Dental Office Management Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Dental Office Management focuses on the administrative and operational aspects of running a dental practice effectively. This course covers essential topics such as patient scheduling, record keeping, financial management, billing and insurance processing, dental software applications, and legal and ethical considerations in dental office settings. Students will learn principles of effective communication, leadership, and teamwork necessary for managing dental staff and ensuring a positive patient experience. Emphasis is placed on developing organizational skills, problem-solving strategies, and the ability to adapt to changes in dental technology and regulations, preparing graduates to contribute to the success and efficiency of modern dental practices.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by
Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ADA Journal published a report of infection control for dental offices in:
A)1900.
B)1978.
C)1982.
D)2000.
Answer: B
Q2) Before formal training in dental colleges,the profession of dentistry was learned through preceptorship.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association is responsible for:
A)writing dental curricula.
B)licensing dentists.
C)certifying dental school educators.
D)evaluating and accrediting dental education programs.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ADAA was formed in:
A)1915.
B)1906.
C)1924.
D)1958.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is not a role of a dental assistant?
A)Ensuring compliance with OSHA
B)Removing hard deposits from teeth
C)Exposing radiographs
D)Providing patient education
Answer: B
Q3) Benefits of membership in the ADAA include:
A)a subscription to the Journal of the American Dental Association.
B)the opportunity to attend meetings where continuing education credit may be earned.
C)certification as a CDA (certified dental assistant).
D)eligibility to take the DANB (Dental Assisting National Board) exam.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dental assistant who has received additional training and is legally allowed to provide certain intraoral patient care procedures is a(n):
A)certified dental assistant (CDA).
B)registered dental assistant (RDA).
C)expanded-functions dental assistant (EFDA).
D)licensed dental assistant (LDA).
Answer: C
Q2) Pediatric dentistry does not treat:
A)patients with special needs.
B)children.
C)seniors.
D)adolescents.
Answer: C
Q3) The specialty of dentistry that works very closely with oral surgeons is:
A)oral pathology.
B)orthodontics.
C)endodontics.
D)prosthodontics.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A behavior _____ be unethical and still be legal,but it _____ be illegal and still be ethical.
A)can; can
B)can; cannot
C)cannot; can
D)cannot; cannot
Q2) Beneficence,in dental practice,is defined as:
A)self-determination.
B)acting for the benefit of the patient.
C)rules or principles that govern proper conduct.
D)telling the truth.
Q3) Continuing education for dental assistants is:
A)a legal requirement in every state
B)established by the federal government
C)the ethical obligation of dental assistants
D)not necessary
Q4) A patient has the right to refuse treatment even if the treatment would benefit him or her.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient of record is a patient who has:
A)been examined by a licensed dentist.
B)been diagnosed by a licensed dentist.
C)had a treatment plan performed by a licensed dentist.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is not a classification of civil law?
A)Contract
B)Tort
C)Administrative
D)Infraction
Q3) In which of the following situations must a dentist disclose information about the treatment?
A)A patient asks not to be advised.
B)The patient has a choice of treatment options.
C)The information is so upsetting that the patient cannot be rational.
D)Treatment is minor and rarely results in risk.
Q4) A tort can only occur if intentional wrongdoing occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opposite of proximal is:
A)superior.
B)inferior.
C)distal.
D)frontal.
Q2) Which of the following types of connective tissue provides an energy source for the body when needed?
A)Adipose
B)Supportive
C)Dense fibrous
D)Vascular
Q3) The four levels of organization in the human body arranged from smallest to largest are:
A)cell, tissue, organ, and body system.
B)tissue, organ, cell, and body system.
C)cell, organ, tissue, and body system.
D)body system, organ, tissue, and cell.
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8
Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of muscles that make up the muscular system are:
A)striated, involuntary, and cardiac.
B)striated, smooth, and cardiac.
C)unstriated, involuntary, and visceral.
D)voluntary, involuntary, and smooth.
Q2) The temporal-mandibular joint that allows you to open and close your mouth is considered to be what type of joint?
A)Fibrous
B)Cartilaginous
C)Synovial
D)None of the above
Q3) The "skin" system is also known as the ____ system and is the body's first line of defense against disease.
A)cardiovascular
B)endocrine
C)integumentary
D)urinary
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9
Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of cementum is to:
A)provide sensory to the tooth.
B)anchor the tooth into the bony socket.
C)form the bulk of the tooth.
D)transmit pain stimuli.
Q2) Variations in the shades or coloring of enamel are caused by _____ the enamel.
A)differences in the thickness of B)translucency of
C)color of the dentin beneath D)all of the above
Q3) The last tooth buds to develop are for the _____ molars.
A)primary first
B)primary second
C)permanent second
D)permanent third
Q4) The stages of prenatal development are:
A)ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
B)growth, bud, and cap stages.
