Dental Microbiology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Dental Microbiology explores the complex interactions between microorganisms and the oral environment, focusing on the role of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microbes in both health and disease. The course covers the composition of the oral microbiome, mechanisms of microbial colonization on dental surfaces, biofilm formation, and the etiology of common oral infections such as dental caries, periodontal diseases, and endodontic infections. Emphasis is placed on understanding host-microbe interactions, immune responses in the oral cavity, infection control protocols, and the implications of emerging antibiotic resistance. Students will develop a foundational understanding of microbiological laboratory techniques relevant to dentistry and their application in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Australian scientist who played an important role in the development of penicillin as a therapeutic drug was
A)Howard Florey.
B)Alexander Fleming.
C)Frank Macfarlane Burnet.
D)Ernst Chain.
E)Peter Doherty.
Answer: A
Q2) Procaryotic cells can be distinguished from eucaryotic cells because only the former
A)have a cell wall.
B)lack subcellular organelles.
C)are free-living.
D)reproduce by mitosis.
E)contain mitochondria.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fermentation is a process whereby
A)pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and water.
B)glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen.
C)cells produce energy from the breakdown of proteins.
D)enzymes convert pyruvic acid to various compounds in the absence of oxygen.
E)glucose is broken down with the release of the maximum amount of energy.
Answer: D
Q2) Enzymes
A)are always made of protein.
B)are made of protein and carbohydrate.
C)usually consist of protein and DNA.
D)are part of the material in the cell wall of some bacteria.
E)are always located on membranes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms has been shown to be implicated in the formation of gastric ulcers?
A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Campylobacter jejuni.
C)Escherichia coli 0157.
D)Helicobacter pylori.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following organisms is a normal inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract,but can cause otitis media and meningitis?
A)Group B streptococci.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Staphylococci.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Normal inhabitants don't cause disease.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to indicate that a cell produces a protein from a gene is
A)specialised transformation.
B)gene expression.
C)genetic recombination.
D)protein conjugation.
E)reverse transcription.
Q2) A vaccine that is made from viral antigens produced in yeast cells
A)is likely to be a weaker type.
B)can only be used in animals.
C)is said to be plasmid-derived.
D)is a genetically engineered vaccine.
E)can treat a disease but not prevent it.
Q3) The formation of messenger RNA on a DNA template is called A)transformation.
B)translation.
C)transduction.
D)transcription.
E)conjugation.
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6
Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a chronic viral infection
A)viruses aren't shed from the body.
B)the person is usually non-contagious.
C)symptoms may be non-existent or mild.
D)the body doesn't produce antibodies against the virus.
E)all of the above.
Q2) A virus that specifically attacks bacteria is called a A)virion.
B)provirus.
C)plasmid.
D)phage.
E)prion.
Q3) A virion is
A)a complete, mature virus.
B)a virus that infects only humans.
C)able to be just seen in a light microscope.
D)capable of limited replication outside of cells.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pinworms
A)lay eggs in the soil.
B)only affect children.
C)are not found in Australia.
D)are transmitted by eating offal.
E)cause itching around the anus.
Q2) A microorganism that mainly causes disease in people with weakened body defences is called a(n)
A)systemic mycosis.
B)spore-former.
C)opportunistic pathogen.
D)filamentous pathogen.
E)natural pathogen.
Q3) A parasitic infection is one that
A)is caused by an organism that derives oxygen from its host.
B)always results in the death of the host.
C)does not harm the host in any way.
D)is diagnosed by a characteristic skin rash.
E)none of the above.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Q1) Commensalism is a relationship between two organisms in which
A)one organism benefits at the expense of the other.
B)both organisms benefit to an equal amount.
C)one organism benefits without harming the other.
D)neither organism benefits or is harmed.
E)both organisms are adversely affected.
Q2) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a bacterium?
A)Presence of a capsule.
B)Presence of attachment pili.
C)Production of toxins.
D)Invasiveness.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is usually an endogenous infection?
A)Urinary tract infection.
B)Tetanus.
C)Rabies.
D)Sexually transmitted infection.
E)Influenza.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Q1) Common vehicle transmission means that
A)the people have been infected by different organisms from the same source.
B)the people have become infected from a single source such as food or water.
C)adequate handwashing practices have not been observed.
