Dental Practice Management
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Practice Management is a comprehensive course designed to equip dental students and professionals with the essential knowledge and skills required to effectively manage a modern dental practice. The curriculum covers key aspects such as practice organization, financial management, human resource management, patient communication, ethical and legal considerations, marketing strategies, and the integration of technology. Emphasis is placed on developing leadership abilities, critical thinking, and strategic planning to ensure efficient operation, high-quality patient care, and long-term professional success within the dynamic dental industry.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physicist who discovered x-rays in 1895 was: A)Paul Revere.
B)Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen. C)G.V. Black.
D)Pierre Fauchard. Answer: B
Q2) The ADA Journal published a report of infection control for dental offices in: A)1900. B)1978. C)1982. D)2000. Answer: B
Q3) The DANB was founded in: A)1900. B)1924. C)1948. D)2000. Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered to be the role of an expanded-functions dental assistant?
A)Mixing and passing dental materials
B)Pouring and trimming models
C)Placing dental sealants
D)Instituting infection-control procedures
Answer: C
Q2) Which is not considered an expanded function?
A)Trimming study models
B)Placing retraction cord
C)Applying fluoride
D)All of the above are considered expanded functions.
Answer: A
Q3) A dental assistant become certified as a CDA by:
A)passing the state boards.
B)passing the national DANB exam.
C)graduating from an accredited dental assisting program.
D)working for two years in a dental office.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental assisting program?
A)Six months
B)One academic year
C)Three months
D)Two academic years
Answer: B
Q2) Practice options available to a dentist include:
A)private practice.
B)partnerships.
C)teaching.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) If a patient does not respond to the root canal treatment in your dental office,he or she may be referred to a(n):
A)orthodontist.
B)endodontist.
C)prosthodontist.
D)oral pathologist.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respecting a patient's confidentiality is a(n) _____ obligation.
A)legal
B)ethical
C)both a and c
D)neither a nor c
Q2) Providing treatment that does not benefit the patient is:
A)immoral.
B)an example of nonmaleficence.
C)moral.
D)both a and b.
Q3) The basic principles of ethics for healthcare providers are:
A)autonomy, nonmaleficence, beneficence, and truth.
B)autonomy, nonmaleficence, beneficence, justice, confidentiality, and veracity.
C)autonomy, doing no harm, regard for justice, and being truthful.
D)beneficence, truth, justice, and fairness.
Q4) Reassuring a child that a treatment will not hurt when,in fact,it may hurt:
A)is doing no harm.
B)is a nice thing to do.
C)may threaten trust.
D)is promotion of well-being.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a classification of criminal law?
A)Felony
B)Malpractice
C)Misdemeanor
D)Infraction
Q2) Consent for treatment of a minor child must be given by:
A)the child.
B)the parent.
C)the legal guardian.
D)both b or c.
Q3) _____________ allows an individual currently licensed in one state to become licensed in another state if certain requirements are met.
A)Licensure by credential
B)Reciprocity
C)Licensure exemption
D)None of the above
Q4) A tort can only occur if intentional wrongdoing occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) The brain and spinal cord are located in the _____ cavity.
A)dorsal
B)cranial
C)spinal
D)all of the above
Q2) The three imaginary lines used to divide the body into sections are called:
A)division lines.
B)section lines.
C)planes.
D)structural units.
Q3) The basic units of structure of the human body are: A)body systems.
B)tissues.
C)cells.
D)organs.
Q4) The lining of the mouth is made of _____ tissue.
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)muscle
D)nerve
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is often spread through coughing of sputum that contains blood and is of concern to the dental staff is:
A)tonsillitis.
B)pharyngitis.
C)tuberculosis.
D)pneumonia.
Q2) The smallest elements of blood that play an important role in the clotting of the blood are the:
A)plasma.
B)red blood cells.
C)basophils.
D)platelets.
Q3) What is the body's communication system?
A)Circulatory system
B)Nervous system
C)Respiratory system
D)Endocrine system
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The teeth develop in which sequence?
A)Mandibular anterior then mandibular posterior
B)Maxillary anterior then maxillary posterior
C)Mandibular anterior then maxillary anterior
D)Maxillary anterior then mandibular posterior
Q2) When are the first signs of tooth development found in the anterior mandibular region of the developing embryo?
A)Six weeks after the baby is born
B)During the third trimester of pregnancy
C)When the embryo is five to six weeks old
D)At three months of age
Q3) The _____ within the periodontium.
A)cementum connects the alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
B)alveolar bone connects the cementum and periodontal ligaments
C)periodontal ligaments connect the cementum and alveolar bone
D)cemento-enamel junction connects the alveolar bone and periodontal ligaments
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone that forms the upper jaw is the:
A)lacrimal bone.
