Dental Radiography Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Dental Radiography introduces students to the principles, techniques, and safety considerations involved in producing and interpreting dental radiographic images. The course covers the physics of x-ray generation, image formation, and the biological effects of ionizing radiation. Emphasis is placed on infection control, patient positioning, exposure parameters, and digital versus traditional radiography methods. Students will learn to identify normal anatomical structures, recognize common dental pathologies, and troubleshoot technical errors. The course also explores legal and ethical considerations, including patient privacy and informed consent, as they relate to dental imaging practices.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Dental Radiography for Dental Assistants and Hygienists 10th Edition by Evelyn Thomson
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30 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Dental Radiography: Historical Perspective and Future Trends
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Sample Questions
Q1) The <KT>parpaparalleling technique is taught in all dental assisting, dental hygiene, and dental schools because it is the technique of choice for imaging intraoral radiographs.
A) Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) What medical imaging modality records a selected plane of tissues?
Answer: A computed tomography (CT) scan</KT> images a single selected plane of tissues.
Q3) The PID is used to direct the useful beam of radiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) X-radiation was discovered when Roentgen was working with a Crookes tube.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Characteristics and Measurement of Radiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum number of electron shells (energy levels) an atom can have?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
Answer: D
Q2) An atom is the smallest part of an element that still retains properties of that element.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) People living on the Colorado plateau receive a higher dose of what type of radiation than people living in Philadelphia?
Answer: back ground
Q4) What is the term for atoms that have gained or lost electrons and electrical neutrality?
Answer: Ions. The number of protons (positive charges) in an atom normally equals the number of electrons (negative charges). When an electron is removed from a neutral atom, it loses electrical neutrality and becomes an ion.
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Chapter 3: The Dental X-Ray Machine: Components and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anode is the negative electrode (terminal) in the x-ray tube.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Dental x-ray machines contain each of the following components EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Control panel
B) Extension arm
C) Radioactive material
D) Tube head
Answer: C
Q3) Electricity is defined as electrons in motion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The metal housing of the tube head increases the safety of the x-ray machine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Factors Affecting Radiographic Quality
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Q1) The difference in densities between adjacent areas on the radiograph is termed:
A) sharpness.
B) density.
C) resolution.
D) contrast.
Q2) What types of tissues or structures appear radiolucent on radiographs?
Q3) Grids absorb scattered x-rays.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following refers to a radiographic image that is black and white with many shades of gray in between?
A) Low contrast
B) High contrast
C) Low density
D) High density
Q5) The term "short-scale contrast" describes a radiograph in which density differences between adjacent areas are small.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What types of tissues or structures appear radiopaque on radiographs?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Effects of Radiation Exposure
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Q1) When the dose of radiation is increased, does the severity of a stochastic effect increase?
Q2) What is the difference between the effects of irradiation to somatic cells compared to reproductive cells?
Q3) The average effective dose equivalent from naturally occuring background radiation to the population of the United States is approximately 8 µSv (microsieverts) per day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Do scientists believe that radiation damage to reproductive cells is cumulative?
Q5) What is the approximate surface (skin) dose of radiation from a full mouth series of 18 F-speed films, exposed at 90 kVp with a 16-inch (41-cm)-length PID?
A) 30 mSv
B) 50 mSv
C) 75 mSv
D) 100 mSv
Q6) When do the effects of irradiation occur?
Q7) When is the developing fetus most susceptible to the damaging effects of radiation, and why?
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Chapter 6: Radiation Protection
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Q1) The ALARA concept implies that:
A) any radiation dose that can be reduced without major difficulty, great expense, or inconvenience, should be reduced or eliminated.
B) if a radiation dose cannot be reduced without major difficulty, great expense, or inconvenience, then no radiographs should be exposed.
C) radiation dosages slightly above the acceptable level of risk are acceptable only in emergency treatment situations.
D) fewer radiographs should be taken only if a radiation dose cannot be reduced due to major difficulty, inconvenience, and great expense.
Q2) A rectangular PID requires a larger dose of radiation to produce a diagnostic-quality radiograph than a circular PID.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fast film requires less radiation for exposure and is essential for reducing radiation to the patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film and Processing Methods
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Q1) Silver halide crystals suspended in gelatin form which part of dental x-ray film?
