3) ____ refers to the quantity of radiation received or the total amount of radiation energy absorbed.

A) Total dose

B) Dose rate

C) Amount of tissue irradiated

D) Cell sensitivity

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6

Chapter 5: Radiation Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____-speed film is currently the fastest intraoral film available.

A) D

B) E

C) F

D) G

Q2) On some dental x-ray machines, only the ____ can be altered; the other parameters are preset by the manufacturer.

A) kilovoltage peak

B) exposure time

C) PID length

D) milliamperage

Q3) A film badge:

A) Is worn at waist level by the patient.

B) Is worn at waist level by the operator.

C) Is clipped to the shirt pocket of the operator.

D) Is clipped to the shirt pocket of the patient.

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Chapter 6: Dental X-Ray Equipment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ____ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead.

A) control devices

B) extension arm

C) control panel

D) exposure button

Q2) The ____ activate(s) the machine to produce x-rays.

A) on-off switch

B) exposure button

C) exposure light

D) control devices

Q3) The position-indicating device (PID) is an extension of the:

A) Tubehead

B) Extension arm

C) Control panel

D) Exposure button

Q4) ____ regulate(s) the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment.

A) The federal government

B) State governments

C) Local governments

D) Municipal governments

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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of intraoral film is used to examine the crowns of both the maxillary and the mandibular teeth on one film?

A) Maxillary periapical film

B) Mandibular periapical film

C) Bite-wing film

D) Occlusal film

Q2) Film is best stored in an area that is:

A) Hot.

B) Humid.

C) Cool and dry.

D) Exposed to radiation.

Q3) Which of the following film speed is the fastest film currently available?

A) C-speed film

B) D-speed film

C) E-speed film

D) F-speed film

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9

Chapter 8: Dental X-Ray Image Characteristics

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23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The geometric characteristic of ____ refers to the capability of the x-ray film to reproduce the distinct outlines of an object.

A) Magnification

B) Distortion

C) Sharpness

D) Parallax

Q2) The range of useful densities seen on a dental radiograph is termed the:

A) Film contrast.

B) Subject contrast.

C) Scale of contrast.

D) Kilovoltage peak.

Q3) A radiograph that has ____ is said to have low contrast.

A) A very dark overall appearance

B) A very light overall appearance

C) Many shades of gray

D) Very dark areas and very light areas

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Chapter 9: Dental X-Ray Film Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The major advantage of automatic film processing versus manual film processing is:

A) Less processing time is required.

B) Time is manually controlled.

C) Water temperature is manually controlled.

D) More sophisticated equipment is used.

Q2) The purpose of the hardening agent is to harden and shrink the:

A) Exposed silver halide crystals.

B) Unexposed silver halide crystals.

C) Gelatin in the film emulsion.

D) Plastic film base.

Q3) The optimal temperature for the developer solution is ____ degrees Fahrenheit.

A) 64

B) 68

C) 72

D) 76

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Chapter 10: Quality Assurance in the Dental Office

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the light leak test for the darkroom:

A) A flashlight should be used to check for light leaks.

B) The overhead lights should be off, but the safelight should be on.

C) All lights within the darkroom should be off.

D) Light a match within the darkroom, and see if any light is visible from the outside.

Q2) If the film clears in ____ minutes, the chemistry is of adequate strength.

A) 2

B) 6

C) 8

D) 14

Q3) The results of a film-screen contact test should be viewed on a viewbox in a:

A) Dimly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.

B) Brightly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.

C) Dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.

D) Brightly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.

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Chapter 11: Dental Radiographs and the Dental

Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) An oral examination limits the practitioner to knowledge of what is seen clinically. Dental radiographs allow the practitioner to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

Q2) To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always: (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.)

A) Maintain an adequate distance.

B) Have proper positioning.

C) Have proper shielding.

D) Avoid the primary beam.

Q3) Retakes resulting in unnecessary patient exposure to x-radiation must be avoided:

A) Whenever it is convenient because the dose is so low.

B) Only if the patient is uncomfortable with exposure.

C) Only if older (pre-1975) equipment is used.

D) At all times.

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term facilitation means :

A) Initiating.

B) The act of making easier.

C) The act of continuing.

D) Construction of a facility.

Q2) ____ is a nonverbal communication skill associated with interest and warmth.

A) Leaning slightly away from the patient

B) A slumped posture

C) Tapping fingers

D) An attentive posture

Q3) Communication is defined in the text as:

A) Having a conversation.

B) Establishing a connection.

C) The process by which information is exchanged between two or more persons.

D) Two or more persons in the same location or room.

Q4) Inviting a patient to ask questions:

A) Wastes time.

B) Discourages communication.

