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Dental Materials is a foundational course that examines the properties, composition, and applications of materials used in dentistry, including metals, ceramics, polymers, and composites. The course covers the selection and manipulation of materials for restorative, prosthetic, and preventive treatments, with a focus on biocompatibility, aesthetics, mechanical performance, and longevity. Students gain an understanding of the scientific principles underlying dental materials, their clinical uses, and handling techniques, preparing them for evidence-based decision-making in patient care. Laboratory components provide hands-on experience with material testing and real-world application, ensuring future dental professionals are equipped to make informed choices regarding material selection and patient safety.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 10th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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64 Chapters
2493 Verified Questions
2493 Flashcards
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first hepatitis vaccine became available in:
A)1900.
B)1924.
C)1982.
D)2000.
Answer: C
Q2) _____________ is credited with developing the first school of dental hygiene and training the first dental hygienist.
A)Irene Newman
B)Alfred Fones
C)Ann Ehrlich
D)Hazel Torres
Answer: B
Q3) Who was the "Grand Old Man of Dentistry?"
A)Pierre Fauchard
B)John Baker
C)Dr. G.V. Black
D)Robert Woofendale
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) What agency issues the certified dental assistant (CDA) credential?
A)The state dental board
B)Dental Assisting National Board (DANB)
C)American Dental Association (ADA)
D)American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA)
Answer: B
Q2) The essential aspects of professional appearance are:
A)long fingernails, clean uniform, and white shoes.
B)good health, good grooming, and appropriate dress.
C)appropriate dress, good haircut, and clean skin.
D)scrubs, white shoes, and safety glasses.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is not a role of a dental assistant?
A)Ensuring compliance with OSHA
B)Removing hard deposits from teeth
C)Exposing radiographs
D)Providing patient education
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of technique do the dentist and chairside assistant use when they work together?
A)Shared team responsibility
B)Single-handed dentistry
C)Two-handed dentistry
D)Four-handed dentistry
Answer: D
Q2) If a patient does not respond to the root canal treatment in your dental office,he or she may be referred to a(n):
A)orthodontist.
B)endodontist.
C)prosthodontist.
D)oral pathologist.
Answer: B
Q3) The technique that utilizes a circulating assistant is _____-handed dentistry.
A)six
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A behavior _____ be unethical and still be legal,but it _____ be illegal and still be ethical.
A)can; can
B)can; cannot
C)cannot; can
D)cannot; cannot
Q2) The ADAA code of ethics:
A)is a set of laws.
B)was established by the federal government.
C)is a set of voluntary standards set by members of the dental profession.
D)was established in 1972 and may not be modified or abrogated.
Q3) Ethics deals with:
A)legal issues.
B)absolutes of right and wrong with no gray areas.
C)issues that are subject to individual interpretation.
D)issues of little importance to dental healthcare, because ethical principles are well defined by the courts.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statements made spontaneously by anyone at the time of an alleged negligent act are admissible as evidence,and may be damaging to the dentist and dental assistant in a court of law,under the concept of:
A)respondeat superior.
B)res gestae.
C)res ipsa loquitur.
D)direct cause.
Q2) Failure of a dentist to achieve a reasonable result on orthodontic treatment that extends over a three-year period is an example of a case that could be tried under ________ law.
A)contract
B)tort
C)administrative
D)both a or b
Q3) Guarantees about the outcome of treatment should come from:
A)the dentist.
B)the dental assistant.
C)no one.
D) either a or b.
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two reference regions of the body are the _____ regions.
A)dorsal and ventral
B)thoracic and abdominopelvic
C)anterior and posterior
D)axial and appendicular
Q2) The two major body cavities are the _____ cavities.
A)parietal and dorsal
B)thoracic and ventral
C)dorsal and ventral
D)cranial and spinal
Q3) The opposite of proximal is:
A)superior.
B)inferior.
C)distal.
D)frontal.
Q4) The stomach is located in the ______ cavity.
A)thoracic cavity
B)abdominal
C)pelvic
D)dorsal

Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of muscles that make up the muscular system are:
A)striated, involuntary, and cardiac.
B)striated, smooth, and cardiac.
C)unstriated, involuntary, and visceral.
D)voluntary, involuntary, and smooth.
Q2) The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called _____,which move through the bloodstream.
A)hormones
B)erythrocytes
C)leukocytes
D)thrombocytes
Q3) The outer layer of hard,dense,and very strong bone is known as:
A)cancellous bone.
B)bone marrow.
C)compact bone.
D)periosteum.
Q4) Toxic shock syndrome is a disorder of which body system?
A)Female reproductive
B)Urinary
C)Lymphatic

Page 9
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure that surrounds,supports,and is attached to the teeth is the: A)alveolar bone.