Q2) Which portion of the dental film retains the latent image?
A) The protective layer
B) The gelatin
C) The silver halide crystals
D) The adhesive
Q3) The latent image is an image that is slow in its formation, especially when using slow speed film.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The same film type used for exposing dental radiographs can be used to duplicate them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of these is NOT a component of dental x-ray film?
A) Protective layer
B) Base
C) Phosphor crystals
D) Emulsion
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Chapter 8: Digital Radiography and Image Acquisition
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Q1) The preservative sodium sulfite</KT> is found in both the developer and fixer solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which ingredient slows down the oxidation rate of the developing solution?
A) Sodium sulfite
B) Sodium carbonate
C) Potassium bromide
D) Hydroquinone
Q3) Developer contains hydroquinone and elon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During manual time-temperature film processing, after fixing, the films are to be placed in the water wash for:
A) 5 minutes.
B) 10 minutes.
C) 20 minutes.
D) time is dependent upon water temperature.
Q5) What is the purpose of rinsing the film after it has been in the developer during manual processing?
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Q1) Do digital imaging systems necessarily require a computer and monitor to capture and view an image?
Q2) Each of the following statements regarding photostimulable phosphor plates is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) They use rare earth-coated plates.
B) The plates are disposable.
C) They store x-ray energy until stimulated by a laser beam.
D) They are similar to film-based radiography in that they must be "developed" later.
Q3) Direct digital imaging does not use film.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is FALSE regarding a digital sensor?
A) It requires a different technique than a film packet.
B) It replaces an intraoral film packet.
C) It may be wired or wireless.
D) It is available in sizes similar to film packets.
Q5) There are two methods of acquiring a digital image.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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Q1) Each of the following types of protective eyewear is acceptable for use by the dental radiographer EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Glasses with side shields
B) Goggles
C) Contact lenses
D) Full face shields
Q2) Within what time frame should the radiographer be able to aseptically open all film packets of a full mouth series in the darkroom?
Q3) What are infectious diseases?
Q4) A pathosis is a microorganism capable of causing disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) Microbial aerosols are pathogens present in blood that cause disease in humans.
B) Asepsis means "freedom from infection."
C) An antiseptic is an agent used on living tissue to kill or reduce numbers of bacteria.
D) Contamination is soiling by contact or mixing.
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Chapter 11: Patient Relations and Education
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Q1) What is the type of consent a patient gives after being told of the nature and purpose of treatment procedures, the benefits, and the risks?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a goal of the dental radiographer?
A) Keep retake radiographs under three per patient.
B) Perform confidently and with authority.
C) Aim for perfection with each radiograph.
D) Follow strict protocols to protect oneself during exposures.
Q3) Each of the following statements regarding informed consent is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Speak to the patient in lay terms about the risks and benefits of exposing radiographs.
B) Allow the patient to choose who he/she wants to expose the radiographs.
C) Inform the patient about the risks of radiation exposure.
D) Inform the patient of the purpose of exposing the radiographs.
Q4) Direct supervision when radiographs are taken means that the dentist:
A) must be present in the office.
B) must be present in an adjacent operatory.
C) need not be present in the office but must be readily available.
D) has authorized the number of films to be taken.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations
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Q1) What is the term used to describe the conduct of the radiographer while taking radiographs on the patient?
Q2) If placement of an intraoral image receptor is uncomfortable for the patient, the radiographic procedure should be postponed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Attitudes toward an employer and co-workers play a role in determining the degree of successful patient management.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the following statements regarding effective nonverbal communication is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Nonverbal communication is not very believable.
B) A nod of the head indicates "yes" or agreement.
C) A smile by the radiographer can help to relax the patient and reduce apprehension.
D) Facial expressions strongly convey the attitude of the radiographer.
Q5) Are large amounts of radiation harmful?
Q6) How should the radiographer greet the patient?
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Chapter 13: The Periapical Examinationparalleling Technique
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Q1) Each of the following statements regarding the fundamentals of periapical radiographs is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Periapical radiographs may be taken using the paralleling or bisecting technique.
B) Placement of the image receptor-holding device must be evaluated to avoid angulation errors.