B)maxilla.
C)mandible.
D)nasal bone.
Q2) Which muscle of the floor of the mouth aids during swallowing?
A)Mylohyoid
B)Digastric
C)Styloid
D)Geniohyoid
Q3) The submandibular salivary gland:
A)produces the largest total volume of saliva.
B)empties into the mouth through the Wharton's duct.
C)is the smallest of the major salivary glands.
D)does both a and b.
Q4) _____ is the habitual grinding of teeth,especially at night.
A)Crepitus
B)Bruxism
C)Clenching
D)Trismus
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Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Q1) The area inside of the dental arches is considered to be the:
A)buccal vestibule.
B)isthmus of fauces.
C)faucial pillar.
D)oral cavity.
Q2) The groove that extends upward between each labial commissure and the nasal ala is the:
A)anterior naris.
B)nasolabial sulcus.
C)mucobuccal fold.
D)uvula.
Q3) Two small papillae are located on either side of the lingual frenum under the tongue that serve as openings for the ______ salivary glands.
A)submandibular
B)sublingual
C)parotid
D)none of the above
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) Which is the correct order of the teeth from anterior to posterior in the permanent dentition?
A)Molars, premolars, canines, incisors
B)Incisors, canines, premolars, molars
C)Canines, incisors, premolars, molars
D)Incisors, premolars, canines, molars
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the contours of teeth?
A)With overcontouring, the gingiva may be traumatized by food pushing against it.
B)With undercontouring, the gingiva will lack adequate stimulation and be difficult to clean.
C)The crown of the tooth narrows toward the cervical line.
D)A convex surface is curved inward.
Q3) Which dentition takes place between 6 to 12 years of age and exhibits both primary teeth and permanent teeth in the oral cavity at the same time?
A)Primary
B)Permanent
C)Mixed
D)None of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Universal Numbering System,the four first permanent molars are:
A)#16, #26, #36, and #46.
B)#2, #15, #18, and #31.
C)#3, #14, #19, and #30.
D)#18, #28, #38, and #48.
Q2) There are ___ teeth in a quadrant of the primary dentition.
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)8
Q3) A mandibular canine tooth:
A)usually erupts before the maxillary canine.
B)has a larger and more developed cusp than the maxillary canine.
C)has a sharper cusp tip than a maxillary canine.
D)has a mesial cusp slope that is longer than the distal cusp slope when it first erupts, while the opposite is true for a maxillary canine tooth.
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of laser caries detector readings?
A)A false-positive is possible if plaque is present in fissures.
B)Carious tooth structure reveals higher degrees of fluorescence.
C)The readings are extremely accurate.
D)All of the above are not true.
Q2) _____ is an infectious disease in which children live in constant pain from decayed teeth and swollen gums.
A)Trench mouth
B)Early childhood caries
C)Rampant decay
D)All of the above
Q3) Which is not true about the process of demineralization and remineralization?
A)It may occur without loss of tooth structure.
B)Demineralization always causes loss of tooth structure.
C)It is a continual process characterized by demineralization and remineralization.
D)If more demineralization than remineralization occurs, a caries lesion develops.
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a soft mass of bacterial deposits that covers the tooth surface.
A)Calculus
B)Plaque
C)Scum
D)Subgingival calculus
Q2) The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
A)bacterial plaque.
B)poorly fitting restorations.
C)stress.
D)none of the above.
Q3) The _____ is made up of the structures that surround,support,and are attached to the teeth.
A)cementum
B)alveolar bone
C)periodontal ligament
D)periodontium
Q4) An individual with chronic periodontal disease is more prone to pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since the 1950s,_____ has been the primary weapon in combating dental caries.
A)toothbrushing
B)fluoride
C)sealants
D)flossing
Q2) A _______ is a plastic-like covering applied over pits and fissures to protect the tooth against decay.
A)fluoride varnish
B)crown
C)sealant
D)fluoride gel
Q3) Things to consider when you are teaching a patient how to brush most effectively include:
A)The patient's age
B)The patient's dexterity
C)The patient's personal preferences
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ carbohydrate supplies calories without providing another nutritive value.
A)complex
B)refined
C)incomplete
D)none of the above
Q2) Apricots are a good source of which of the following minerals?
A)Calcium
B)Chloride
C)Phosphorus
D)Potassium
Q3) The eating disorder that can be easily recognized in the dental office by severe wear on the lingual surface of the teeth caused by stomach acid from repeated vomiting is:
A)bulimia.
B)anorexia nervosa.
C)female athlete triad.
D)binge eating.
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of oral pathology is important for the dental assistant so as to:
A)be able to diagnose pathologic conditions.
B)recognize the difference between normal and abnormal conditions.
C)check oral conditions for the dentist.