B)cementum.
C)periodontal ligament.
D)periodontium.
Q2) The root of the tooth is covered with: A)cementum.
B)dentin.
C)enamel.
D)pulp.
Q3) The portion of the tooth that is covered with enamel is the: A)root.
B)clinical crown.
C)anatomic crown. D)cementum.
Q4) The normal process of shedding or losing primary teeth is: A)attrition. B)eruption.
C)exfoliation.
D)none of the above.

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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ salivary glands are located just below and in front of each ear.
A)Parotid
B)Von Ebner's
C)Sublingual
D)Submandibular
Q2) The artery that supplies blood to the mandibular teeth is the _____ artery.
A)facial
B)lingual
C)inferior alveolar
D)anterior alveolar
Q3) The submandibular salivary gland:
A)produces the largest total volume of saliva.
B)empties into the mouth through the Wharton's duct.
C)is the smallest of the major salivary glands.
D)does both a and b.
Q4) Which nerve innervates the maxillary central,lateral,and canine teeth?
A)Anterior superior alveolar
B)Inferior alveolar
C)Mylohyoid
D)Mental
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is a narrow band of tissue that connects two structures.
A)vestibule
B)nasion
C)frenum
D)glabella
Q2) The cartilaginous projection of the ear that is anterior to the external opening is the:
A)ala.
B)tragus.
C)nasion.
D)commissure.
Q3) Two small papillae are located on either side of the lingual frenum under the tongue that serve as openings for the ______ salivary glands.
A)submandibular
B)sublingual
C)parotid
D)none of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key to Angle's classification system for occlusion and malocclusion is:
A)the premolars.
B)TMJ alignment.
C)the permanent maxillary first molars.
D)the primary dentition.
Q2) Correct contact between adjacent teeth is important because proper contact:
A)helps prevent food from being trapped between the teeth.
B)stabilizes the dental arch by holding teeth in positive contact with each other.
C)protects the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing.
D)does all of the above.
Q3) The natural teeth in the dental arch are the:
A)deciduous.
B)dentition.
C)embrasure.
D)succedaneous.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ are the longest teeth in the permanent dentition and are known as the cornerstone of the dental arches.
A)lateral incisors
B)central incisors
C)canines
D)third molars
Q2) A _____ is a pinpoint depression in the occlusal surface of a posterior tooth where two or more grooves meet.
A)pit
B)fossa
C)fissure
D)developmental groove
Q3) The cusp of Carabelli is found on the:
A)premolars.
B)central incisors.
C)maxillary first molars.
D)maxillary second molars.
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ caries is a carious lesion that occurs on the tooth around a restoration.
A)Smooth surface
B)Pit and fissure
C)Recurrent
D)Pulpal
Q2) _____ is the most prevalent disease of childhood.
A)Diabetes
B)Early childhood caries
C)Respiratory infection
D)Tonsillitis
Q3) Early childhood caries (ECC) is more prevalent in:
A)lower socioeconomic families that have limited access to care.
B)particular ethic groups and children with special needs.
C)children living in an area lacking water fluoridation.
D)all of the above.
Q4) _____ caries is the first stage of a carious lesion.
A)Primary
B)Incipient
C)Frank
D)Overt

Page 15
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subgingival calculus:
A)is found above the margin of the gingiva.
B)is visible as a yellowish-white deposit.
C)occurs frequently near the openings of Wharton's ducts and Stensen's ducts.
D)is dark green or black in color due to staining from subgingival bleeding.
Q2) All of the following systemic conditions may lead to sex hormone gingival disease except:
A)puberty.
B)pregnancy.
C)menstrual cycle.
D)lack of vitamin C.
Q3) The primary cause of periodontal disease is:
A)bacterial plaque.
B)poorly fitting restorations.
C)stress.
D)none of the above.
Q4) An individual with chronic periodontal disease is more prone to pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods that cause caries are known as:
A)cariogenic.
B)anticariogenic.
C)xylitol.
D)aspartame.
Q2) A dietary analysis using a food diary includes everything a patient consumes each day for:
A)a month.
B)two weeks.
C)a week.
D)six months.
Q3) The first step in patient education is to:
A)instruct the patient on how to remove plaque.
B)select home care aids.
C)listen carefully to the patient.
D)reinforce home care.
Q4) The major effects of water fluoridation have been proven to be:
A)systemic.
B)topical.
C)both a and b.

Page 17
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body uses _____ as the chief source of energy.
A)protein
B)carbohydrates
C)fat
D)fiber
Q2) Sources of ______ can help lower blood cholesterol.
A)water-soluble fiber
B)insoluble fiber
C)saturated fats
D)none of the above
Q3) Well-nourished persons are usually better able to _____ than poorly nourished individuals.