C) The patient's finger can be used to hold a large image receptor in position in the oral cavity.
D) The size of image receptor chosen depends on the shape and size of the dental arches.
Q2) Placing the dot in the slot of the film holder positions the identification dot toward the apices of teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is it important to not position the embossed dot on the film near the apices of the teeth?
Q4) What is the spot on the surface of the patient's face toward which the central ray is directed called?
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Chapter 14: The Periapical Examinationbisecting Technique
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Q1) Because of the supporting structures on the maxillary arch, to accomplish a parallel relationship between the image receptor and the long axes of teeth, the image receptor must be placed closer to the teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the ideal design of a paralleling image receptor holder?
A) A short bite block and an L-shaped backing
B) A long bite block and an L-shaped backing
C) A short bite block and a 105-degree backing
D) A long bite block and a 105-degree backing
Q3) A patient may bite down on a sterilized cotton roll that is placed on the same side of the bite block as the teeth to provide stablization and add to patient comfort.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Dentsply Rinn Stabe and the Flow Dental SUPA image receptor holders designed for the paralleling technique do not have an external aiming device.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Bitewing Examination
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Q1) Even when the positioning and angulation steps are accurate and precise, the bisecting technique will produce some dimension distortion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The patient must be seated correctly to use predetermined vertical angulations when employing the bisecting technique.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When using the bisecting technique, because the long axis of the tooth and the plane of the image receptor are not parallel, a shorter target-image receptor distance will increase magnification and distortion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Changes in vertical angulation are indicated when the patient's palatal vault is high or low.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the bisecting technique relates to the rule of isometry.
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Chapter 16: The Occlusal Examination
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Q1) Bitewings are limited in their ability to image the entire tooth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sometimes there is a need to expose more than four bitewing radiographs on an individual patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The disadvantage of using the largest size image receptor possible to expose a bitewing radiograph is that:
A) unnecessary structures will be imaged.
B) exposure times must be increased.
C) anatomical limitations may hinder ideal placement.
D) it is contraindicated for patients with periodontal disease.
Q4) To avoid overlap error, t</OLINK>he central ray of the x-ray beam should be directed perpendicular to the mean tangent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the name of the location the central ray is directed toward on the patient's face?
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Chapter 17: The Panoramic Examination
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Q1) When imaging the mandibular arch, the printed side of the occlusal film packet will face the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Can a thyroid collar be used during the occlusal radiographic exam?
Q3) The thyroid collar may be in the path of the primary beam during which occlusal technique?
A) Maxillary posterior topographical
B) Mandibular anterior topographical
C) Mandibular posterior topographical
D) Mandibular cross-sectional
Q4) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Topographical occlusal radiographs yield a greater amount of information in the alveolar crest and apical areas than periapical radiographs.
B) Topographical occlusal radiographs may be exposed only on the maxillary arch.
C) Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs work best to image the maxilla.
D) Topographical occlusal radiographs cannot be used on children.
Q5) Do occlusal radiographs display dimensional distortion?
Q6) Is a short or a long PID recommended for use in occlusal radiography?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Identifying and Correcting Undiagnostic
Radiographs
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Q1) To avoid radiographic error while opening a film packet in the darkroom, the film should be removed from the outer packaging rapidly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A scratched safelight filter or incorrect bulb wattage can result in film fog.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A black film indicates accidental exposure to white light.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Electronic noise is the digital equivalent of film fog.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When using the paralleling technique, excessive vertical angulation will result in:
A) elongation of the teeth.
B) foreshortening of the teeth.
C) cutting off the apices of teeth.
D) cutting off the occlusal/incisal edges of the teeth.
Q6) What causes discrete black lines to appear on the radiograph?
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Chapter 19: Quality Control and Environmental Safety in Dental Radiography
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Q1) A step wedge is a device of layered metal steps of varying thickness used to:
A) determine film freshness.
B) determine safety of the safe light.
C) evaluate tube head stability.
D) test the strength of processing chemicals.
Q2) There are quality control tests for all radiographic equipment and procedures including the personnel who work with the systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following indicates a passed coin test?