D)explain to the patient that he or she has cancer.
Q2) A(n) _____ is a malignant neoplasm that comes from bone.
A)osteoma
B)osteosarcoma
C)adenocarcinoma
D)leukemia
Q3) Which is the condition of tooth development where congenital absence of teeth is present in the human dentition?
A)Anodontia
B)Macrodontia
C)Microdontia
D)Supernumerary teeth
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disease that is transmitted through bloodborne contact and breaks down the body's immune system is:
A)HIV.
B)tuberculosis.
C)tetanus.
D)syphilis.
Q2) The type of spores that normally live in the intestinal tract of insects is:
A)virulent fungus.
B)capsules.
C)rickettsiae.
D)anaerobes.
Q3) How many major groups of microorganisms are there?
A)5
B)10
C)7
D)3
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) The law designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood-borne disease-causing organisms such as HBV,HIV,and HCV is:
A)the OSHA Blood-borne Pathogens Standard.
B)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003.
C)the OSHA Health and Safety Standards.
D)the exposure control plan.
Q2) Training employees on the proper response to an exposure incident in a dental office is the responsibility of the: A)employer.
B)CDC.
C)OSHA.
D)office manager.
Q3) According to the CDC,_____ Precautions represent a standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid,excretion,or secretion.
A)Standard
B)Universal
C)Domestic
D)Continental
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Precleaning can be accomplished by using:
A)a disinfectant that cleans as well as disinfects.
B)regular soap and water.
C)alcohol and gauze.
D)both a and b.
Q2) Carpeting:
A)is as easy to clean as nonporous hard-surface flooring.
B)can be reliably disinfected.
C)harbors bacteria but not fungi.
D)harbors both bacteria and fungi.
Q3) Disinfectants used in dentistry must:
A)be registered with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B)be registered as hospital disinfectants with tuberculocidal claims.
C)kill all spores.
D)both a and b.
Q4) One of the "pros" of complex phenols is that:
A)many preparations are limited to one day of use.
B)they may leave a residual film on treated surfaces.
C)they are sporicidal.
D)they are compatible with metal, glass, rubber, and plastic.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone are _____ instruments
A)noncritical
B)semicritical
C)critical
D)all of the above
Q2) When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items,the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through _____.
A)percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
B)percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye and nose, but not the mouth.
C)percutaneous injury, but not contact with mucous membranes.
D)contact with mucous membranes, but not percutaneous injury.
Q3) Ultrasonic cleaners are used to:
A)loosen and remove debris from instruments.
B)disinfect instruments.
C)reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
D)both a and c.
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) OSHA standards related to dentistry include which of the following?
A)Blood-borne Pathogens Standard
B)Hazard Communication Standard
C)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings
D)Both a and b
Q2) The ______ is the primary federal agency conducting and supporting medical research and is a part of the U.S.Department of Health and Human Services.
A)NIDCR
B)NIOSH
C)OSAP
D)NIH
Q3) Which of the following acronyms stands for the premier infection-control education organization in dentistry?
A)CDC
B)EPA
C)NIOSH
D)OSAP
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a form of toxicity that can be caused by chronic benzene exposure?
A)Headache
B)Dizziness
C)Unconsciousness
D)Leukemia
Q2) Scrap dental amalgam should be collected and stored in:
A)a designated, dry, airtight container.
B)an airtight container under photographer fixer.
C)an airtight container under water.
D) either b or c.
Q3) Hazard Communication Program employee training is required:
A)once a month.
B)when a new employee is hired.
C)once a year.
D) both b and c.
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The options available for testing the quality of waterline cleaning include:
A)there is no availability for testing of the dental waterline cleaning.
B)using a commercial testing service.
C)using an in-office test kit.
D)both b and c.
Q2) To temporarily reduce the microbial count and to help clean the handpiece waterlines,DUWLs should be flushed:
A)for 20 to 30 seconds between patients.
B)every morning for several minutes.
C)every evening for 20 minutes.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Dental team members can reduce their exposure to the dental unit water by using: A)the HVE.
B)a dental dam.
C)masks, protective eyewear, and/or face shields.
D)both a and c.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of ergonomics is to help people:
A)adapt the human body to the work environment.
B)increase their range of twisting and reaching motions.
C)establish sequences of repetitive motions to reduce work strain.
D)stay healthy while performing their work more effectively.
Q2) Deviation from the neutral position includes:
A)twisting and leaning forward.
B)overbending back and reaching.
C)neither of the above.
D)both a and b.
Q3) The risk for cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs) can increase with:
A)standing in one position for extended periods of time.
B)overflexion and overextension of the wrist.
C)slouching.
D)none of the above.
Q4) The use of ambidextrous gloves can place excessive tension on the:
A)median nerve.
