Dental Pharmacology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Dental Pharmacology explores the principles of pharmacology with a focus on drugs commonly used in dental practice. The course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, contraindications, and interactions of medications such as local anesthetics, antibiotics, analgesics, sedatives, and agents used in the management of dental and oral diseases. Students will learn how to assess patient medication histories, understand the impact of systemic drugs on oral health, and make informed decisions regarding patient care and safe dental prescribing.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Haveles
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
27 Chapters
1027 Verified Questions
1027 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/957
Page 2
Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18815
Sample Questions
Q1) Phase 1 clinical trials involve all of the following except which one?
A) Safe dose range
B) Toxic effects of the drug
C) Metabolism
D) Effectiveness
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is determined during a phase 3 clinical evaluation of a new drug?
A) Effectiveness
B) Safety and efficacy
C) Dosage
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Answer: E
Q3) A drug's generic name is selected by the:
A) pharmaceutical company manufacturing it.
B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C) U.S. Adopted Name Council.
D) Federal Patent Office.
Answer: C
Page 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18816
Sample Questions
Q1) If redistribution occurs between specific sites and nonspecific sites, a drug's action will be:
A) prolonged.
B) extended.
C) decreased.
D) terminated.
Answer: D
Q2) Drugs, after undergoing phase I drug metabolism, are more likely to be distributed to fat tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding the therapeutic index (TI)of a drug?
A) A drug with a large TI is more dangerous than a drug with a small TI.
B) The formula for TI is ED /LD .
C) ED is 50% of the effective clinical dose.
D) TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18817
Sample Questions
Q1) An agent for which data are insufficient in animals or women to ensure safety during pregnancy would be classified in which U.S. Food and Drug Administration category for teratogenic drugs?
A) X
B) A
C) C
D) B
Answer: C
Q2) An acute, life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: A
Q3) The greater the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18818
Sample Questions
Q1) The parasympathetic fibers originate in the nuclei of the _____ segments of the spinal cord.
A) sacral and lumbar
B) cranial nerves and sacral
C) cranial nerves and lumbar
D) thoracic and lumbar
E) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Tertiary anticholinergic agents are _____ soluble and _____ penetrate the brain.
A) lipid soluble; easily
B) lipid soluble; do not
C) not lipid soluble; easily
D) not lipid soluble; do not
Q3) Which of the following agents is used in the treatment of an overdose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?
A) Malathion
B) Epinephrine
C) Pralidoxime
D) Physostigmine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Nonopioid (Nonnarcotic)Analgesics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18819
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best to use in pediatric patients for both its analgesic and antipyretic action?
A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen
C) NSAIDs
D) Codeine
Q2) Adverse cardiovascular effects are thought to be least likely to occur with the use of which of the following nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A) Celecoxib (Celebrex)
B) Naproxen (Naprosyn)
C) Diclofenac (Voltaren)
D) Ketoprofen (Orudis)
Q3) Synonyms for nonopioid analgesics include:
A) narcotic.
B) central.
C) antipyretic.
D) strong.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Opioid (Narcotic)Analgesics and Antagonists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18820
Sample Questions
Q1) How does adding naloxone to pentazocine reduce the addiction potential of orally administered pentazocine?
A) Naloxone is an opioid agonist that is effective orally but not parenterally.
B) Naloxone is an opioid agonist that is effective parenterally but not orally.
C) Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is effective orally but not parenterally.
D) Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is effective parenterally but not orally.
E) Naloxone is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory.
Q2) Which one of the following conditions can be managed or treated with opioids?
A) Diarrhea
B) Depression
C) Infections
D) Hypertension
Q3) Which of the following products is the most commonly used opioid in dentistry?
A) Hydrocodone (Vicodin)
B) Morphine
C) Codeine
D) Oxymorphone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18821
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common adverse reaction to administration of metronidazole?
A) Central nervous system effects
B) Gastrointestinal effects
C) Renal toxicity
D) Oral effects
Q2) Tetracyclines should not be used in children younger than _____ years of age.