A) No image of a coin
B) A faint image of the coin
C) An undistorted image of the coin
D) A dark image of the coin
Q4) After exposing the first film out of a newly opened box, the film should be processed and examined to determine if it is fresh.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which processing solution is most critical and demands careful attention?
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Chapter 20: Image Orientation and Introduction to Interpretation
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Q1) Unused radiographic films should be stored in lead-lined boxes especially made for this purpose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each of the following statements concerning the need for proper disposal of old radiographs is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) The amount of silver remaining in the film will depend on the density.
B) Unprocessed films will have more silver ions than processed films.
C) The lighter the radiograph, the larger the amount of silver remaining on the film.
D) Radiographs contain silver that should be recovered or recycled prior to disposal into the waste stream.
Q3) The EPA requires that manufacturers of developer and fixer supply MSDS to the oral health care practices that purchase these products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the appropriate use of an emergency eyewash station.
Q5) List the requirements of an emergency eyewash station.
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Chapter 21: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy
Intraoral Radiographs
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Q1) After orienting the embossed dots all the same way, the next suggested step when systematically mounting dental radiographs is to:
A) separate anterior periapical radiographs from posterior periapical radiographs.
B) separate maxillary periapical radiographs from mandibular periapical radiographs.
C) separate bitewing radiographs from periapical radiographs.
D) label the film mount with the patient's name and date.
Q2) The identification dot on intraoral radiographs is used to distinguish the patient's left and right sides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The interpretation of radiographs is improved if the radiographer develops a systematic method to reading the images.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is radiographic interpretation?
Q5) Which method of film mounting is no longer recommended?
Q6) How long should dental radiographs be retained?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy
Panoramic Radiographs
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Q1) What is the radiopaque ridge that extends forward and downward on the lateral surface of the mandible called?
Q2) What is the vertical radiopaque line separating the paired radiolucencies of the nasal cavity called?
Q3) Which of the following soft tissues may be imaged on an intraoral dental radiograph?
A) Eyelid
B) Ear lobe
C) Tip of the nose
D) Cheek
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding normal anatomic landmarks is correct?
A) The maxillae are two bones, a left maxilla and a right maxilla.
B) There are right and left mandibular bones.
C) There are two frontal bones, a right and a left.
D) The sphenoid bone is also called the "malar bone" or "cheekbone."
Q5) How does the lateral fossa appear on a dental radiograph?
Q6) What is the thin radiolucent line that delineates the midline of the palate and the junction of the right and left maxilla called?
Page 24
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Chapter 3: Radiographic Appearance of Dental Materials and Foreign Objects
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Q1) A torus is a bony growth projecting outward from the surface of a bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term "idiopathic resorption" can apply to either external or internal resorption.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) Post and core restorations resemble implants radiographically.
B) Retention pins have a shape that is easy to identify on the radiograph.
C) Retention pins are located in the dentin only.
D) Post and core restorations are always observed in conjunction with endodontic filling material.
Q4) Which of these will appear radiopaque?
A) An abscess
B) A cyst
C) A granuloma
D) Osteosclerosis
Q5) What type of temporary restoration has a "see-through" appearance on the radiograph?
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Chapter 24: The Use of Radiographs in the Detection of Dental Caries
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Q1) What is the radiographic appearance of moderate occlusal decay at the DEJ?
Q2) What term is applied to an optical illusion in which radiolucent lines are caused by overlapping images of the teeth?
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The detection of caries is one of the most common reasons for exposing dental radiographs.
B) The carious process is one of remineralization of tooth structure.
C) Caries appears radiolucent on the radiograph.
D) The presence of caries allows more x-rays to pass through the tooth and darken the image receptor.
Q4) What is the name of the optical illusion that describes the increased darkness near the neck of the teeth proximally on radiographs?
Q5) A caries grading system establishes a baseline from which to track the progression and/or remineralization of the carious lesions at future appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the name for severe, unchecked caries that affect multiple teeth?
Q7) How do caries appear radiographically compared to radiopaque enamel?
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Chapter 25: The Use of Radiographs in the Evaluation of
Periodontal Diseases
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Q1) To be useful in the evaluation of periodontal disease, periapicals should be exposed using the paralleling technique.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some practitioners prefer to expose radiographs used for the purpose of recording information regarding the periodontium at a lower kVp setting because of the high contrast it will produce.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The effects of occlusal trauma may be evident on a radiograph as A) a widening of the PDL space.