C) Enhances communication.

D) Intimidates the patient.

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Chapter 13: Patient Education and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Decisions about the number, type, and frequency of dental x-rays are determined by the ____ based on the patient's individual needs.

A) Insurance company

B) Dental assistant

C) Dental hygienist

D) Dentist

Q2) With faster F-speed film, a single intraoral film results in a surface skin exposure of ____ milliroentgens.

A) 1.25

B) 12.5

C) 125

D) 1250

Q3) According to the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs," dental x-ray procedures ____ because of pregnancy.

A) Must be avoided

B) Should be minimized

C) Should be limited to emergency care

D) Do not need to be altered

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15

Chapter 14: Legal Issues and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the patient is a minor, informed consent:

A) Is waived.

B) May still be obtained from the patient.

C) Must be obtained from the parent.

D) Must be obtained from a legal guardian.

Q2) Informed consent:

A) Must be in language that the patient can readily understand.

B) Does not require that patients have their questions answered before x-ray exposure.

C) Is waived if the patient is a minor.

D) Does not require that patients receive enough information to make informed choices.

Q3) The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a ____ law.

A) Federal

B) State

C) County

D) City

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16

Chapter 15: Infection Control and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____ is defined as the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms.

A) Antiseptic

B) Antibiotic

C) Antiinfective

D) Asepsis

Q2) After seating the patient, the radiographer must complete which of the following procedures before washing the hands and putting on gloves?

1) Chair adjustment

2) Headrest adjustment

3) Placing the lead apron

A)1, 2, 3

B)1, 2

C)2, 3

D)3 only

Q3) Critical instruments are defined as instruments:

A) That are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.

B) That contact but do not penetrate soft tissue.

C) That contact but do not penetrate bone.

D) Or devices that do not come in contact with mucous membranes.

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Chapter 16: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an extraoral technique for radiographic examination?

A) Panoramic

B) Interproximal

C) Periapical

D) Occlusal

Q2) There are ____ methods for obtaining periapical radiographs.

A) Two

B) Three

C) Five

D) Ten

Q3) CMRS stands for:

A) Complete mouth restorative series.

B) Complete mouth radiographic series.

C) Complete mouth restorative service.

D) Complete mouth radiographic service.

Q4) Which of the following methods is/are used for obtaining periapical radiographs?

A) Paralleling

B) Bisecting

C) Interproximal

D) Both a and b

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Chapter 17: Paralleling Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) Anterior film placements are less likely to cause the patient to gag. Once the gag reflex is stimulated, the patient may gag on films that could normally be tolerated.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

Q2) If the patient has a shallow palate, a lack of parallelism of greater than ____ degrees requires a modification in technique.

A) 10

B) 20

C) 30

D) 45

Q3) The authors recommend using size ____ film for anterior teeth and size ____ film for posterior teeth.

A) 1; 1

B) 2; 2

C) 1; 2

D) 2; 1

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19

Chapter 18: Bisecting Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique is to begin with the:

A) Maxillary right quadrant.

B) Maxillary left quadrant.

C) Mandibular right quadrant.

D) Mandibular left quadrant.

Q2) With size 2 film, a total of ____ anterior film placements are used in the bisecting technique.

A) Four

B) Six

C) Seven

D) Eight

Q3) When Rinn BAI instruments are used, "BAI" refers to which of the following?

A) Bisecting, aiming, instrument

B) Bisecting, angle, instrument

C) Bisecting, angle, integration

D) Both, angle, integration

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Chapter 19: Bite-Wing Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) For the molar bite-wing exposure, the front edge of the film should be aligned with the midline of the:

A) Maxillary first premolar.

B) Mandibular first premolar.

C) Maxillary second premolar.

D) Mandibular second premolar.

Q2) According to the text, the identification dot in bite-wing film placement:

A) Should be oriented "dot down."

B) Should be oriented "dot distal."

C) Should be oriented "dot up."

D) Has no significance.

Q3) Which size bite-wing film may be placed in a horizontal or vertical position?

A) Size 0

B) Size 1

C) Size 2

D) Size 3

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21

Chapter 20: Exposure and Technique Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cause of an excessive margin of film edge (which appears as a black band) on a nondiagnostic periapical film is:

A) The edge of the film was not placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.

B) The film was not positioned in the patient's mouth to cover the apical regions of the teeth.

C) The film was underexposed.

D) The central ray was not directed through the interproximal spaces.

Q2) When the occlusal plane appears tipped or tilted, the error is a(n):

A) Incorrect horizontal angulation.

B) Incorrect vertical angulation.

C) Dropped film corner.

D) Elongated image.

Q3) When the film is reversed, the image will be:

A) Elongated.