B)carpal bones.
C)synovial sheath.
D)thenar eminence.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) To ensure safe care to the patient,medical alerts and other precautions should be noted by:
A)posting a warning sign on the entrance to the treatment area.
B)writing the medical condition that prompted the alert on the patient bib.
C)affixing an "alert" sticker to the outside cover of the patient record.
D)affixing an "alert" sticker to the inside cover of the patient record.
Q2) The goal of obtaining medical history information from a dental patient is to:
A)know of any existing allergies to foods or medications.
B)be alerted of any medical conditions.
C)identify special treatment needs of the patient.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The _____ addresses all the patient's problems that were identified during the examination and diagnosis portion of the visit in a sequenced plan,and may include more than one option.
A)informed consent form
B)clinical examination
C)treatment plan
D)progress notes
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The amount of labor the heart must exert to pump blood throughout the body is known as the:
A)respiration rate.
B)pulse rate.
C)blood pressure.
D)heart rate.
Q2) Which phase of Korotkoff sounds in blood pressure measurement consists of the blood flowing easily and the sound changing to a soft tapping?
A)II
B)V
C)IV
D)III
Q3) Which of the following best describes a pulse?
A)Palpate the artery
B)Oxygen taken into the body
C)Body's temperature
D)Rhythmic expansion of an artery each time the heart beats
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) What color symbol indicates treatment that needs to be completed?
A)Black
B)Blue
C)Red
D)Green
Q2) Intraoral imaging provides the dentist with:
A)panoramic imaging of the oral cavity.
B)radiographic imaging of the oral cavity.
C)magnification of an image for better evaluation.
D)live video of intraoral tissue.
Q3) Abbreviations may be used in the progress notes or chart to save space.The correct abbreviation for a mesio-occluso-buccal filling would be:
A)BuOcMe.
B)BOM.
C)MOD.
D)MOB.
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) In which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is the patient insulin dependent?
A)Type II
B)Type I
C)Type III
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be a major factor in hypertension?
A)Stress
B)Exercise
C)Smoking
D)Heredity
Q3) Which of the following is not a recommendation for treating hypertension?
A)Handle more stress.
B)Limit salt intake.
C)Follow a particular diet.
D)Perform exercise.
Q4) Heart disease can manifest in many ways.Which of the following is not a cause?
A)Diabetes
B)Hypertension
C)Angina
D)Congestive heart failure
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following is the slowest route of absorption for a drug?
A)Orally
B)Rectally
C)Intravenously
D)Intramuscularly
Q2) Who can prescribe drugs to a patient within the dental profession?
A)Dental office manager
B)Dental hygienist
C)Dental assistant
D)Dentist
Q3) What type of drug name is Motrin?
A)Brand name
B)Generic name
C)Chemical name
D)None of the above
Q4) A drug that is applied directly to the site of use is considered a:
A)local-action drug.
B)systemic-action drug.
C)drug that affects the whole body.
D)both a and b.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41097
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient records blood pressure at 80/46.This is an abnormally low blood pressure.What would be the condition diagnosed in this patient?
A)Hypertension
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Hypotension
D)Hyperventilation
Q2) When the patient's hands go to his throat,as spasms of coughing or choking occur during an emergency,it indicates:
A)ventricular fibrillation
B)aspiration of a foreign object
C)postural hypotension
D)syncope
Q3) When defibrillation is provided within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest,there is about a _____ percent chance that you can save the victim's life.
A)10
B)25
C)50
D)75
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33
Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient dental chairs:
A)are only available for adult sized patients; however, booster seats may be purchased.
B)come with many visible mechanical parts, to facilitate cleaning and maintenance.
C)have finger- or foot-operated control systems to adjust the chair for dental treatment.
D)have fixed chair arms to provide a secure feeling to the patient.
Q2) Oral evacuation systems have filter traps to catch debris that could clog the system.The system is flushed daily and the disposable traps should be changed: A)biweekly.
B)monthly.
C)weekly.
D)daily.
Q3) Water is removed from the patient's mouth by:
A)having the patient spit into a cuspidor.
B)using the saliva ejector.
C)using the high-volume evacuator.
D)both b and c.
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) During four-handed dentistry,the operator must have:
A)easy access to the computer.
B)easy access to instruments.
C)easy access to the patient's oral cavity.
D)a comfortable stool with a footrest.
Q2) One of the best ways to know your patients,and be better prepared for the day ahead,is to have a brief meeting or review:
A)as each patient arrives.
B)in the morning, during lunch, and at the end of the day.
C)each morning, before patients arrive.
D)on the following day before heading home for the evening.
Q3) Team dentistry is described as:
A)four-handed dentistry.
B)being taught to dentists and dental assistant students for the past 40 years.