A)avoid grand mal seizures
B)heal and to ward off infections
C)manage diabetes
D)prevent dental caries
Q4) Nutrition is the science of how the body uses food for development,growth,repair,and maintenance.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oral habit consisting of involuntary gnashing,grinding,and clenching of the teeth is:
A)bulimia. B)bruxism.
C)attrition. D)abrasion.
Q2) A broad term for abnormal tissues in the oral cavity is: A)tumor. B)lesion.
C)cancer. D)abscess.
Q3) A _____ diagnosis is made by providing treatment and seeing how the condition responds. A)historical B)clinical
C)radiographic D)therapeutic
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ microorganisms do not produce human illness.
A)Virus
B)Nonpathogenic
C)Pasteurized
D)Germ
Q2) Oral candidiasis is an opportunistic infection caused by:
A)yeast.
B)water.
C)protozoa.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is not a dental sign of second-stage infectious syphilis?
A)Split papules at the corners of the mouth
B)Hairy tongue
C)Grayish-white, moist, "mucous patches" on the tongue, roof of the mouth, tonsils, or inner surfaces of the lips
D)Generalized measles-type rash, poxlike pustules, oozing sores, and hair falling out of the scalp
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Q1) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease:
A)affects animals but not humans.
B)requires additional dental treatment precautions in addition to Standard Precautions.
C)is thought to be caused by a prion infection.
D)is endemic and thought to shorten life span by 10 to 15 years.
Q2) Which of the following is considered personal protective equipment (PPE) that the employer should provide free of charge to the employee?
A)Disposable patient treatment gloves
B)Shoes
C)TB skin test
D)Ultrasonic cleaner
Q3) According to the CDC,_____ Precautions represent a standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluid,excretion,or secretion.
A)Standard
B)Universal
C)Domestic
D)Continental
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Q1) Acceptable types of barriers include:
A)clear plastic wrap.
B)plastic bags.
C)tubing and plastic-backed paper.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A product capable of killing some viruses should be labeled:
A)fungicidal.
B)sporicidal.
C)tuberculocidal.
D)virucidal.
Q3) The high-level disinfectant with very little odor that does not require activation or mixing is:
A)chlorine dioxide.
B)glutaraldehyde.
C)ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA).
D)sodium hypochlorite.
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Q1) Some ultrasonic cleaning solutions have:
A)disinfectants.
B)enzyme activity.
C)antimicrobial activity.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone are _____ instruments
A)noncritical
B)semicritical
C)critical
D)all of the above
Q3) Where is a process indicator placed?
A)Inside the instrument package
B)Outside of the instrument package
C)Within the chamber
D)All of the above
Q4) A method of sterilizing unwrapped patient care items for immediate use is:
A)flash sterilization.
B)dry heat sterilization.
C)autoclaving.
D)chemiclaving.
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Q1) All medical and dental devices intended to be sold in the United States must first be cleared by the _____ before being marketed.
A)ADA
B)CDC
C)FDA
D)EPA
Q2) The only federal institute responsible for conducting research and making recommendations for the prevention of work-related disease and injury is the:
A)Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
B)Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
C)National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
D)National Institutes of Health (NIH).
Q3) The dental assistant must be able to understand the roles of:
A)government agencies.
B)professional organizations.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Latex gloves worn during patient care do not provide adequate protection when handling chemicals because:
A)they are likely to tear.
B)the latex in the gloves degrades when exposed to chemical disinfectants.
C)they have many pinholes that are responsible for leaks.
D)they will chemically react and create toxic fumes.
Q2) Material Safety Data Sheets contain health and safety information about:
A)household chemicals such as bleach used in the office, but not specialty dental items such as cavity varnish and dental cements.
B)every chemical in the office.
C)equipment in the office such as dental chairs, delivery units, and electrical equipment.
D)single-use items such as paper bibs, disposable cups, and prophy cups.
Q3) Hazard Communication Program training is required _____ for all continuing employees.
A)only at the time of initial hiring
B)once a month
C)twice a year
D)once a year
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Q1) The options available for testing the quality of waterline cleaning include:
A)there is no availability for testing of the dental waterline cleaning.
B)using a commercial testing service.
C)using an in-office test kit.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Flushing the dental waterlines for several minutes every morning and for 20-30 seconds between patients will help to:
A)reduce prep time.
B)reduce the microbial count.
C)both a and b.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Dental team members can reduce their exposure to the dental unit water by using:
A)the HVE.
B)a dental dam.
C)masks, protective eyewear, and/or face shields.
D)both a and c.
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Q1) The carpal tunnel contains _____ carpal bones.
A)three
B)six
C)eight
D)twelve
Q2) Which of the following factors can contribute to musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs)?