C)preimplantation, embryonic, and fetal periods.
D)conception, zygote, and embryo.
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The natural opening in bone through which blood vessels and nerves pass is the:
A)foramen.
B)fossa.
C)process.
D)tuberosity.
Q2) Which nerve is the primary source of innervation for the oral cavity?
A)Trigeminal
B)Nasopalatine
C)Anterior superior palatine
D)Buccal
Q3) The _____ bone(s) form(s) the prominence of the cheek.
A)maxillary
B)zygomatic
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
Q4) Which nerve innervates the maxillary central,lateral,and canine teeth?
A)Anterior superior alveolar
B)Inferior alveolar
C)Mylohyoid
D)Mental
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Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ frenum passes from the floor of the mouth to the midline of the ventral border of the tongue.
A)buccal
B)maxillary labial
C)mandibular labial
D)lingual
Q2) The fold of tissue at the corner of the eyelids is the: A)ala.
B)canthus.
C)glabella.
D)tragus.
Q3) The space between the gum and the tooth before the bone starts,where popcorn husks become lodged,is the:
A)interdental papilla.
B)gingival groove.
C)attached gingiva.
D)gingival sulcus.
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Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a dentist uses the ISO numbering system and charts #11,#12,#53,#54,and #18 teeth as being present in the patient's mouth,approximately what is the age of the patient?
A)5 to 6 years old
B)6 to 7 years old
C)8 to 9 years old
D)12 to 13 years old
Q2) _____ are the longest teeth in the human dentition and are used for cutting and tearing.
A)Incisors
B)Canines
C)Molars
D)Premolars
Q3) Which tooth-numbering system is used most often in the United States?
A)Palmer Notation System
B)Universal/National System
C)International Standards Organization System
D)Fédération Dentaire Internationale System
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premolars and molars are used for _____ food.
A)tearing
B)cutting
C)grinding
D)all of the above
Q2) The _____ premolar has two bifurcated roots.
A)mandibular first
B)maxillary first
C)maxillary second
D)mandibular second
Q3) There are ___ teeth in a quadrant of the primary dentition.
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)8
Q4) The root of the maxillary lateral incisor:
A)is the same width as the root of the maxillary central incisor.
B)may curve slightly to the distal.
C)is a bifurcated root.
D)is the same size as the root of the mandibular lateral incisor.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laser caries detectors work by passing a beam through the tooth surface.A clean,healthy tooth will have a baseline reading of near:
A)0.
B)10.
C)52.
D)100.
Q2) Destruction of the tooth structure is not:
A)caused by the bacterial acid released after eating a fermentable carbohydrate.
B)increased as fermentable carbohydrates are eaten more frequently.
C)repaired by cooked starch, such as bread, potatoes, rice, and pasta.
D)increased as the teeth are exposed to fermentable carbohydrates more frequently.
Q3) The _____ protection of saliva is dependent on substances within the saliva,such as immunoglobulin.
A)physical
B)chemical
C)antibacterial
D)buffering
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
A)bacterial plaque.
B)poorly fitting restorations.
C)stress.
D)none of the above.
Q2) _____ is not a risk factor for periodontal disease.
A)Smoking
B)Osteoporosis
C)Good oral hygiene
D)Stress
Q3) _____ is a soft mass of bacterial deposits that covers the tooth surface.
A)Calculus
B)Plaque
C)Scum
D)Subgingival calculus
Q4) People with periodontal disease have a greater risk for:
A)respiratory infections.
B)low-birth-weight babies.
C)heart attacks and stroke.
D)all of the above.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Things to consider when you are teaching a patient how to brush most effectively include:
A)The patient's age
B)The patient's dexterity
C)The patient's personal preferences
D)All of the above
Q2) The primary source of topical fluoride is:
A)fluoridated drinking water.
B)fluoride mouth rinses.
C)fluoridated toothpaste.
D)in-office fluoride treatments.
Q3) Automatic toothbrushes may be helpful for:
A)patients with physical disabilities.
B)motivating children.
C)timing brushing.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Dental floss should be used _____ brushing teeth.
A)before
B)after
C)a or b
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sources of ______ can help lower blood cholesterol.
A)water-soluble fiber
B)insoluble fiber
C)saturated fats
D)none of the above
Q2) Nutrition is the science of how the body uses food for development,growth,repair,and maintenance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following diets may increase blood cholesterol therefore increasing the risk of heart disease?
A)Consisting of red meat, eggs, and whole milk
B)Consisting of lean meat and fish
C)Including many fruits and vegetables
D)Foods high in vitamins A and E
Q4) Anemia can be caused by a deficiency of:
A)iron.
B)vitamin B12.
C)folacin.
D)any of the above.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fluid or a semisolid fluid-filled sac is called a(n): A)granuloma.