D)the people have acquired the infection while travelling.
E)infection has occurred in a plane.
Q2) The collection and analysis of data on the occurrence and spread of a disease is called
A)primary prevention.
B)surveillance.
C)infection control.
D)prospective study.
E)disease classification.
Q3) If a baby acquires an infection from its mother during birth it is called a A)congenital infection.
B)genital infection.
C)portal infection.
D)maternal infection.
E)perinatal infection.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toxoids are
A)antibodies against toxins.
B)lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative bacteria.
C)proteins that don't stimulate the immune system.
D)inactivated toxins that are immunogenic.
E)the active components of all vaccines.
Q2) An attenuated vaccine consists of
A)killed microorganisms.
B)live microorganisms.
C)inactivated toxins.
D)parts of microorganisms.
E)any of the above.
Q3) An autoimmune disease represents a loss of A)T helper cells.
B)B cells.
C)tolerance to self-antigens.
D)antigen-presenting cells.
E)mechanisms for antibody production.
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11
Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptokinase
A)is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin.
B)is an endotoxin of Streptococcus.
C)coagulates fibrinogen.
D)destroys human white cells.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following structures enables microbes to attach to cell surfaces?
A)Adhesins.
B)Pili.
C)Fimbriae.
D)Glycocalyx.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Virulent staphylococci produce an enzyme which coats the bacterial cells with fibrin and protects them against phagocytes.This enzyme is called
A)coagulase.
B)streptokinase.
C)hyaluronidase.
D)collagenase.
E)keratinase.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A kitchen sponge would be best decontaminated by
A)placing it in a saucepan of boiling water for a few minutes.
B)washing it in a household disinfectant.
C)putting it in the freezer for a day.
D)placing it in the microwave for a few seconds.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following chemicals can have a sterilising effect?
A)Alcohol.
B)Phenol compounds.
C)Ethylene oxide.
D)Chlorine.
E)Povidone-iodine.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct method of cleaning up a blood spill?
A)Wipe it up with disposable towels and wash the area with detergent.
B)Flood the spill with a phenolic compound,and wipe it up.
C)Flood the area with 0.1% sodium hypochlorite.
D)Wipe up the spill with disposable towels,and treat the area with 1.0% sodium hypochlorite.
E)Use a mop and a neutral detergent to decontaminate the area.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 'half-life' of an antimicrobial drug refers to the time that it takes for
A)the drug to kill half the pathogens which are present.
B)half the drug to break down during storage.
C)the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream to fall to half its original level.
D)half the drug to be absorbed from the intestine.
E)half the target bacteria to be killed.
Q2) Carbapenems
A)are synthetic antimicrobial drugs.
B)are infrequently used because of their toxicity.
C)inhibit protein synthesis.
D)are resistant to all beta-lactamases.
E)have a narrow spectrum of activity.
Q3) A bacterium that is naturally resistant to many antibiotics and often causes serious infections in burns patients is
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism that most often causes septicaemia associated with an intravenous catheter is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D)hepatitis B virus.
E)none of the above because an intravenous catheter is sterile.
Q2) The physician who demonstrated in the 19th century that hand disinfection significantly reduced infection rates in a hospital was
A)Oliver Wendell Holmes.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)James Simpson.
D)Joseph Lister.
E)Robert Koch.
Q3) Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection?
A)Urinary tract.
B)Surgical site.
C)Lower respiratory tract.
D)Skin.
E)Wound.
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Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a vaccine?
A)If the person has had an anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine.
B)The use of a live vaccine in a person receiving immunosuppressive drugs.
C)The use of a live vaccine in a pregnant woman.
D)The use of a live vaccine in a person with leukaemia.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Homoeopathic immunisation
A)results in the formation of protective antibodies.
B)has been shown to protect against most childhood diseases.
C)has a strong scientific basis as a protection against infectious diseases.
D)is favoured by parents who are concerned about the possible side effects of normal vaccination.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Scabies is a disease that
A)is caused by fleas.
B)only occurs in tropical climates.
C)may predispose a person to streptococcal infections.
D)is not easily transmitted.
E)all of the above.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are useful in the diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia EXCEPT
A)blood culture.
B)sputum culture.
C)Gram stain of sputum.
D)bronchial aspiration culture.
E)saliva culture.