C)the way the dentist and the dental assistant work together to perform clinical procedures.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cement spatulas are:
A)single-ended.
B)made of stainless steel.
C)used to mix liners, bases, and cements.
D)all of the above.
Q2) All of the instruments listed below are types of chisels except:
A)Wedelstaedt.
B)straight.
C)hatchet.
D)bin-angle.
Q3) The mouth mirror is used for:
A)indirect vision and light reflection.
B)retraction and tissue protection.
C)both A and B
Q4) The basic setup is composed of which of the following instruments?
A)Evacuator, chisel, hatchet, and gingival margin trimmer
B)Mouth mirror, double-ended explorer, cotton pliers, and amalgam carver
C)Mouth mirror, double-ended explorer, and cotton pliers
D)Mouth mirror and double-ended explorer
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first dental handpiece was introduced in the:
A)1920s.
B)1930s.
C)1940s.
D)1950s.
Q2) When cleaning a dental handpiece,it is important to:
A)always lubricate the handpiece before sterilization.
B)always lubricate the handpiece after sterilization.
C)carefully follow the manufacturer's instructions.
D)never use a lubricant on the handpiece.
Q3) Which of the following is not correct about diamond rotary instruments?
A)They have a metal base with flecks of industrial diamonds.
B)They are inexpensive.
C)They increase cutting ability.
D)They shorten preparation time and increase productivity.
Q4) The ultrasonic handpiece is used for:
A)cavity preparation.
B)polishing.
C)scaling.
D)adjusting dentures.
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a limited rinse,what equipment would be used by the dental assistant?
A)HVE
B)Cup of mouthwash rinse
C)Air-water syringe
D)Both a and c
Q2) Dental dams are made of either latex or latex-free material and come precut as squares that measure _____ inches.
A)4 × 4
B)5 × 5
C)6 × 6
D)both b and c
Q3) The dental assistant grasps the evacuator in the _____ hand when assisting a right-handed dentist.
A)right
B)left
C)either a or b
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Used or contaminated needles and cartridges are discarded in the:
A)trash can.
B)biohazard bags.
C)sharps container.
D)medical waste.
Q2) During the loading of an anesthetic syringe,the _____ is loaded first.
A)needle
B)anesthetic cartridge
C)either a or b
Q3) The anesthetic syringe consists of all of the following parts with the exception of: A)harpoon.
B)rubber stopper.
C)thumb ring.
D)piston rod.
Q4) What can cause paresthesia?
A)Trauma to the nerve
B)Bleeding into or around the nerve
C)Contaminated anesthetic solution
D)All of the above
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Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary radiation is:
A)also called the useful beam.
B)the beam of x-rays that comes from the target.
C)less penetrating than secondary radiation.
D)both a and b.
Q2) One of the earliest signs of overexposure to x-rays may be:
A)keratosis.
B)loss of hair.
C)erythema.
D)blindness.
Q3) Thermionic emission refers to the:
A)release of electrons from the tungsten filament.
B)ions formed in the x-ray tube by the loss of electrons.
C)change in filament resistance due to heating.
D)slamming of electrons against the target.
Q4) Damage caused by ionizing x-radiation to genetic cells:
A)affects only the person being x-rayed.
B)can affect future generations.
C)affects only the dental assistant.
D)affects the cells of the eye, skin, and oral mucosa.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of white spots on a processed film?
A)Static electricity
B)Solutions are too warm
C)Fixer contacts film prior to processing
D)Drops of developer
Q2) The ideal time and temperature for manual developing is:
A)45 seconds at 85° F.
B)5 minutes at 65° C.
C)5 minutes at 68° F.
D)5 minutes at 60° F.
Q3) Which is not true of duplicating film's emulsion?
A)It is only on one side.
B)It appears shiny.
C)It appears dull.
D)It is exposed by light.
Q4) Which is the correct order of steps in manual film processing?
A)Fix, rinse, develop, wash
B)Develop, rinse, fix, wash
C)Fix, wash, rinse, wash
D)Rinse, develop, fix, wash
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the following is correct for decreasing contamination of dental imaging equipment and supplies?
A)Gather all supplies needed before beginning the procedure.
B)Use overgloves if additional supplies are needed during a procedure.
C)Ask for help.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) With normal usage,processing solutions should be changed:
A)once a day.
B)once a week.
C)every 3 to 4 weeks.
D)annually.
Q3) Calibration of dental x-ray equipment should be performed by:
A)a dental assistant.
B)a qualified technician.
C)the dentist.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements is true about taking x-rays using the paralleling technique except:
A)the central ray must be perpendicular to the film sensor and the long axis of the tooth.
B)the film sensor must be placed directly against the teeth being exposed.