A) 6
B) 9
C) 12
D) 15
Q3) Both the American Dental Association (ADA)and the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons (AAOS)continue to recommend that all patients receive antibiotic prophylaxis before certain dental procedures during the first _____ after total joint replacement.
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 7 years
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 9
Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18822
Sample Questions
Q1) HIV-2 is only transmitted:
A) from a woman to her child while the child is in the womb.
B) via sexual intercourse.
C) by intravenous substance abuse.
D) by sharing of bodily fluids.
Q2) Most antiviral agents are protein synthesis inhibitors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Viruses are difficult to treat because they cooperate with the host's cells.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
Q4) The most serious adverse reaction associated with ketoconazole is:
A) tachycardia.
B) hepatotoxicity.
C) hypotension.
D) achlorhydria.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18823
Sample Questions
Q1) Procaine (Novocaine)is metabolized primarily by the:
A) liver.
B) lungs.
C) plasma.
D) kidneys.
Q2) Approximately _____% of articaine is metabolized by the liver.
A) 5 to 10
B) 20 to 25
C) 50 to 75
D) 90
Q3) For lengthy dental procedures, bupivacaine is recommended over lidocaine because bupivacaine has a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following local anesthetics may be combined for injection-free local anesthesia?
A) Articaine and bupivacaine
B) Lidocaine and prilocaine
C) Benzocaine and tetracaine
D) Lidocaine and articaine
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18824
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true about volatile general anesthetics? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are liquids that evaporate easily at room temperature.
B) They are classified as halogenated hydrocarbons and ethers.
C) They are known to have good solubility in body tissues.
D) They are administered intravenously (IV).
Q2) To prevent diffusion hypoxia, patients should be given 100% oxygen for 5 minutes after treatment with nitrous oxide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nitrous oxide combined with oxygen (N O/O )has become a primary part of dental office _____ procedures.
A) anxiety reduction
B) general anesthesia
C) sleep apnea
D) bruxism
Q4) Nitrous oxide has amnestic qualities.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18825
Sample Questions
Q1) The use of barbiturates is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a positive family history of:
A) high blood pressure.
B) diabetes.
C) porphyria.
D) adrenal insufficiency.
Q2) Which of the following sleep stages is enhanced with the use of benzodiazepines?
A) Latency period
B) Rapid eye movement (REM)sleep
C) Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep stages 3 and 4
D) Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep stage 2
Q3) Which of the following agents may decrease the effectiveness of benzodiazepines?
A) Tobacco
B) Omeprazole
C) Valproic acid
D) Fluoxetine
Q4) Barbiturates can cause fetal harm if administered to a pregnant woman.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18826
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with an oral ulcer that begins at an interdental papillae. The condition most likely is:
A) herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).
C) aphthous stomatitis.
D) pericoronitis.
Q2) Approximately _____% of the adult population has been exposed to herpes simplex virus (HSV).
A) 10
B) 20 to 30
C) 50 to 60
D) 80 to 90
Q3) Most cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)are associated with:
A) infection.
B) cancer therapy.
C) bisphosphonate therapy.
D) use of steroids.
Q4) A decrease in vertical dimension is thought to contribute to angular cheilitis.
A)True
B)False
14
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18827
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of NaF varnish as a professionally applied topical agent?
A) The varnish requires prior oral prophylaxis.
B) The varnish stays on the enamel longer than topical fluoride.
C) The varnish can be applied if saliva is present.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q2) The patient should not eat for _____ after the application of NaF varnish and should not brush his teeth for _____.
A) 30 minutes; 30 minutes
B) 30 minutes; 60 minutes
C) 1 hour; 2 hours
D) 2 hours; 1 day
E) 2 hours; 2 days
Q3) Which of the following choices is the most common cause of intrinsic acid production?
A) Medication
B) Gastric reflux
C) Wine
D) Ciders
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18828
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding digitalis glycosides (digoxin, Lanoxin, Digitek)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Can reduce pulmonary edema
B) Increases contractility of the heart
C) Have a narrow therapeutic index
D) Is considered a first-line therapy for the treatment of heart failure (HF)
E) Causes diuresis due to a direct effect on the kidneys.
