Dental Pathology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Dental Pathology is the study of diseases and disorders affecting the oral cavity, teeth, and supporting structures. This course explores the etiology, progression, and clinical manifestations of dental conditions such as caries, periodontal diseases, oral mucosal lesions, and developmental anomalies. Students will learn to identify pathological changes at both macroscopic and microscopic levels and understand their implications for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment planning. Emphasis is placed on the integration of basic science knowledge with clinical application, enabling students to recognize and manage pathological conditions in dental practice.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) Continuous expression of the gene for atrial natriuretic factor in the myocardial cells of the left ventricle is typically a consequence of
A) myocardial infarction
B) angina pectoris
C) hypertension
D) hypotension
E) ventricular fibrillation
Answer: C
Q2) Uptake of bacteria into the cytoplasm of neutrophilic leukocytes is called
A) Autophagocytosis
B) heterophagocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
E) involution
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which growth factor is the most potent promotor of angiogenesis in the granulation tissue?
A) Angiotensin
B) Platelet-derived growth factor
C) Tumor growth factor ß
D) Vascular endothelial growth factor
E) Epidermal growth factor
Answer: D
Q2) Bradykinin is produced from a high-molecular weight kininogen circulating in the blood. This reaction is mediated by A) coagulation factor X
B) kallikrein
C) Hageman factor
D) complement C3
E) protein C
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old woman had a mastectomy for advanced cancer in her left breast, followed by chemotherapy and radiation therapy. She developed edema of the left arm. This edema is caused by
A) obstruction of the lymph flow
B) arterial thrombosis
C) venous thrombosis
D) spread of cancer into the soft tissue of the arm
E) hypoalbuminemia secondary to liver injury caused by hepatic metastases
Answer: A
Q2) A 30-year-old woman fractured her leg, and a few days later developed a diffuse petechial rash in the nondependent areas of the body. She was short of breath and had minor neurologic symptoms. Laboratory studies showed thrombocytopenia. These findings are most consistent with
A) air embolism
B) bone marrow embolism
C) fat embolism
D) talc embolism
E) cholesterol crystal embolism
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to T-helper lymphocytes, which other cells serve as a major reservoir for the human immunodeficiency virus in lymph nodes?
A) B lymphocytes
B) Pre-B and pre-T lymphocytes
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D) Follicular dendritic cells
E) Plasma cells
Q2) Mutation of the gene encoding the enzyme that is essential for the maturation of pre-B cells to mature B lymphocytes is the cause of
A) common variable immunodeficiency
B) isolated IgA deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) severe combined immunodeficiency
E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homogeneous staining regions (HSR) of chromosome 2p, the site of the N-mycgene, are adverse prognostic signs if found in neuroblastoma cells. HRS are evidence of gene
A) deletion
B) amplification
C) point mutation
D) translocation
E) inversion
Q2) Clubbing of the digits, periosteal new bone formation on the metatarsals, metacarpals, and proximal phalanges, and arthritis of adjacent joints is a paraneoplastic syndrome most often associated with carcinoma of the A) thyroid
B) larynx
C) bronchi
D) liver
E) stomach
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is caused by prolonged exposure of premature infants to oxygen at a high concentration?
A) Retrolental fibroplasia
B) Coloboma
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Blepharitis
E) Keratomalacia
Q2) An infertile woman was examined cytogenetically and was found to have deletions of portions of the long arm and short arm of the chromosome X, resulting in a ring chromosome, 46,X,r(X). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Gonadal dysgenesis
B) Hermaphroditism
C) Male pseudohermaphroditism
D) Female pseudohermaphroditism
E) Turner syndrome
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8
Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common preventable form of mental retardation in the United States?
A) Fetal rubella infection
B) Fetal toxoplasmosis
C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
D) Fetal cytomegalovirus infection
E) Fetal herpesvirus infection
Q2) Lead absorbed from the environment during infancy and childhood is predominantly deposited in which internal organ or organ system?
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Bones
E) Skeletal muscles
Q3) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in chronic alcoholics is caused by a deficiency of
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnosis of malaria is best made by examining a
A) biopsy specimen of the liver
B) biopsy specimen of the spleen
C) bone marrow biopsy
D) blood smear
E) serum sample for antibodies to plasmodia
Q2) Lepromatous leprosy represents a form of disease that develops due to
A) accelerated T-helper lymphocyte response
B) accelerated cytotoxic T-cell response
C) inadequate B-cell response
D) hyperimmunity
E) immunologic anergy
Q3) A 60-year-old man known to have diabetes mellitus was admitted to the hospital in ketoacidosis. He had a massive, invasive infection of the nasal sinuses. Biopsy disclosed fungal infection, which was most likely caused by
A) Candida albicans
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Mucor
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Pneumocystis carinii
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin
B) elevation of angiotensin in blood
C) potassium retention in the kidneys
D) reduced sodium excretion in urine
E) increased diuresis
Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the
A) fossa ovalis
B) sinus venosus
C) septum primum
D) coronary sinus
E) supravalvular endocardium
Q2) Sudden death within the first hours after the onset of a myocardial infarction is most often caused by
A) ventricular fibrillation
B) rupture of the ventricle
C) rupture of the papillary muscles
D) rupture of the interventricular septum
E) pulmonary embolism
Q3) The most common genetic mutation found in congenital hypertrophic cardiomyopathy involves the gene encoding
A) troponin T
B) troponin I
C) -tropomyosin
D) myosin-binding protein C
E) ß-myosin heavy chain
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transformation of chronic lymphocytic leukemia or small cell lymphocytic lymphoma into a large B-cell lymphoma is called
A) Burkitt lymphoma
B) Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
C) Richter syndrome
D) myelodysplastic syndrome
E) mycosis fungoides
Q2) Which of the following bleeding tests is abnormal in patients with von Willebrand disease?