C)failure to center the central ray on the film sensor could result in a cone cut.
D)the central ray must be directed through the contact areas between the teeth.
Q2) For management of the patient with a gag reflex:
A)slide the film sensor along the palate to minimize the possibility of eliciting the gag reflex.
B)position the film sensor slowly.
C)if intraoral images are impossible to obtain, you must use extraoral images.
D)radiographic images are not necessary.
Q3) Because of the curvature of the arch,a total of _____ bitewing views are taken on an adult patient.
A)two
B)four
C)six
D)eight
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43
Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anterior teeth that appear fat are caused by the:
A)patient's teeth positioned too far forward on bite block.
B)patient's teeth positioned too far back on bite block.
C)patient not sitting or standing up straight.
D)chin positioned too low.
Q2) Each panoramic unit has a(n) ______ that is used to align the patient's teeth as accurately as possible.
A)head positioner
B)tubehead
C)exposure control
D)power source
Q3) Advantages of panoramic imaging include which of the following?
A)The entire maxilla and mandible are seen on one image.
B)It is easy and quick to learn how to expose a panoramic image.
C)Patients prefer panoramic images and are exposed to less radiation.
D)All of the above are advantages of panoramic imaging.
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44
Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single spill capsules:
A)contain 600 mg of alloy.
B)are used for small restorations.
C)should be discarded immediately after use.
D)all of the above.
Q2) _______ is(are) the process(es) of mixing alloy and mercury together to form a mass.
A)Amalgamation
B)Trituration
C)Condensing
D)Both a and b
Q3) Which is not an advantage of amalgam over composite?
A)Cost
B)Moisture control
C)Esthetics
D)Strength
Q4) Retention holds a material in place and seals the structures together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desensitizer should be placed:
A)after thoroughly drying the tooth.
B)on enamel only.
C)and dried immediately.
D)after rinsing and lightly drying.
Q2) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not true in the application of etchant material?
A)The tooth must be free of debris.
B)The tooth must be thoroughly dried.
C)The etchant gel is placed only where needed.
D)It is cured for 15 to 30 seconds.
Q4) You are asked to select a base for a deep cavity preparation because of extensive decay.Which would you select?
A)Zinc oxide-eugenol
B)Zinc phosphate
C)Polycarboxylate
D)Any of these
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true of the preparing the tooth for a composite resin cementation?
A)Etch enamel and dentin for 15 seconds.
B)Rinse completely.
C)Blot the tooth with a cotton pellet.
D)Dry the tooth completely.
Q2) When removing cement from a casting,never:
A)use a explorer.
B)use a firm fulcrum.
C)move instruments in a horizontal direction.
D)pull excess cement down away from the casting.
Q3) Which of the following will not help to dissipate heat when mixing zinc phosphate cement?
A)Mixing on a cool glass slab
B)Adding small increments
C)Spatulate over a large area of the slab
D)Mixing quickly
Q4) Properly mixed glass ionomer cement should have a glossy appearance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syneresis in an alginate impression occurs when:
A)water evaporates from the impression.
B)the mix changes colors.
C)excess moisture is absorbed by the impression.
D)the mixing time is increased.
Q2) Alginate impression material can:
A)change color as it sets.
B)be normal set or fast set.
C)be supplied with flavoring.
D)all of the above.
Q3) When loading a tray for an upper impression,place:
A)more material toward the anterior and labial edge.
B)more material in the palatal area.
C)the material evenly in the tray.
D)more material toward the posterior and palatal areas.
Q4) A preliminary impression would be used for:
A)custom trays.
B)indirect restorations.
C)partial or full dentures.
D)implants.
48
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A model consists of the _____ portion,which represents the teeth and tissues of the mouth,and the _____ portion,which forms the base of the cast.
A)art; anatomical
B)anatomical; foundation
C)anatomical; art
D)oral cavity; foundation
Q2) Light-cured resin tray material should be cured:
A)for 10 minutes.
B)off the model.
C)for 2 minutes.
D)without the spacer.
Q3) A self-cured resin tray should be used:
A)after the heat has diminished.
B)while it is giving off heat.
C)immediately after construction.
D)after 24 hours.
Q4) Type _____ baseplate wax is a softer wax used for denture construction.
A)I
B)II
C)III
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tooth whitening or vital bleaching is not indicated for a dental patient when the patient presents with:
A)severe tetracycline and fluorosis stains.
B)extrinsic stains from foods, cigarette smoking, coffee, or tea.
C)aged teeth.
D)intrinsic stains, such as mild tetracycline stains or mild fluorosis.
Q2) Class III restorations involve the interproximal surfaces of _____ and _____.
A)incisors; canines
B)canines; premolars
C)premolars; molars
D)incisors; premolars
Q3) An example of esthetic dentistry includes:
A)veneer.