B) an excessive buildup of calculus.
C) dilacerations of the teeth roots.
D) furcation involvement.
Q4) When taking multiple radiographs of the same region, varying the horizontal angulation slightly will compromise diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Can radiographs reveal the effects of traumatic occlusion on the periodontium?
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Q1) The first pediatric radiographic survey may not be necessary until:
A) all primary teeth have erupted and prevent a visual inspection of interproximal surfaces.
B) the arches have developed sufficiently to accommodate placement of the image receptor.
C) the age of 6, when cooperation is more likely.
D) the child presents with signs or symptoms of oral disease.
Q2) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) A size #0 or #1 intraoral image receptor is usually the choice for a child with primary teeth.
B) The preferred image receptor for use with a child with transitional dentition is size #1.
C) The radiographer should use the largest size image receptor the child can tolerate.
D) The amount of radiation required does not depend on the size of the intraoral image receptor.
Q3) Less radiation is required to produce an acceptable image in children than in adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Radiographic Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following conditions or circumstances would contraindicate necessary dental radiographs for the patient?
A) Pregnancy
B) Hearing or visual impairment
C) Wheelchair confinement
D) Recent dental radiographs at another practice
Q2) Currently, the ADA recommendation is that elective radiographs may be taken on the pregnant female. Unnecessary radiographs may be taken only when the female is determined not to be pregnant.
A) The first sentence is true. The second sentence is false.
B) The first sentence is false. The second sentence is true.
C) Both sentences are true
D) Both sentences are false.
Q3) To aid in managing a patient with special needs, an organized radiographer will:
A) progress through the procedure rapidly and accurately.
B) expose the easier projections first.
C) have all supplies and equipment ready before exposure.
D) All of the above.
Q4) How should pregnant patients who need dental radiographs be prepared for the procedure?
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Chapter 28: Radiographic Techniques for Patients With Special Needs
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Q1) The mucosa over tori is thick and calloused, so an image receptor can usually be comfortably placed on top of tori.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Looking at a full mouth series of radiographs you note that an impacted retained primary root tip can be observed between the right mandibular second premolar and the first molar in the premolar periapical radiograph. You note that the root tip appears to have "moved" mesially in the molar periapical radiograph. Which of the following is true regarding the impacted retained primary root tip?
A) It is located on the buccal.
B) It is located on the lingual.
C) An additional radiograph would be required to determine the buccal or lingual location of the impacted retained primary root tip.
Q3) Can radiographs be exposed during endodontic therapy?
Q4) The exposure settings for the maxillary molar region should be higher than those used in the mandibular anterior region.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Radiographic Techniques for Specific Oral Conditions
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Q1) Why should cassettes and intensifying screens be examined prior to use?
Q2) The radiographic technique that uses simultaneous movement of the x-ray source and the image receptor to record images of structures located within a selected plane of tissue while blurring structures outside the selected plane is called "tomography."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Extraoral films are more sensitive to light than intraoral films.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the following statements regarding extraoral film is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is individually packaged in the same manner as intraoral films.
B) It should not be handled with latex or vinyl treatment gloves.
C) It is more sensitive than intraoral film.
D) It is used in conjunction with a pair of intensifying screens.
Q5) Orthodontists frequently use extraoral radiographs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Of what is the front cover of a rigid extraoral film cassette constructed?
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Chapter 30: Radiographic Techniques
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Q1) What is the area between the x-ray source and the image receptor that will be recorded in relative detail on the resultant radiograph called?
A) Negative shadow
B) Ghost image
C) Focal trough
D) Rotational center
Q2) Which of the following describes the collimator of the panoramic x-ray beam?
A) It is circular (round).
B) It is concentric (cone-shaped).
C) It is rectangular
D) It is a narrow slit
Q3) What is the name of the anatomic landmark that appears on a panoramic image as a pea-shaped, radiolucent opening in the bone located between the roots of the maxillary central incisors?
Q4) What is the name of the anatomic landmark that appears on a panoramic image as a concave, depressed area of the temporal bone located anterior to the external auditory meatus where the head of the mandibular condyle rests?
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