A) Prolonged bleeding time
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Prolonged prothrombin time
D) Shortened partial thromboplastin time
E) Increased levels of factor VIII in plasma
Q3) Which test is abnormal in hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding
B) Platelet count
C) Prothrombin time
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Clot retraction
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Chapter 12: Lung
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old man was found to have atypical pneumonia that was accompanied by elevation of cold agglutinin in the serum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this pneumonia?
A) Parainfluenza virus
B) Influenza virus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Coxiella burnetii
E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) In the bronchiectases of cystic fibrosis, bronchial plugging with mucus is often accompanied by infection with which of the following pathogens?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
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14
Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis caused by mixed cryoglobulinemia is most often secondary to which of the following diseases?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) Amyloidosis
E) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Q2) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Esophageal diverticulum located above the upper esophageal sphincter is called
A) congenital diverticulum
B) postinflammatory diverticulum
C) traction diverticulum
D) epiphrenic diverticulum
E) Zenker diverticulum
Q2) Primary tumors of the peritoneum are called
A) adenocarcinomatosis peritonei
B) pseudomyxoma peritonei
C) peritoneal sarcoma
D) mesothelioma
E) myxomatosis
Q3) Which cells in the intestines are the precursors of carcinoids?
A) Goblet cells
B) Enterocytes
C) Paneth cells
D) Neuroendocrine cells
E) Stromal cells
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16
Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peliosis hepatis is a form of primary hepatic sinusoidal dilatation and intrasinusoidal blood stagnation most often caused by
A) tetracycline
B) anabolic steroids
C) acetaminophen
D) methotrexate
E) Escherichia coli infection
Q2) A mutation of the gene encoding the hepatic enzyme bilirubin uridine diphosphate-glucuronyltransferase (UGT1A1) associated with congenital jaundice and a complete absence of UGT1A1 is called
A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I
B) Gilbert disease
C) Dubin-Johnson disease
D) Rotor syndrome
E) Galactosemia
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) A 65-year-old man complains of vague upper abdominal pain, weight loss, and loose fatty stools. Radiographs show visible calcifications within the pancreas. These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?
A) Ductal carcinoma of the pancreas
B) Acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas
C) Islet cell carcinoma
D) Chronic pancreatitis
E) Pancreatic pseudocyst
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18
Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seminomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following sites?
A) Internal iliac lymph nodes
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Mesenteric lymph nodes
D) Retroperitoneal para-aortic lymph nodes
E) Urinary bladder
Q2) A 22-year-old man sees his physician because of painful enlargement of the testis. On gross examination, the tumor measures 4 cm in diameter and is dark red. Histologically, it is composed of mononuclear cytotrophoblastic and multinucleated syncytiotrophoblastic cells surrounded by blood and necrotic tissue. Serologic studies would most likely show that the patient's blood contains elevated levels of which of the following hormones?
A) Alpha-fetoprotein
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Androstenedione
D) Estriol
E) Inhibin
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high level of expression of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN will most likely be found in which of the following?
A) Normal proliferative phase endometrium
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia
D) Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia
E) Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
Q2) Comedocarcinoma of the breast is a type of which of the following carcinomas?
A) Ductal carcinoma in situ
B) Medullary carcinoma
C) Invasive ductal carcinoma
D) Invasive lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q3) Which of the following nonneoplastic breast lesions is associated with the highest risk of mammary cancer?
A) Apocrine cysts
B) Sclerosing adenosis
C) Complex sclerosing lesion
D) Small duct papillomas
E) Atypical ductal hyperplasia
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
Q2) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is implicated in the pathogenesis of which complication of diabetes?
A) Cerebral infarcts
B) Intraretinal microangiopathy
C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
D) Gangrene of the foot
E) Peripheral neuropathy
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21
Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) of soft tissues has the same histologic features and the same chromosomal translocation as which of the following bone tumors?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing sarcoma
D) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
E) Giant cell tumor of bones
Q2) Which of the following muscle diseases is classified as an ion channel myopathy (channelopathy)?
A) Dysferlin deficiency
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Malignant hyperpyrexia
D) Central core disease
E) Myotubular myopathy
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22
Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q2) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q3) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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