B)teeth bleaching.
C)dentures.
D)both a and b.
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is used for anterior composite resin or glass ionomer restorations.
A)automatrix
B)clear plastic matrix
C)Tofflemire
D)T-band
Q2) Which statement(s) is(are) true concerning the purpose of the anterior matrix systems?
A)The clear plastic allows the curing light to penetrate the material, completing the curing process.
B)The matrix protects the adjacent teeth from the materials.
C)The matrix helps in reconstructing the natural contour of the tooth.
D)All of the above are true statements.
Q3) To create a solid closure of the cavity preparation for posterior composite restorations,the prongs of the tension ring for the Palodent systems are placed _____ the band and wedge.
A)distal to B)between
C)mesial to D)buccal to
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important step in placing a porcelain veneer is:
A)making a provisional to be worn while the veneer is being made.
B)matching the tooth color of the veneer to the adjacent teeth.
C)making sure the veneer is thick enough block out underlying color.
D)making the cement used a shade darker than the veneer.
Q2) Materials used for a core buildup include:
A)self-curing composite material.
B)reinforced glass ionomer cement.
C)amalgam.
D)any of the above may be used.
Q3) The metal of choice for inlay and onlay cast restorations is:
A)porcelain.
B)ceramics.
C)gold.
D)amalgam.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a fixed prosthesis?
A)Composite resin
B)Silver dental amalgam
C)Three-unit bridge
D)Pin-retained silver dental amalgam
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occlusal surface of the provisional coverage should be _____ the occlusal plane of the adjacent teeth.
A)below (infraocclusion)
B)even with
C)above (supraocclusion)
D)even with or above
Q2) A disadvantage of using custom provisional coverage is that is:
A)can only be used for anterior teeth.
B)can be the most time-consuming to make.
C)is hard to fit the prepared tooth.
D)does not look natural.
Q3) The provisional should _____ below the margin of the preparation.
A)not extend
B)extend one to three mm
C)extend four to six mm
D)extend six to eight mm
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53
Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ begins at the occlusal surface of the tooth and extends downward so it partially encircles the tooth.
A)I-bar retainer
B)I-bar clasp
C)C-clasp
D)rest
Q2) Home care for the partial denture includes:
A)storing the partial denture in water or in a moist, airtight container while not wearing it.
B)brushing the partial while in the mouth when brushing natural teeth.
C)disinfecting the partial with bleach about once a week.
D)flossing around the retainers to keep them clean.
Q3) The _____ is not a component of a removable partial denture.
A)post dam
B)connector
C)retainer
D)rest
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The placement of dental implants involves both _____ of the prosthesis.
A)extractions and placement
B)surgery and placement
C)design and fabrication
D)preparation and placement
Q2) Dental implants:
A)require modification of adjacent teeth.
B)are far less expensive than a conventional bridge.
C)can prevent the bone loss and gum recession that often accompany bridgework and dentures.
D)can support a bridge, but not a denture.
Q3) The dental radiographs that are necessary to determine anatomic structures include:
A)periapical.
B)bitewing.
C)occlusal.
D)vertical bitewing.
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the root canal therapy is completed,the canal is filled with:
A)paper points.
B)gutta-percha.
C)calcium hydroxide.
D)parachlorophenol.
Q2) The process used to remove bacteria,necrotic tissue,and organic debris from the root canal is called:
A)obturation.
B)opening the canal.
C)debridement.
D)shaping.
Q3) What type of response to the percussion and/or palpation test would indicate the inflammation is present in the periodontal ligament,and the endodontic treatment is most likely needed?
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Acute
D)Obturation
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56
Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A periodontal examination should include:
A)the patient's medical and dental history.
B)an examination of the teeth and oral tissues.
C)measuring pockets with a pocket marker.
D)both a and b.
Q2) The soft material that forms on the teeth that is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and other forms of periodontal disease is:
A)calculus.
B)exudates.
C)fluoride.
D)plaque.
Q3) The procedure where bone is contoured and shaped is:
A)ostectomy.
B)bone grafting.
C)bone augmentation.
D)osteoplasty.
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that means to dislocate,as in a tooth from its socket,is:
A)alveolitis.
B)luxate.
C)exfoliate.
D)curettage.
Q2) _____ is/are used to remove a tooth in one piece,with the crown and root intact.
A)A periosteal elevator
B)Forceps
C)A surgical curette
D)A rongeur
Q3) Which statement is not true concerning forceps extractions?
A)A "simple" forceps extraction is not considered a surgical procedure.
B)Most routine extractions do not require placement of sutures.
C)A forceps extraction is performed on a tooth that is fully erupted.
D)A forceps extraction is performed using extensive instrumentation.
