Dental Pharmacology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Dental Pharmacology is the study of drugs and their application in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of oral diseases. This course covers the principles of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, with an emphasis on medications commonly used in dental practice, including local anesthetics, antibiotics, analgesics, and agents for managing anxiety and infections. By understanding drug interactions, adverse effects, and contraindications specific to dental care, students gain the knowledge required to safely and effectively prescribe and manage pharmacological therapies, ensuring optimal patient outcomes in various clinical scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Haveles
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1027 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutritional or herbal supplements:
A) carry the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval for disease states.
B) are not drugs.
C) can cause adverse effects.
D) will not interact with other drugs the patient may be taking.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is determined during a phase 3 clinical evaluation of a new drug?
A) Effectiveness
B) Safety and efficacy
C) Dosage
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Answer: E
Q3) The body of a prescription includes directions to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices is the process by which a substance is transported against a concentration gradient?
A) Passive transfer
B) Active transport
C) Facilitated diffusion
D) Filtration
Answer: B
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist:
A) binds to the same receptor site as the binding site for the agonist.
B) causes a shift to the right in the dose-response curve.
C) enhances the maximal response of the agonist.
D) reduces the maximal response of the agonist.
Answer: D
Q3) What type of administration involves the injection of solutions into the spinal subarachnoid space?
A) Intrathecal route
B) Intraperitoneal route
C) Intravenous route
D) Intradermal route
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hypersensitivity reaction causes antibody-antigen (immune complex)deposition?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: C
Q2) Drug allergy and a side effect are two examples of dose-related responses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What should the dental hygienist do first if a patient reports a suspected adverse drug effect?
A) Administer epinephrine.
B) Determine what drugs the patient is taking.
C) Have that patient drink a sugary liquid such as apple juice.
D) Call 9-1-1.
E) Drive the patient to the nearest hospital emergency room.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following categories of autonomic nervous system (ANS)agents can cause an acute rise in intraocular blood pressure in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma?
A) Cholinergic
B) Anticholinergic
C) Adrenergic
D) Antiadrenergic
Q2) The primary objective of cholinergic drug therapy in the treatment of glaucoma is:
A) increasing the convexity of the lens.
B) dilating the vessels of the eye.
C) dilating the pupil.
D) reducing intraocular pressure.
E) inhibiting cholinesterase.
Q3) Indications for the use of anticholinergic agents include:
A) stimulation of salivary secretion for xerostomic patients
B) treatment of gastrointestinal disorders associated with decreased motility
C) treatment in combination with levodopa for patients with Parkinson disease
D) use as an antipsychotic
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid (Nonnarcotic)Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain relief by nonopioid analgesics is mediated via action:
A) at the central nervous system (CNS).
B) at the peripheral nervous system.
C) both centrally and peripherally.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Probenecid and allopurinol both inhibit the synthesis of uric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the usual adult dosage of aspirin for the treatment of pain or fever?
A) 250 mg every 4 hours
B) 3 to 6 g per day
C) 650 mg every 4 hours
D) 800 mg every 4 hours
E) 160 mg per day
Q4) The action of nonopioid analgesics is related to their ability to inhibit:
A) the CNS.
B) prostaglandin synthesis.
C) release of epinephrine.
D) release of acetylcholine.
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Chapter 6: Opioid (Narcotic)Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the major symptom of opioid overdose?
A) Miosis
B) Mydriasis
C) Urticaria
D) Respiratory depression
Q2) Which of the following agents is the only mixed opioid available for oral use?
A) Dezocine
B) Nalbuphine
C) Pentazocine
D) Butorphanol
Q3) The following statements are false of tramadol except which one?
A) It binds to mu opioid receptors.
B) It inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) It modifies ascending pain pathways.
D) It causes mydriasis.
E) Its analgesic efficacy is equivalent to that of codeine.
Q4) A patient who feels nauseated after taking codeine is allergic to it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true of a stage 3 infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Most patients will require the use of antibiotics.
B) The infection contains both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms.
C) Clindamycin and metronidazole are useful antibiotics.
D) The organisms have coalesced into one area.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning a culture and sensitivity test?
A) An antibiotic disk with a zone around it shows sensitivity.
B) An antibiotic disk with no zone around it shows sensitivity.
C) Antibiotic therapy should not be initiated until the results of the test are available.
D) One to two weeks are required before the results of this test are available.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the cephalosporins?
A) They are active against gram-positive but not gram-negative organisms.
B) Those available for oral use are susceptible to penicillinase.
C) They are bacteriostatic.
D) Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
Q4) Metronidazole has antiinflammatory activity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are difficult to treat because they cooperate with the host's cells.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
Q2) Nystatin is used for both the treatment and the prevention of _____ in susceptible cases.
A) blastomycosis
B) histoplasmosis
C) oral candidiasis
D) tinea
Q3) Which of the following agents is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat HIV infection?
A) Saquinavir
B) Nevirapine
C) Zidovudine
D) Raltegravir
Q4) All currently available interferons are parenteral.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristics of the ideal local anesthetic except:
A) sterilization by autoclave.
B) slow onset.