B)abscess.
C)cold sore.
D)cyst.
Q2) The common term for an aphthous ulcer is:
A)canker sore.
B)cellulitis.
C)cold sore.
D)chapped lips.
Q3) A condition characterized by abnormally large jaws is: A)micrognathia.
B)torus palatinus.
C)macrognathia.
D)macrodontia.
Q4) A benign tumor is: A)cancerous.
B)not life threatening.
C)a neoplasm.
D)both b and c.
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is the most serious and presents a high risk to dental personnel since dental treatment brings them into contact with saliva and blood?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q2) Which of the following viruses breaks down the body's immune system?
A)Legionnaires' disease
B)HIV
C)Tetanus
D)Tuberculosis
Q3) The famous chemist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life associated with living microorganisms and disease was:
A)Louis Pasteur.
B)Aristotle.
C)Robert Koch.
D)Joseph Lister.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogens that can be transmitted through the skin by means of cuts or punctures fall under the _________ transmission category.
A)blood-borne
B)parenteral
C)virulent
D)acquired
Q2) The most serious type of latex allergy,one that can even result in death,is called:
A)type I allergic reaction.
B)type IV sensitivity.
C)irritant dermatitis.
Q3) The CDC term "Standard Precautions" applies to contact with: A)sweat.
B)all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, but only if they contain blood.
C)all body fluids, secretions, and excretions except sweat, regardless of whether or not they contain blood.
D)intact skin.
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21
Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the surface below the barrier is inadvertently touched when removing a contaminated barrier,you:
A)do not have to clean and disinfect the surface.
B)will have to clean and disinfect that surface.
C)will have to clean and disinfect all treatment room surfaces.
D)should place a double layer of protective material.
Q2) Some of the "cons" of complex phenols include that they:
A)are corrosive and cannot be reused.
B)must be used on hard surfaces only.
C)may degrade some plastics or leave etchings on glass.
D)leave chlorine smell on surfaces.
Q3) A product capable of killing some viruses should be labeled:
A)fungicidal.
B)sporicidal.
C)tuberculocidal.
D)virucidal.
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22
Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items,is it the heat or the pressure that kills the microorganisms?
A)Heat
B)Pressure
C)Both heat and pressure
Q2) Which type of sterilization used in the dental office requires the highest temperature?
A)Steam autoclave
B)Chemical vapor
C)Dry heat sterilization
D)Chemical liquid sterilization
Q3) Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed ____° F.
A)300
B)270
C)275
D)325
Q4) _______ is the process of killing all microorganisms,including bacterial spores.
A)Disinfection
B)Sterilization
C)Ultrasonic cleaning
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) An agency that issues rules and regulations with which dental offices must comply is a(n) _____ agency.
A)regulatory
B)advisory
C)licensure
D)local governmental
Q2) The ______ is the primary federal agency conducting and supporting medical research and is a part of the U.S.Department of Health and Human Services.
A)NIDCR
B)NIOSH
C)OSAP
D)NIH
Q3) OSHA standards related to dentistry include which of the following?
A)Blood-borne Pathogens Standard
B)Hazard Communication Standard
C)Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) Which of the following would not be included in the Hazard Communication Program?
A)MSDSs for every chemical
B)Inventory of hazardous chemicals
C)Supply list
D)Employee training
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be a hazardous waste?
A)Human tissue
B)Scrap amalgam
C)Lead foil
D)Radiographic solution
Q3) Material Safety Data Sheets contain health and safety information about:
A)household chemicals such as bleach used in the office, but not specialty dental items such as cavity varnish and dental cements.
B)every chemical in the office.
C)equipment in the office such as dental chairs, delivery units, and electrical equipment.
D)single-use items such as paper bibs, disposable cups, and prophy cups.
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methods of reducing the level of bacterial contamination in waterlines include:
A)yearly replacement of all water lines.
B)back-flushing the lines with a bleach solution.
C)self-contained water reservoirs.
D)using waterlines of smaller diameter.
Q2) Dental team members can reduce their exposure to the dental unit water by using:
A)the HVE.
B)a dental dam.
C)masks, protective eyewear, and/or face shields.
D)both a and c.
Q3) _____ is a type of "plaque" that develops inside DUWLs and consists of bacterial cells and other microbes that adhere to surfaces and form a protective slime layer.
A)Infection
B)Microfilm
C)Biofilm
D)Slime
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal working position for a dental assistant is:
A)a neutral position sitting upright with body weight evenly distributed.
B)standing chairside.
C)sitting leaning forward supported by the stool arm.
D)either a or c.
Q2) Shoulder shrugging helps to stretch shoulder muscles that may be strained from:
A)telephone handsets, oral evacuators, and instruments.
B)bending and twisting.
C)leaning forward.