B) Distorted.

C) Light with a herringbone pattern.

D) Blurred.

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Chapter 21: Occlusal and Localization Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pediatric projection is recommended for use in children ____ years old or younger.

A) 2

B) 5

C) 8

D) 10

Q2) When the occlusal technique is used, a ____ to stabilize the film.

A) Stabe bite-block is used

B) hemostat is used

C) patient gently bites on the surface of the film

D) bite-wing tab is used

Q3) Which of the following is a maxillary occlusal projection, but not a mandibular occlusal projection?

A) Topographic occlusal projection

B) Lateral occlusal projection

C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection

D) Pediatric projection

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Chapter 22: Panoramic Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) A "reverse smile line" is seen on the radiograph if the patient's:

A) Chin is tipped down.

B) Chin is tipped up.

C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.

D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.

Q2) If the patient's lips are not closed on the bite-block during the exposure of a panoramic film, a ____ shadow results that obscures the anterior teeth.

A) Light radiopaque

B) Dark radiopaque

C) Light radiolucent

D) Dark radiolucent

Q3) A lead apron ____ a thyroid collar should be used when exposing a panoramic film, and the patient should be told to raise the tongue up to the ____.

A) Without; palate

B) Without; occlusal plane

C) With; palate

D) With; occlusal plane

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Chapter 23: Extraoral Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Extraoral radiographs may be used in conjunction with intraoral films. The images seen on extraoral film are not as defined or sharp as the images seen on an intraoral radiograph.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

Q2) Scatter radiation:

A) Increases film fog.

B) Increases film contrast.

C) Reduces film contrast.

D) Both a and c.

Q3) An extraoral radiograph is placed ____ the mouth during x-ray exposure. Extraoral radiography is used to image ____ areas of the skull or jaws.

A) Outside; small

B) Outside; large

C) Inside; small

D) Inside; large

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25

Chapter 24: Imaging of Patients With Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the patient gags, the dental radiographer must:

A) Bring up the subject of gagging.

B) Remove the film as quickly as possible.

C) Wait 30 seconds before removing the film so the patient can acclimate to its presence.

D) Wait until the patient removes the film.

Q2) To help reduce the gag reflex:

A) Tell the patient to hold his or her breath.

B) Do not try to distract the patient.

C) Use the term gagging when talking with the patient.

D) Try to reduce tactile stimuli.

Q3) Size ____ film is typically used for the edentulous examination.

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 4

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26

Chapter 25: Digital Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given that the human eye can resolve 8 to 10 lp/mm, a CCD system is inadequate for diagnosis of dental disease. The majority of the research has shown that the traditional Radiographs perform at least as well as digital images and at times even better.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

Q2) The images are cleared from the storage phosphor imaging plates by:

A) Being processed in an x-ray processing machine.

B) Being autoclaved.

C) Being exposed to viewbox light for several minutes.

D) Being placed in a microwave oven for 1 minute.

Q3) How does the CMOS detector differ from the CCD detector?

A) The CMOS detector is silicon-based and differs from the CCD detector in the way that the pixels are read.

B) The CMOS detector is currently manufactured by one company and claims 25% less resolution than the CCD detector.

C) The CMOS detector is more expensive to produce than the CCD detector.

D) The CMOS detector is less durable than the CCD detector.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Three-Dimensional Digital Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Metallic restorations may eliminate or hide the surrounding anatomy with the appearance of:

A) High density.

B) Fogged film.

C) Streak artifacts.

D) Blank images.

Q2) Many dental professionals who incorporate CBCT into their practices have not had the training required to interpret anatomy beyond the maxilla and mandible. What steps can be taken to correct this deficiency that could potentially hinder the use of CBCT?

A) Incorporate CBCT into educational curricula.

B) Hire a trained interpreter to read CBCTs in the dental office.

C) Offer continuing education courses to dental professionals.

D) Both a and c

E) All of the above

Q3) The purpose of three-dimensional imaging includes which of the following?

A) Eliminates deficiencies that could hinder accurate interpretation of images.

B) Used to enhance the evaluation of pathology.

C) Used to determine distances to critical anatomic landmarks.

D) All of the above.

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Chapter 27: Normal Anatomy: Intraoral Images

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a dental radiograph, the periodontal ligament space (PDL) space appears as a ____ line around the root of a tooth.

A) Thin radiopaque

B) Thin radiolucent

C) Wide radiopaque

D) Wide radiolucent

Q2) The hamulus extends from the:

A) Medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.

B) Lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone.

C) Styloid process.

D) Maxillary tuberosity.

Q3) On a maxillary periapical radiograph, the anterior nasal spine appears as a ____-shaped radiopaque area located at the intersection of the floor of the nasal cavity and the nasal septum.