C) reversible.
D) absence of local reactions.
Q2) Plain anesthetics without vasoconstrictor will exhibit a _____ duration of action and result in a _____ rapid buildup of a systemic blood level.
A) shorter; less
B) shorter; more
C) longer; less
D) longer; more
Q3) Local anesthetics cross:
A) the placenta and blood-brain barrier.
B) the placenta but not the blood-brain barrier.
C) the blood-brain barrier but not the placenta.
D) neither the placenta nor the blood-brain barrier.
Q4) Use of skin testing to determine local anesthetic allergies is not reliable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loss of respiratory control (i.e., diminished carbon dioxide response, paralysis of intercostal muscles)first occurs during which of Guedel's stages of anesthesia?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) Which of the following types of agents is used during balanced general anesthesia to help the patient pass from stage I to stage III and skip over the signs of stage II?
A) Ketamine
B) Propofol
C) Ultrashort-acting IV barbiturate
D) Opioids
Q3) Recovery from a single intravenous dose of thiopental (sodium pentothal)is the result of:
A) drug excretion.
B) drug redistribution.
C) drug metabolism.
D) enzyme induction.
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Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety control is only necessary for the first third of a dental appointment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are rationales for the use of analgesic-sedative combinations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relief of both anxiety and pain is often required in one patient.
B) Sedatives interfere with analgesic agents.
C) Sedatives may induce excitation when given without an analgesic to patients with uncontrolled pain.
D) Anxiety can raise the pain threshold.
Q3) Which of the following agents used for dental anxiety has a fast onset and short half-life?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Lorazepam
D) Alprazolam
Q4) Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in wide-angle glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common drug implicated in lichenoid-like eruptions is hydrochlorothiazide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Acyclovir should not be used prophylactically to prevent minor outbreaks of herpes because excessive use may lead to resistant strains of herpes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient presents with an oral ulcer that begins at an interdental papillae. The condition most likely is:
A) herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).
C) aphthous stomatitis.
D) pericoronitis.
Q4) The majority of cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)are associated with patients taking corticosteroids.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of professionally applied NaF varnish?
A) NaF varnish is available in Europe but is not currently available in the United States as a dentin-desensitizing agent and as a cavity liner.
B) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)has approved the varnish for its anticaries effect.
C) The use of fluoride varnish for caries prevention has been endorsed by the ADA.
D) NaF varnish is available as a 5% solution.
Q2) What percentage of adult Americans have untreated tooth decay?
A) 3%
B) 13%
C) 23%
D) 33%
Q3) Proteins in dairy products raise pH levels and can inhibit bacterial growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tooth bleaching can increase the risk for sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitroglycerine (NTG)is used for what cardiovascular disease?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Arrhythmias
D) Angina pectoris
Q2) -Methyldopa and clonidine act in the central nervous system (CNS)as a-adrenergic antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood returning from the pulmonary circulation enters the left atrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which has the shortest circulating half-life?
A) Factor II
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
E) Factor X
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many drugs have a potential to be abused. Certain gastrointestinal drugs such as emetics _____ and have been abused by patients with _____.
A) antiemetics; low blood sugar
B) laxatives; bulimia
C) nitroglycerin; familial hypercholesterolemia
D) antispasmodics; diabetes
Q2) Sucralfate can be thought of as a "bandage" for ulcers because it inhibits the action of pepsin and absorbs the bile salts.
A) Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct, but not related.
C) Both parts of the statement are correct, but the reason is not.
D) Both parts of the statement are not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of the following gastrointestinal drugs is used to treat nausea?
A) Mineral oil
B) Loperamide
C) Lansoprazole
D) Prochlorperazine
E) Ranitidine
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is noted for having cross-sensitivity with carbamazepine in 20% to 30% of patients.
A) Lamotrigine
B) Valproate
C) Levetiracetam
D) Oxcarbazepine
Q2) Surgical intervention to reduce phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement should wait until at least 18 months after cessation of therapy because:
A) the drug remains in circulation for at least 2 years.
B) some patients experience additional reduction in the enlargement after the 1-year period.
C) excessive sclerosis will result from earlier intervention.
D) treating the situation earlier than that will lead to excessive hemorrhage.
Q3) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is associated with maternal ingestion of:
A) carbamazepine.
B) phenobarbital.
C) phenytoin.
D) gabapentin.
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are adverse reactions associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Central nervous system (CNS)depression
B) Nausea and diarrhea in approximately 15% to 30% of patients
C) Xerostomia in 10% to 15% of the population
D) Both a and b
E) Both b and c
Q2) Which antidepressant is least likely to cause xerostomia?
A) Bupropion
B) Sertraline
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Amitriptyline
E) Trazodone
Q3) Dental local anesthetic with vasoconstricting agents must be limited to the cardiac dose for patients taking:
A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
B) serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs).
C) tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).
D) trazodone (Desyrel).
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative feedback involves the action of adrenocorticosteroids on the:
A) adrenal cortex.
B) pituitary gland.
C) hypothalamus.