D)sitting for long periods of time.
Q3) What can a dental assistant do to relieve stress on the back,neck,and shoulders?
A)Periodically get up and walk around
B)Do the full back release and head rotations
C)Do shoulder shrugging
D)Both b and c
Q4) In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS),tendons swell and exert pressure on the:
A)carpal bones.
B)volar carpal ligament.
C)median nerve.
D)synovial sheath.
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) Quality assurance is vital in the delivery of dental care.What are some examples of quality assurance?
A)Completing treatment in one appointment
B)Timely recall of patients to address dental need and documentation of when radiographs were taken
C)Current, up-to-date emergency standards maintained by the dental team and current and up-to-date licenses, registrations, and training of dental team members
D)Both b and c
Q2) All dental practices now have a written privacy policy,required by _____,that must inform the patient that the office will not use or disclose Protected Health Information (PHI) for any purpose other than treatment,diagnosis,and billing.
A)HIPAA
B)OSHA
C)NHII
D)ADA
Q3) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) Which phase of Korotkoff sounds in blood pressure measurement consists of the blood flowing easily and the sound changing to a soft tapping?
A)II
B)V
C)IV
D)III
Q2) When tightening the blood pressure cuff around the patient's arm,how tight should the cuff be?
A)Tight enough to squeeze only two fingers between cuff and arm
B)Tight enough to squeeze only one finger between cuff and arm
C)Tight enough to stop blood flow
D)Does not matter how tight
Q3) What are the three characteristics of a patient's respiration?
A)Volume, rate, rhythm
B)Rate, depth, volume
C)Palpate, depth, volume
D)None of the above
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29
Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) Oral habits can affect a patient's oral health.Which term indicates grinding or clenching teeth?
A)Mouth breathing
B)Bruxism
C)Tongue-thrust swallowing
D)None of the above
Q2) The abbreviation charted for disto-occlusal surface is: A)OD.
B)DO.
C)MOD.
D)O.
Q3) A periodontal pocket is recorded on the examination form if the depth of the measurement on the periodontal probe is greater than _____ mm.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) Patients can be categorized into five specific areas for treatment purposes.A category III patient involves:
A)no special modifications.
B)medical conditions with lifelong implications and requires modifications to treatment.
C)scheduling changes and shorter appointments.
D)serious medical conditions that require only limited care to eliminate serious oral disease.
Q2) The most common oral-related health condition(s) that affects older patients is(are):
A)xerostomia.
B)periodontal disease.
C)dark and brittle teeth.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The fastest-growing segment of the U.S.population is:
A)children between 1 and 10 years of age.
B)young adults in their 20s.
C)40 to 50 year olds.
D)the older population, 65 years of age and older.
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) The Controlled Substances Act:
A)does not permit states to have their own controlled substances acts.
B)requires a dentist to comply with the provisions of the federal law, but not those of the state in which he or she practices.
C)requires a dentist to comply with the provisions of the state law, but not those of the federal law.
D)mandates that state laws may not be less restrictive than federal law.
Q2) What is a life-threatening adverse effect from a body's reaction to a drug termed? A)Hives
B)Fever
C)Anaphylaxis
D)Rash
Q3) Motrin and Aleve are over-the-counter drugs commonly recommended for pain following dental treatment.These drugs are classified as:
A)antibiotics.
B)analgesics.
C)antianxiety agents.
D)antiviral agents.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving dental treatment starts complaining of a severe pain in the chest.The medical history indicates the patient has been diagnosed with _____ and would have _____ medication with him for treatment.
A)diabetes; insulin
B)epilepsy; Dilantin
C)angina; nitroglycerin
D)asthma; bronchodilator "inhaler"
Q2) When using an automated external defibrillator (AED),it is important that the operator does not have contact with the patient during what phase of the operation of the device?
A)Application of pads
B)Analyze
C)Shock
D)Both b and c
Q3) The most frequently used drug in a medical emergency is:
A)glucose.
B)epinephrine.
C)oxygen.
D)ammonia inhalant.
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Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection control of dental chairs is required after every patient.Dental chair design should include which of the following to ease the infection control process?
A)Smooth, seamless surface
B)Flat, smooth control buttons
C)Foot controls
D)All of the above
Q2) The design of the dentist office should have _____ floor covering in the clinical and laboratory areas.
A)hardwood
B)linoleum
C)carpet
D)concrete
Q3) What item(s) are important to have in the reception area for patients to make their wait more comfortable?
A)Current reading material
B)Adequate seating for all patients
C)Proper lighting
D)All of the above
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34
Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which zone is the area where the instruments and dental materials are exchanged between the dental assistant and the dentist?
A)Static zone
B)Assistant's zone
C)Transfer zone
D)Operator's zone
Q2) One way to help the patient feel more comfortable and relaxed is to:
A)initiate conversation with the patient.