Q2) What would be the most appropriate specimen to collect from a patient suspected of having a wound infection caused by anaerobic bacteria?
A)A swab of the wound.
B)Pus from the wound.
C)Blood cultures.
D)A skin swab from around the wound.
E)A nose swab from the patient.
Q3) Identification of slow-growing bacteria can be achieved faster by the use of
A)polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
B)increased incubation temperature for growth.
C)detection of serum antibodies.
D)electron microscopy.
E)the streak plate method.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trachoma
A)is caused by adenoviruses.
B)is also termed ophthalmia neonatorum.
C)is endemic in some Aboriginal communities.
D)is an infection of the cornea that can lead to blindness.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Gas gangrene
A)is caused by group A streptococci.
B)is a type of necrotising fasciitis.
C)can only be treated by amputation of the affected limb.
D)is an infection of nerve cells.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Impetigo is a(n)
A)rash caused by a virus.
B)allergic reaction to an infection.
C)infection only seen in children.
D)bacterial skin infection.
E)fungal infection of subcutaneous tissue.
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18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Otitis media is the name given to
A)a middle ear infection.
B)an infection of the paranasal sinuses.
C)a viral infection of the throat.
D)bronchitis.
E)a sore throat.
Q2) In diphtheria
A)bacterial invasion of tissues is common,resulting in septicaemia.
B)the infection usually descends into the lungs.
C)a pseudomembrane forms over the larynx or pharynx.
D)vaccination is the most urgent aspect of patient management.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The reason that people repeatedly suffer from colds is because
A)the cold virus mutates so people have no immunity.
B)they get a chill.
C)many different viruses cause the common cold.
D)antibiotics don't kill viruses.
E)they haven't been vaccinated.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterium that plays a major role in the development of gastric ulcers is
A)Salmonella enteritidis.
B)Helicobacter pylori.
C)Salmonella typhi.
D)Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Probiotics are
A)antimicrobial drugs used before antibiotics.
B)drugs with broad spectrum activity against all microorganism types.
C)nucleic acid probes used to identify microorganisms that are difficult to grow.
D)untested treatments for any medical condition.
E)formulations of microorganisms that may provide a health benefit.
Q3) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by
A)a strain of E.coli that produces a Shiga toxin.
B)Salmonella found in raw chicken meat.
C)a streptococcal infection of the kidneys.
D)exotoxins secreted by Staphylococcus aureus.
E)intestinal bacteria that spread to the urinary tract.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with A)nasopharyngeal cancer.
B)glandular fever.
C)infectious mononucleosis.
D)Burkitt's lymphoma.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Infective endocarditis
A)is a self-limiting disease not requiring specific therapy.
B)may be caused by oral streptococci.
C)may be a sequelae to pneumonia.
D)involves the blockage of the aorta.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The most common rickettsial infection in Australia is A)scrub typhus.
B)Queensland tick typhus.
C)Q fever.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)epidemic typhus.
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21
Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE? Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A)is thought to be acquired by consumption of contaminated beef.
B)led to the slaughter of millions of cattle in Britain.
C)is caused by an infectious protein.
D)is always fatal.
E)All of the above.
Q2) A person immunised with three doses of tetanus toxoid seven years ago suffers a severe gash with a pruning tool while gardening.He should receive A)tetanus toxoid.
B)tetanus immunoglobulin.
C)penicillin.
D)gammaglobulin.
E)nothing because he is immune.
Q3) Meningitis that can spread in epidemic form is A)meningococcal meningitis.
B)cryptococcal meningitis.
C)viral meningitis.
D)neonatal meningitis.
E)tuberculous meningitis.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women suffer from cystitis more often than men because
A)menstruation is likely to predispose women to infection.
B)the pelvic floor muscles are weakened after childbirth.
C)urinary tract infections are caught from a dirty toilet seat.
D)the urethra is closer to the anus in women.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following sites is normally colonised by microorganisms?
A)Urinary bladder.
B)Upper urethra.
C)Lower urethra.
D)Kidneys.
E)None of the above.
Q3) A poorly collected MSU specimen is indicated by
A)large numbers of red cells in the specimen.
B)large numbers of epithelial cells in the specimen.
C)growth of bacteria other than E.coli.
D)no bacteria or cells in the urine.
E)all of the above.
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