A) T

B) U

C) V

D) I

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Chapter 28: Film Mounting and Viewing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suggestions for mounting radiographs include mounting bite-wing radiographs with the curve of Spee directed ____ toward the distal and remembering that most maxillary molars have ____ roots.

A) Upward; two

B) Upward; three

C) Downward; two

D) Downward; three

Q2) A film mount may be made of:

1) Cardboard

2) Lead foil

3) Plastic

4) Vinyl

A)1, 2, 3, 4

B)1, 2, 4

C)1, 3, 4

D)3, 4

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Chapter 29: Normal Anatomy: Panoramic Images

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mastoid process is a marked prominence of bone located ____ to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

A) Anterior and superior

B) Anterior and inferior

C) Posterior and superior

D) Posterior and inferior

Q2) The glenoid fossa is a ____ areA.

A) Convex, raised

B) Convex, depressed

C) Concave, raised

D) Concave, depressed

Q3) On a panoramic radiograph, the incisive foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round area located:

A) Near the apex of the mandibular first premolar.

B) Between the roots of the maxillary central incisors.

C) Inferior to the orbit.

D) Superior to the maxillary sinuses.

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Chapter 30: Introduction to Image Interpretation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radiographic interpretation enables the dental professional to play a vital role in the detection of ____ of the teeth and jaws that cannot be identified clinically.

1) Lesions

2) Diseases

3) Conditions

A)1, 2, 3

B)1, 2

C)1, 3

D)1 only

Q2) In the dental setting, interpretation refers to an explanation of what is viewed on a radiograph, whereas the term diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

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32

Chapter 31: Descriptive Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of a soft-tissue opacity?

A) Osteitis deformans

B) Sialolith

C) Chondrosarcoma

D) Florid osseous dysplasia

Q2) A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a ____ process.

A) Benign slow-growing

B) Benign rapidly growing

C) Malignant slow-growing

D) Malignant rapidly growing

Q3) The term ____ refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo.

A) Focal opacity

B) Target lesion

C) Multifocal confluent

D) Ground glass

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33

Chapter 32: Identification of Restorations, Dental Materials, and Foreign Objects

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some manufacturers of composite materials add radiopaque particles to their products to help the viewer differentiate a composite restoration from:

A) An amalgam restoration.

B) Dental caries.

C) A cast gold restoration.

D) A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown.

Q2) The greatest potential negative consequence of an amalgam overhang is:

A) Unesthetic contour.

B) Destruction of interproximal bone.

C) Impingement of the interdental papilla.

D) Stretching of periodontal ligament fibers.

Q3) Because metallic restorations absorb x-rays, the area of the film that corresponds to their location remains unexposed, and the metallic restorations appear completely ____ on a dental radiograph.

A) Radiosensitive

B) Radioresistant

C) Radiopaque

D) Radiolucent

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Chapter 33: Interpretation of Dental Caries

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____ caries are found between two teeth.

A) Occlusal

B) Buccal

C) Lingual

D) Interproximal

Q2) ____ occlusal caries cannot be seen on a dental radiograph and must be detected clinically with an explorer. (1) Incipient

(2) Moderate

(3) Severe

A) 1, 2, 3

B) 1, 3

C) 2, 3

D) 1 only

Q3) A radiograph is most useful for detection of ____ caries.

A) Buccal

B) Lingual

C) Occlusal

D) Interproximal

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Chapter 34: Interpretation of Periodontal Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ____ of adjacent teeth can be used as a plane of reference in determining the pattern of bone loss present.

A) Marginal ridge height

B) Cementoenamel junctions (CEJs)

C) Pulp chambers

D) Cementum thickness

Q2) Radiographs permit the evaluation of ____ in the detection of periodontal disease.

A) Pocket depth

B) Soft tissue

C) Inflammation

D) Bone

Q3) Generalized bone loss occurs evenly throughout the dental arches, including greater than ____ of the sites involved.

A) 10%

B) 20%

C) 30%

D) 50%

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Chapter 35: Interpretation of Trauma and Pulpal and Periapical Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a periapical radiolucency?

A) Hypercementosis

B) Condensing osteitis

C) Periapical cyst

D) Sclerotic bone

Q2) Teeth that have been luxated should be evaluated by a(n) ____ radiograph.

A) Bite-wing

B) Periapical

C) Occlusal

D) Panoramic

Q3) The treatment for condensing osteitis is:

A) Extraction.

B) Root canal therapy.

C) Osseous recontouring.

D) No treatment is necessary.

Q4) ____ is the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone.

A) Luxation

B) Intrusion

C) Extrusion

D) Avulsion

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