B)ask the patient whether he or she has any questions about the treatment.
C)give the patient a magazine and leave him or her alone.
D) both a and b.
Q3) One of the best ways to know your patients,and be better prepared for the day ahead,is to have a brief meeting or review:
A)as each patient arrives.
B)in the morning, during lunch, and at the end of the day.
C)each morning, before patients arrive.
D)on the following day before heading home for the evening.
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of carver is used to remove excess material interproximally?
A)Discoid-cleoid carver
B)Amalgam knife
C)Hollenback carver
D)Excavator
Q2) In an instrument tray setup,the _____ instruments are the farthest left.
A)hand cutting
B)basic setup
C)additional examination
D)restorative
Q3) All of the instruments listed below are types of chisels except:
A)Wedelstaedt.
B)straight.
C)hatchet.
D)bin-angle.
Q4) An amalgam _____ is also known as a plugger.
A)condenser
B)knife
C)carrier
D)carver
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of rotary instrument shank is placed into a high-speed handpiece?
A)Straight
B)Friction-grip
C)Latch-type
D)Curved
Q2) The ultrasonic handpiece is used for:
A)cavity preparation.
B)polishing.
C)scaling.
D)adjusting dentures.
Q3) The handpiece that has the greatest torque (twisting or turning force) is the _____ handpiece.
A)laboratory
B)air abrasion
C)ultrasonic
D)high-speed
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of using cotton rolls for isolation?
A)Easy application
B)Limited retraction
C)No additional equipment
D)Flexible for easy adaptability to areas of the mouth
Q2) A cotton roll holder is designed to hold multiple cotton rolls in a more secure manner for the _____ quadrant.
A)mandibular
B)maxillary
C)both a and b
Q3) A dry-angle isolator is a triangular absorbent pad that is placed on the _____ to block the flow of saliva and to protect the tissues.
A)floor of the mouth under the tongue
B)hard palate
C)buccal mucosa over the Stensen's duct
D)tongue
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Used or contaminated needles and cartridges are discarded in the:
A)trash can.
B)biohazard bags.
C)sharps container.
D)medical waste.
Q2) A scavenger system on a N O/O unit is recommended to:
A)protect chairside assistants from occupational risks of N2O.
B)reduce N2O released into treatment room.
C)protect other dental personnel from occupational risks of N2O.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The _____ of the anesthetic syringe locks into the rubber stopper of the anesthetic cartridge so that the stopper can be retracted by pulling back on the piston rod.
A)barrel
B)thumb ring
C)piston rod
D)harpoon
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Chapter 38: Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic
Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term _____ is used to describe areas that appear dark on the image; _____ is the term used to describe areas that appear white or light gray.
A)radiopaque; radiolucent
B)radiolucent; radiopaque
C)density; contrast
D)contrast; density
Q2) Damage to which type of cell is passed on to future generations?
A)Somatic cell
B)Genetic cell
C)Damage to either somatic cells or genetic cells is passed on to future generations
D)Damage to neither somatic cells nor genetic cells is passed on to future generations
Q3) Primary radiation is:
A)also called the useful beam.
B)the beam of x-rays that comes from the target.
C)less penetrating than secondary radiation.
D)both a and b.
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Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______ is the safest place to store unopened boxes of dental film.
A)darkroom
B)furnace room
C)refrigerator
D)treatment room
Q2) Which is the correct order of steps in manual film processing?
A)Fix, rinse, develop, wash
B)Develop, rinse, fix, wash
C)Fix, wash, rinse, wash
D)Rinse, develop, fix, wash
Q3) A(n) _____ is a device that intensifies or increases the effect of the radiation and decreases the amount of exposure time needed when exposing an extraoral radiograph.
A)screen film
B)film cassette
C)intensifying screen
D)nonscreen film
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transporting PSP films should be done by placing them in:
A)your lab coat pocket.
B)a black transfer box.
C)a paper cup.
D)a baggy with disinfecting solution.
Q2) PSPs:
A)are a major source of cross-contamination.
B)should be wiped with a cotton ball after being removed from the patient's mouth.
C)should be heat sterilized.
D)should be immersed in disinfecting solution.
Q3) The safelight in the darkroom can be tested by:
A)using the coin test.
B)turning off all the lights in the darkroom and looking for any white light.
C)using a step wedge.
D)taking a reference image.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the patient with a hypersensitive gag reflex,the _____ should be exposed last.
A)maxillary molars
B)mandibular molars
C)mandibular anteriors
D)maxillary premolars
Q2) The American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology recommends using the paralleling technique because:
A)it is an easier technique to use.
B)it provides the most accurate image with the least among of radiation exposure.
C)the film sensor is placed closer to the teeth therefore reducing the chance of patient gagging.