Q2) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)are a treatment of choice for congestive heart failure (CHF).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication to dental treatment until a consultation with the patient's provider has determined any special treatment alterations that might be warranted?
A) Recent myocardial infarct within the preceding 3 months
B) Diabetes
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Gout
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18829
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adverse reactions is common to all of the currently marketed H -blocking agents?
A) Abnormal liver function tests
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Slurred speech
D) Gynecomastia
Q2) All of the following are actions of metoclopramide except which one?
A) Decreases peristalsis by acting directly on smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract
B) Blocks the action of dopamine
C) Accelerates gastric emptying time
D) Increases the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter
Q3) A patient with GERD may not be able to sit in a supine position in the dental chair.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18830
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antiepileptic agent is commonly prescribed for trigeminal neuralgia?
A) Lamotrigine
B) Phenytoin
C) Gabapentin
D) Carbamazepine
E) Valproic acid
Q2) Clonazepam (Klonopin)is:
A) a chemical analogue carbamazepine.
B) used parenterally to treat status epilepticus.
C) used as an adjunct to treat ethosuximide-resistant absence seizures.
D) not effective in akinetic seizures.
E) an inhibitor of sodium channels.
Q3) The better the patient's oral hygiene is, the less likely that lesions associated with use of phenytoin will occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vitamin C is an effective adjunctive therapy for gingival enlargement.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18831
Sample Questions
Q1) First-generation antipsychotics are primarily _____ antagonists.
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine)
Q2) Epinephrine should not be used to treat vasomotor collapse in patients taking first-generation antipsychotics because the first-generation antipsychotics are:
A) -adrenergic stimulators.
B) -adrenergic blockers.
C) -adrenergic stimulators.
D) -adrenergic blockers.
Q3) Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by:
A) increased compulsive motor activity.
B) resting tremor and rigidity.
C) akinesia.
D) involuntary, repetitive body movements involving the tongue, lips, face, and jaw.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: Adrenocorticosteroids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18832
Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenocorticosteroids are released from the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) adrenal cortex.
C) pituitary gland.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) kidney.
Q2) Patients taking corticosteroids may have mucosal surfaces that are more _____ than other patients.
A) calloused
B) friable
C) keratinized
D) stippled
Q3) Without stress, the normal adult secretes approximately _____ of hydrocortisone daily.
A) 20 mg
B) 40 mg
C) 5 mg
D) 40 mg.
E) 10 mg
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18833
Sample Questions
Q1) Nonchlorinated hydrofluoroalkane (HFA)propellants do not deplete the ozone layer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The drug of first choice for emphysema is:
A) albuterol.
B) zileuton.
C) theophylline.
D) beclomethasone.
E) ipratropium.
Q3) Which one of the following recommendations would you not make to your patients with asthma?
A) Bring your inhaler (albuterol)to the dental appointment.
B) Rinse after using your corticosteroid inhaler.
C) Avoid erythromycin.
D) Avoid aspirin.
E) Avoid acetaminophen.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Drugs for the Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18834
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of drugs is known to increase intraocular pressure if inadvertently placed in the eye?
A) Mast cell stabilizer
B) Antihistamine
C) Intranasal anticholinergic
D) Leukotriene modifier
Q2) The H -receptor antagonists have varying cholinergic effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Montelukast (Singulair)is a(n):
A) intranasal corticosteroid.
B) leukotriene modifier.
C) intranasal anticholinergic drug.
D) mast cell stabilizer.
E) oral decongestant.
Q4) Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer?
A) Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
B) Montelukast (Singulair)
C) Cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom)
D) Azelastine (Astelin)
Page 22
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18835
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning oral surgical procedures for the adult patient with diabetes?
A) The procedure should be performed before breakfast, and the patient should have taken regular diabetes medication.
B) The procedures should be performed 1 1/2 to 2 hours after the patient has eaten a normal breakfast and has taken regular antidiabetes medication.
C) The procedure should be performed after lunch, and the patient has taken regular diabetes medication.
D) The procedure should be performed after lunch, and the patient should skip regular diabetes medication.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of metformin?