Q4) Which instrument is used to cut into the soft tissue?
A)Rongeur
B)Retractor
C)Scalpel
D)Mallet
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stainless steel crowns are:
A)durable enough to last until permanent teeth erupt.
B)indicated when there are rampant caries.
C)used to restore a fractured tooth.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following techniques should not be used to alleviate a child's fear of dental treatment?
A)Permitting the child to participate
B)Threatening the child
C)Rewarding for good behavior
D)Giving the child some control
Q3) Which of the following government agencies should be contacted in cases of suspected child abuse?
A)The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
B)The state police
C)The state or county child protective services agency
D)City hall
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59
Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When polishing the mandibular arch,the patient's chin should be _____ and the chin should be _____ for the maxillary.
A)up; up
B)down; down
C)up; down
D)down; up
Q2) Selective polishing is recommended,because the:
A)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing actually removes a small amount of the fluoride-rich outer enamel layer.
B)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing actually removes a small amount of the fluoride-depleted outer enamel layer.
C)abrasive agent used during coronal polishing impedes uptake of fluoride by the outer layer of enamel.
D)fluoride contained in the abrasive agent is not taken up by the teeth.
Q3) Which of the following is not a possible negative effect of coronal polishing?
A)Dentinal hypersensitivity during and after the appointment
B)Loss of enamel
C)Scratches or rough surfaces left on restorations
D)Decreased fluoride uptake
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will do which of the following?
1)Promote microleakage.
2)Arrest the progression of caries.
3)Preserve existing restorations .
4)Preserve tooth structure.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)2, 3, 4
C)3, 4
D)4 only
Q2) The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with _____,to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
A)citric acid
B)phosphoric acid
C)eugenol
D)pumice
Q3) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41126
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of attachment for fixed appliances is the:
A)orthodontic band.
B)bonded bracket.
C)arch wire.
D)separator.
Q2) In preparation for the bonding of brackets the teeth are:
A)isolated using cotton rolls or retractors.
B)polished using a fluoride free paste.
C)etched, rinsed, and dried.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Orthodontic fixed appliances are also known as:
A)braces.
B)separators.
C)Hawley retainers.
D)clear "aligners."
Q4) _____ are attached to hooks or buttons that are secured on the band or brackets.
A)Springs
B)Tooth positioners
C)Elastic separators
D)Elastics
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41127
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not true concerning social attitudes?
A)Social attitudes have no influence on a person's behavior.
B)People tend to make others' attitudes their own.
C)Socialization is the process of society's influences on individuals.
D)Social attitudes can influence a person's cultural way of thinking.
Q2) Methods to reduce stress in the dental workplace include:
A)minimizing staff so everyone is kept hopping; time goes more quickly when you are busy.
B)overbooking the appointment book, so there is never a dull moment.
C)the simultaneous performance of multiple tasks (multitasking).
D)good communication; voice problems and list possible solutions.
Q3) What information should be included when dictating a message into the answering machine?
A)Who is speaking
B)Why the phone is being answered by a recording
C)Brief instructions for the caller (e.g., "Please leave a message")
D)Both b and c
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63
Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a 15-minute time unit is used in the practice and a patient must be scheduled for a procedure that will take approximately 40 minutes to complete,the dentist should request that this patient be given a ___-unit appointment.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q2) In which record would you look to find consent forms for a patient?
A)Patient dental records
B)Patient financial records
C)Practice business records
D)Accounts receivable records
Q3) The best time to see young children in the dental office is usually:
A)after their nap
B)right after lunch
C)late in the day
D)in the morning
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64
Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each employee must complete a _______ form for tax purposes.
A)Statement of Earnings
B)W-4
C)W-2
D)FICA
Q2) Patient registration forms include:
A)the patient's name, address, place of employment, and social security number.
B)information indicating the patient's coverage under a dental insurance plan.
C)medical and dental history.
D)HIPAA release information.
Q3) According to the federal Fair Debt Collection Practice Act,which of the following examples of collection efforts is permitted?
A)Telephoning the debtor between 5:00 PM and 8:00 PM
B)Threatening violence
C)Using false pretenses to get information
D)Contacting the debtor's employer to warn them about their deadbeat employee
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Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) Employment agencies:
A)are state run and charge a fee for their services.
B)can be private agencies, with employer-paid fees.
C)base their fee on the current minimum wage rate.
D)are paid on a monthly basis.
Q2) The purpose of an employment interview is to allow:
A)the dentist to determine whether you are the right employee for the position.
B)you to gather information to help you determine whether you would be happy working in that position.
C)the staff to meet you to see if you would fit in.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Most employers routinely consider the first several weeks to _____ days as provisional employment,during which either party may terminate the relationship without notice.
A)30
B)60
C)90
D)180
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