D)both a and c.
Q3) Horizontal angulation is:
A)the side-to-side angulation.
B)different when using the paralleling and bisecting techniques.
C)correct when the central ray is parallel to the curvature of the arch.
D)determined by the Stabe bite-block.
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Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main components of the panoramic unit include ________,and exposure controls.
A)x-ray tubehead
B)x-ray tubehead, position-indicator device
C)x-ray tubehead, head positioner
D)position-indicator device, head positioner
Q2) The cause of a panoramic image that comes out with a radiopaque cone-shaped artifact that interferes with the diagnostic information is the:
A)patient's chin was too high during the procedure.
B)patient's lead apron was incorrectly placed or a lead apron with a thyroid collar was used.
C)patient's head was posterior to the focal trough.
D)patient moved during the procedure.
Q3) Skull radiography is most often used in:
A)endodontics and oral surgery.
B)oral surgery and orthodontics.
C)orthodontics and fixed prosthodontics.
D)prosthodontics and pediatric dentistry.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Criteria for new restorative materials include that the material is:
A)able to protect the tooth and tissues of the oral cavity.
B)easily formed and placed restoring comfort, function, and contour.
C)not capable of irritating tissues or being poisonous.
D)all of the above are criteria for new restorative materials.
Q2) Which will not influence the curing time of composite restorations?
A)Manufacturer's instructions
B)The base used
C)Thickness or size of restoration
D)The shade of the restoration
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the composition of tooth-whitening materials?
A)Most tooth-whitening products are made from a bleach (sodium hypochlorite)-based ingredient.
B)The tooth-whitening solution comes in a single concentration of 37%.
C)When the product contacts the teeth, it allows oxygen to enter the enamel and dentin, which whitens the colored substances.
D)The structure of the tooth is altered by whitening materials.
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of biological pulpal stimuli?
A)Changes from hot and cold coming into contact with the tooth
B)Traumatic occlusion, which occurs when a person's "bite" does not occlude properly
C)Acidic materials reaching pulpal tissues
D)Bacteria from saliva coming into contact with pulpal tissues
Q2) Dental bonding is also referred to as a:
A)dental adhesion.
B)dental liner.
C)desensitizer.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Bonding agents or adhesives:
A)can be light-cured.
B)must be used after etching.
C)are available as self-cured.
D)all of the above.
Q4) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Properly mixed glass ionomer cement should have a glossy appearance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cement inhibits recurrent decay?
A)Zinc phosphate
B)Glass ionomer
C)Zinc oxide-eugenol
D)Composite resin
Q3) A _____ is classified as a type I dental cement and acts as an adhesive to hold together the indirect restoration and the tooth structure.
A)temporary cement
B)luting cement
C)provisional cement
D)liner
Q4) The "Guidelines for Mixing Dental Cements" tell you to:
A)incorporate each liquid increment into the powder.
B)dispense the powder first, and then the liquid.
C)set the material out at the beginning of the procedure.
D)hold the bottle of liquid at a 45° angle, to ensure consistent-sized drops when dispensing liquid.
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered a classification of impression materials?
A)Preliminary
B)Final
C)Temporary
D)Occlusal
Q2) A(n) _____ is taken to produce a reproduction of the occlusal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular teeth when the mouth is occluded.
A)final impression
B)preliminary impression
C)bite registration
D)articulated impression
Q3) Although technique may vary,when assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression,mix the light-bodied material first.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that:
A)overhead costs rise.
B)the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases.
C)more work will be completed by the commercial laboratory.
D)there is less work to do for the private dental laboratory technician.
Q2) A plaster mix should not be:
A)completed in 2 minutes.
B)pressed lightly on the vibrator.
C)completed in 30 seconds.
D)mixed slowly.
Q3) A dental assistant should wait _____ minutes before removing a model from an impression.
A)10
B)15
C)30
D)45 to 60
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A step in the final cavity preparation is:
A)placing retention forms.
B)designing the cavity walls.
C)placing a desensitizing or lining agent.
D)placing the intermediate restorative material.
Q2) During a class III restoration,the dentist will enter the tooth from the _____ surface to minimize the size of the restoration.
A)mesial
B)distal
C)lingual
D)facial
Q3) A class I restoration involves ___ tooth surface(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The material of choice for a posterior matrix band is::
A)thin, flexible stainless steel.
B)thick, rigid stainless steel.
C)celluloid.
D)thin, flexible copper.
Q2) If there is a loss of a cusp making the preparation deeper,a(n) _____ band may be selected.
A)universal B)copper
C)Palodent
D)extension
Q3) To contour a metal matrix band for posterior teeth,place the band on a paper pad and rub the inner surface of the band with _____ until the ends begin to curl.