A) It is a member of the a-glucosidase inhibitor group of antidiabetic agents.
B) It lowers blood glucose but, used alone, does not produce hypoglycemia.
C) It decreases hepatic and peripheral insulin sensitivity, resulting in increased hepatic glucose production.
D) Lactic acidosis is a common, but benign side effect.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18836
Sample Questions
Q1) Estrogens are used to treat menstrual disturbances such as uterine bleeding. Estrogen is also used to reduce the symptoms of menopause.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following statements is characteristic of diffuse toxic goiter?
A) It is also known as Plummer disease.
B) It is characterized by a diffusely enlarged, highly vascular thyroid gland.
C) It occurs primarily in older patients and usually arises from long-standing nontoxic goiter.
D) Both a and b are characteristics.
E) Both b and c are characteristics.
Q3) Which of the following medications is indicated for the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women?
A) Clomiphene
B) Leuprolide
C) Tamoxifen
D) Danazol
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Antineoplastic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18837
Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonate related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ)is most likely to occur after which of the following dental procedures?
A) Crown preparation
B) Endodontic treatment
C) Tooth extraction
D) Prophylaxis
Q2) An example of a cell-cycle nonspecific antineoplastic agent is:
A) bleomycin.
B) cisplatin.
C) methotrexate.
D) vincristine.
Q3) The appointment should be scheduled _____ chemotherapy when providing oral care for patients on antineoplastic agents.
A) just before starting
B) after the first few days of C) during the course of D) only after
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Emergency Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18838
Sample Questions
Q1) Convulsions are generally self-limiting, and treatment should include protecting the patient from self-harm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a method of preventing an emergency in the dental office?
A) Taking a complete patient history
B) Training of personnel
C) Posting the telephone numbers for the closest physician, emergency room, and ambulance service
D) Having a well-stocked and up-to-date emergency kit
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning treatment for a patient who is hyperventilating?
A) Opioid analgesics or diazepam will resolve the situation.
B) The treatment is calm reassurance.
C) Steroids and aminophylline may be administered.
D) Parenteral epinephrine is the drug of choice.
Q4) Drugs are not necessary for the proper management of most emergencies.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18839
Sample Questions
Q1) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pregnant dental patient is most comfortable during which trimester?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the effect of opioids such as codeine on an infant after administration to the mother?
A) Opioids appear in breast milk when analgesic doses are administered.
B) If the mother is addicted, the infant will experience withdrawal symptoms after birth.
C) The infant should be observed for signs of euphoria.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q4) Aspirin is generally considered to be the best analgesic to administer during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Drug Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18840
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of marijuana use except which one?
A) A common adverse reaction is a panic attack.
B) The agent can cause xerostomia.
C) Physical dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms are common.
D) Marijuana is effective as an antiemetic.
Q2) Which drug is associated with a deficiency of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X after chronic abuse?
A) Ethyl alcohol
B) Nicotine
C) Cocaine
D) Nitrous oxide
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of alcoholism?
A) A genetic link for alcoholism exists.
B) Inpatient detoxification is required for most alcoholics.
C) Penicillin is known to produce a disulfiram-like reaction.
D) A patient will vomit if he or she takes naltrexone while consuming alcohol.
Q4) During drug withdrawal, symptoms appear that are opposite of the symptoms of drug use.
A)True
B)False
Page 28
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Natural/Herbal Products and Dietary Supplements
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/18841
Sample Questions
Q1) Garlic, ginkgo biloba, and feverfew can _____ when taken in conjunction with antiplatelet drugs or anticoagulants.
A) cause tachycardia
B) increase the risk of bleeding
C) cause postural hypotension
D) cause hypertension
Q2) Triclosan has not been shown to significantly reduce plaque and gingivitis when compared with placebo dentifrice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acemannan is available as an over-the-counter (OTC)topical patch to reduce the healing time of:
A) aphthous ulcers.
B) oral herpes lesions.
C) bullous lesions.
D) oral abrasions.
Q4) The FDA inspects all manufacturing facilities of herbal products for compliance.
A)True
B)False
29
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.