D) Both a and c are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
Q2) Most dental patients taking steroids who are having normal dental treatment rendered do not need additional corticosteroids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Evaluation of the need for corticosteroid supplementation before a dental procedure is based primarily on the procedure being performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are signs of Cushing syndrome except for which one?
A) Moon face
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Muscle wasting
D) Fat deposit on back of neck
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drive for ventilation is stimulated by a(n)_____ in the partial pressure of _____ in the normal person.
A) depression; carbon dioxide (PaCO )
B) elevation; carbon dioxide (PaCO )
C) depression; oxygen (PaO )
D) elevation; oxygen (PaO )
Q2) Patients with asthma should bring their fast-acting _____ inhaler to be used prophylactically or in the management of an acute asthmatic attack in the dental office.
A) -agonist
B) -agonist
C) -antagonist
D) -agonist
E) -antagonist
Q3) Asthma may be precipitated by (1)allergens, (2)exercise, (3)stress.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
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Chapter 20: Drugs for the Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom)?
A) Inhibits mast cell degranulation
B) Blocks acetylcholine receptors
C) Stimulates alpha1 adrenergic receptors
D) Stimulates cholinergic receptors
Q2) Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in patients with glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The H -receptor antagonists have varying cholinergic effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why should intranasal decongestants only be used for 3 to 5 days?
A) They produce systemic toxicity.
B) They can cause rebound congestion.
C) They will start to cause systemic autocoid effects.
D) They will produce xerostomia.
Q5) Allergic rhinitis is primarily associated with immunoglobulin A.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemoglobin A1C level should be more than 50% to reduce the incidence and progression of microvascular complications in patients with diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding systemic complications of diabetes?
A) Hypolipidemia is common in patients with diabetes.
B) Neuropathy is a complication of diabetes.
C) Gangrene can occur in peripheral extremities.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q3) Diabetes is the major cause of blindness in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adverse reactions to metformin occur primarily in the:
A) pancreas.
B) GI tract.
C) oral cavity.
D) cardiovascular system.
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Chapter 22: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones are involved in the female menstrual cycle: (1)thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), (2)adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), (3)follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), (4)luteinizing hormone (LH)?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3
E) 3, 4
Q2) Synthetic analogs of vasopressin are used to: (1)treat pituitary diabetes insipidus, (2)treat hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease, (3)induce labor and postpartum lactation, (4)control postpartum hemorrhage.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2
E) 3, 4
Q3) Estrogen therapy may promote endometrial carcinoma in postmenopausal women. A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Antimetabolites such as methotrexate attack the cells at the S phase of the cell cycle because they interfere with purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of statement is false; the second part is true.
Q2) Allopurinol, used to prevent hyperuricemia, can prolong the action and increase the toxicity of all of the following except which one?
A) 5-Fluorouracil
B) Azathioprine
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Mercaptopurine
Q3) Which of the following is a treatment option to alleviate symptoms of mucositis?
A) Injection of corticosteroids
B) Oral rinse of 2% viscous lidocaine
C) A 1-week course of oral antibiotics
D) Use of a chlorhexidine rinse
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Chapter 24: Emergency Drugs
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Q1) The most common cause of hypoglycemia is:
A) stress or anxiety.
B) insufficient hydration with water.
C) an excessive dose of insulin in a patient with diabetes.
D) cardiac medication.
Q2) Convulsions are generally self-limiting, and treatment should include protecting the patient from self-harm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tepid baths and aspirin are indicated for:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) thyroid storm.
C) acute adrenocortical insufficiency.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q4) Treatment for syncope is to place patients:
A) prone on their stomach with their head tilted to one side.
B) supine with their head tilted to one side.
C) seated with their head tilted back.
D) seated with their head tilted forward.
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) In managing the pregnant patient, avoiding elective dental treatment is best until the third trimester.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Epinephrine is an FDA category _____ drug.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) X
Q3) Erythromycin is concentrated in breast milk. A nursing mother should be given erythromycin only if the breast milk is expressed and discarded during treatment and 48 hours after the last dose.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy. A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Drug Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations.
Q2) Which drug syndrome produces symptoms resembling pernicious anemia?
A) Chronic alcoholism
B) Chronic nitrous oxide use
C) Opioid withdrawal
D) Chronic tobacco use
Q3) Which of the following drugs may be used to reduce alcohol craving?
A) Metronidazole
B) Naltrexone
C) Chlordiazepoxide
D) Vitamin K
Q4) Advanced periodontal disease, jaundice, and palmar erythema are signs of:
A) smokeless tobacco use.
B) Wernicke encephalopathy.
C) advanced alcoholic liver disease.
D) chronic nitrous oxide use.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Natural/Herbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Triclosan has not been shown to significantly reduce plaque and gingivitis when compared with placebo dentifrice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The FDA has investigated over _____ reports of adverse reactions with over 100 different ephedra alkaloid-containing products since 1994.
A) 200
B) 400
C) 600
D) 800
Q3) Which of the following reasons are why people are turning to health supplements: (1)cultural influences, (2)a sense of taking control of one's health, (3)distrust of physicians, (4)lack of health insurance?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2
E) 3, 4
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