A)a ball-point pen
B)a burnisher or the end of a mirror handle
C)a pencil eraser
D)your finger
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Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prosthodontist:
A)is a dentist who is dedicated to restoring and replacing teeth focusing on fixed or removable prosthodontics.
B)has received an additional 3 years of training in a program accredited by the American Dental Association.
C)is a general dentist who works a lot with crowns, inlays, onlays, and bridges.
D)both a and b
Q2) A post can be used as a retention aid for a crown,provided that the tooth: A)is vital.
B)has been treated endodontically.
C)has not been treated endodontically.
D)is non-restorable.
Q3) A gingival retraction cord is placed _____ the crown preparation is completed; it is removed _____ the final impression is taken.
A)after; after B)after; before C)before; after D)before; before
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the provisional placed on the tooth in the patient's mouth for the final curing stage?
A)To ensure the color and shape of the provisional match the tooth
B)To ensure the provisional is in correct occlusion
C)To avoid excess shrinkage of the provisional during the final curing stage
D)To check the margins for accuracy before curing
Q2) Prefabricated temporary crowns:
A)can be used for posterior but not anterior preparations.
B)are available in cast gold.
C)are available in porcelain fused-to-metal.
D)made of polycarbonate are used where appearance is important.
Q3) A disadvantage of using custom provisional coverage is that is:
A)can only be used for anterior teeth.
B)can be the most time-consuming to make.
C)is hard to fit the prepared tooth.
D)does not look natural.
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pressure point is:
A)caused by a poor fitting prosthesis.
B)a sore spot.
C)a condition that should be treated immediately by the dentist.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The _____ is not a component of a removable partial denture.
A)post dam
B)connector
C)retainer
D)rest
Q3) Simple repairs of broken denture acrylic are sometimes handled in the dental office laboratory by using:
A)glutaraldehyde.
B)cold-cured acrylics.
C)Palodent.
D)Eugenol.
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for implant placement from start to finish?
1)The titanium implant is surgically embedded into the bone.
2)The abutment post or cylinder attaches to the artificial tooth.
3)The titanium abutment screw is screwed into the implant after osseointegration of the implant and during stage II surgery.
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 1, 3
C)1, 3, 2
D)3, 1, 2
Q2) Dental implants:
A)provide natural-looking replacements for missing teeth.
B)hold the artificial teeth firmly in place in the bone.
C)incorporate principles from fixed and removable prosthodontics.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The healing period for the first osseointegrated implant surgery is:
A)one to two weeks.
B)two to three weeks.
C)one to three days.
D)one to two months.
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Q1) When the pulp displays symptoms of lingering pain and the clinical diagnostic findings show that the pulp is incapable of healing,_____ treatment option(s).
A)irreversible pulpitis is a B)root canal therapy is a C)an extraction is a D)both b and c are
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding pulp capping?
A)Some of the carious dentin is left in the tooth to promote self-healing of the dentin so pulp exposure can be avoided.
B)With direct pulp capping the tooth is nonvital and material is placed to protect the pulp.
C)Indirect pulp capping is a permanent procedure, but the patient needs to be informed because problems may develop later and periodic monitoring is necessary.
D)The goals of indirect pulp capping are to promote pulpal healing by removing all of the decay and to stimulate the production of reparative dentin through placement of calcium hydroxide.
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Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Teeth normally have a slight amount of mobility.Normal mobility is recorded at ___ while extreme mobility is recorded at ____.
A)0; 2
B)1; 3
C)0; 3
D)1; 2
Q2) The soft material that forms on the teeth that is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and other forms of periodontal disease is:
A)calculus.
B)exudates.
C)fluoride.
D)plaque.
Q3) The _____ provides rapid calculus removal by converting very-high-frequency sound waves into mechanical energy and also reduces operator hand fatigue.
A)sickle scaler
B)ultrasonic scaler
C)universal curette
D)Gracey curette
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instrument is used to smooth the surface of the bone after most of the undesirable bone has been removed?
A)Rongeur
B)Bone file
C)Curette
D)Hemostat
Q2) A situation in which additional skill,knowledge,and instrumentation are required to remove a tooth-for example,the removal of an impacted wisdom tooth-is termed a ______ extraction.
A)complex
B)simple
C)surgical
D)forceps
Q3) Postsurgical instructions include:
A)no drinking from a straw for the first 24 hours.
B)no smoking within the first 24 hours.
C)restriction of strenuous work or physical activity for the rest of the day.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true regarding the design of most pediatric offices?
A)They have an open bay concept.
B)Children are separated in individual operatories.
C)Computer and video equipment with programs for education and entertainment are widely used.
D)Quiet rooms are utilized for children with behavior problems.
Q2) Which of the following choices is an example of a pharmacological restraint?
A)A mouth prop
B)Nitrous oxide/oxygen
C)Holding the child's hand during treatment
D)A papoose board
Q3) Stainless steel crowns are:
A)durable enough to last until permanent teeth erupt.
B)indicated when there are rampant caries.
C)used to restore a fractured tooth.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Parents should be encouraged to put their children to bed with a bottle of milk,formula,or juice.
A)True
B)False
59
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recommended polishing pastes have _____ polish and _____ abrasion levels.
A)high; high
B)high; low
C)low; high
D)low; low
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible negative effect of coronal polishing?
A)Dentinal hypersensitivity during and after the appointment
B)Loss of enamel
C)Scratches or rough surfaces left on restorations
D)Decreased fluoride uptake
Q3) Black stain:
A)has no relationship to poor oral hygiene.
B)is rare.
C)is usually from food pigments.
D)covers most of the crowns of teeth.
Q4) Options available if stains cannot be removed include:
A)tooth whitening.
B)cosmetic restoration.
C)laminate veneers.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Q1) Which of the following indicates a sealant may have to be replaced or adjusted?
A)The explore catches.
B)Floss does not easily pass through contact.
C)The shine is not even.
D)All of the above are indications.
Q2) Sealants are indicated for:
A)children but not adults.
B)posterior but not anterior teeth.
C)the smooth surfaces of teeth but not pits and fissures.
D)pits and fissures.
Q3) Which is true regarding a properly placed sealant over small initial carious lesions?
A)The decay will continue to develop under the sealant.
B)Bacteria can survive under a sealant.
C)The number of bacteria in small carious lesions decreases over time.
D)The number of bacteria in small carious lesions increases over time.
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arch wire is:
A)a pattern that gives the dental arch its shape.
B)used to hold interarch elastics.
C)bonded directly to the teeth.
D)used to stabilize the ends of a facebow.
Q2) The information needed for the diagnosis and treatment planning of an orthodontic case include:
A)medical and dental histories.
B)photographs and radiographs.
C)diagnostic models.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Buccal arch wire tubes are located on _____ bands.
A)the maxillary first molar
B)the mandibular first molar
C)all
D)both a and b.
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41127
Sample Questions
Q1) What information should be included when dictating a message into the answering machine?
A)Who is speaking
B)Why the phone is being answered by a recording
C)Brief instructions for the caller (e.g., "Please leave a message")
D)Both b and c
Q2) Closed-ended questions are used to:
A)obtain information.
B)maintain control of the conversation.
C)close a conversation.
D)build a relationship with the patient.
Q3) Which statement is not true concerning social attitudes?
A)Social attitudes have no influence on a person's behavior.
B)People tend to make others' attitudes their own.
C)Socialization is the process of society's influences on individuals.
D)Social attitudes can influence a person's cultural way of thinking.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41128
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true?
A)A patient's ledger is kept with the patient's clinical records.
B)The patient's ledger contains all of the financial information for each patient or family.
C)The ledger statement can be hard copy or electronic.
D)The ledger should include a description of the service provided.
Q2) Which statement is true?
A)The maintenance of adequate records is one of the chairside assistant's most important responsibilities.
B)The business manager is responsible for determining what type of record and filing system is best for the office.
C)The maintenance of accurate and complete records is a sign of quality care.
D)Records are maintained only in electronic files.
Q3) Which statement is not true of inventory management?
A)An inventory system should be updated at all times.
B)It should be organized into expendable and nonexpendables.
C)All expendable items must always be placed on the automatic shipment system.
D)It is advisable that a clinical assistant be assigned to handle the inventory of clinical supplies.
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Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41129
Sample Questions
Q1) ______ pay is the amount the dental assistant takes home after all the deductions are made.
A)Gross
B)Net
C)Withholding
D)Taxable
Q2) Calculate the monthly payment using the monthly payment plan outlined: Total charge = $3500,minus the down payment of ¹/ of the total charge,with the balance of charges divided into 6 monthly payments.
A)$565.83 per month
B)$583.33 per month
C)$389.17 per month
D)$390.84 per month
Q3) Another name for Social Security is:
A)FICA.
B)withholding.
C)retirement.
D)employee savings.
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Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41130
Sample Questions
Q1) Title 1 of the American with Disabilities Act:
A)makes it legal for a dentist to terminate a staff member if he becomes disabled.
B)requires the dentist to make reasonable accommodations for a staff member if he should become disabled while employed.
C)applies only to dental practices with at least four people.
D)was passed in 1995.
Q2) If a person likes to travel,has an outgoing personality,and finds it easy to contact new people,they might find a career in _____ rewarding.
A)insurance
B)research
C)public health
D)sales
Q3) Benefits of being employed in a larger group dental practice include:
A)more opportunities to show off your skills.
B)greater opportunity for advancement.
C)more opportunities to socialize with auxiliaries.
D)all of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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