A)Posture
B)Repetition and force
C)Twisting
D)Both a and b
Q3) What can a dental assistant do to relieve stress on the back,neck,and shoulders?
A)Periodically get up and walk around
B)Do the full back release and head rotations
C)Do shoulder shrugging
D)Both b and c
Q4) Eyestrain is caused by not focusing for long enough periods of time during dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The most graphic and detailed form in the patient record is the _____ form.
A)patient registration
B)clinical examination
C)treatment plan
D)progress notes
Q2) The patient record consists of the:
A)patient registration form and HIPAA form.
B)medical-dental health history form, the medical alert information form, and radiographic examination.
C)clinical examination form and consent forms.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once the information and diagnostic-gathering process has been completed,the dentist will:
A)review all significant findings.
B)present a diagnosis to the patient.
C)develop and document a treatment plan with input from the patient.
D)formulate an assessment from the findings of the patient's oral health status.
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Q1) What are the three characteristics of a patient's respiration?
A)Volume, rate, rhythm
B)Rate, depth, volume
C)Palpate, depth, volume
D)None of the above
Q2) Which instrument is used for measuring a patient's blood pressure in the arteries?
A)Stethoscope
B)Sphygmomanometer
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Blood pressure cuff
Q3) Which of the following blood pressure readings of an adult patient would be considered Stage 2 (moderate) hypertension?
A)120 over 80
B)180 over 120
C)140 over 90
D)160 over 108
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Q1) The most common tooth-numbering systems used are the:
A)Universal System, the Palmer Notation System, and the International Standards Organization/Fédération Dentaire Internationale System.
B)Global Numbering System, the Bracket Numbering System, and the Palm Beach System.
C)Federal Numbering System, the Global Numbering System, and the Palmer Notation System.
D)World Numbering System, the Palmer Notation System, and the Bracket Numbering System.
Q2) When palpating the lymph nodes,the lymph node chain is followed from:
A)front of ear downward to the clavicle (collar bone).
B)side of head downward to the sternum.
C)front of one ear to front of the other ear.
D)none of the above.
Q3) Which component of treatment care plans would be delivered to the patient first?
A)Restoring teeth with composite or amalgam restorations
B)Dental implants
C)Replacing missing teeth with fixed and removable prosthodontic appliances
D)Relief of discomfort
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Q1) When entering the treatment room with a wheelchair-bound patient,you should ensure that the patient is positioned:
A)as close to the dental chair as possible.
B)the same way that he or she will be seated in the dental chair.
C)the opposite way that he or she will be seated in the dental chair.
D)both a and b.
Q2) When an assistant is asked to work with a medically and physically compromised patient and family in developing and implementing a preventive program:
A)it should be tailored to the needs of the patient.
B)it should be the same preventive program that is presented to all patients.
C)he or she should respond that this is not a delegable function for an assistant.
D)he or she should transfer the patient to the dental hygienist for instructions.
Q3) Xerostomia,"dry mouth" caused by a decreased flow of saliva,can be a result of:
A)alcoholism.
B)diabetes.
C)adverse drug effects.
D)all of the above.
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Q1) A patient is scheduled for a tooth extraction,and the medical history reveals the patient is on the medication Coumadin.Coumadin is what type of drug?
A)Antibiotic
B)Diuretic
C)Decongestant
D)Blood thinner/anticoagulant
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding prescriptions?
A)The symbol Rx is Latin for prescription.
B)A prescription is a verbal order by a physician, dentist, or dental hygienist for the preparation and administration of a medicine.
C)Any member of the dental team may prescribe medications.
D)Prescription pads should be kept in a locked drawer.
Q3) Which type of drug can only be ordered by a written prescription signed by a dentist?
A)Narcotics
B)Antibiotics
C)Antidepressants
D)Bronchodilators
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Q1) The rate of compression for an adult,child,and infant is ______ compressions per minute.
A)80
B)70 to 90
C)100
D)80 to 100
Q2) The universal signal for choking is:
A)coughing.
B)laughing.
C)turning blue.
D)placing the hands to the throat.
Q3) The type of seizure associated with epilepsy that lasts 2 to 5 minutes,causes the patient to go unconscious,and makes the patient's body jerk,twitch,and stiffen is a ______ seizure.
A)petit mal
B)simple partial
C)complex
D)grand mal
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Q1) A dental assistant's stool has two items not found on the operator's stool.These items are:
A)armrest and headrest.
B)light switch and food control device.
C)footrest and abdominal bar.
D)back cushion and abdominal bar.
Q2) Most dental treatment is completed with the patient in the _____ position.
A)upright
B)supine
C)subsupine
D)both a and b
Q3) In what room would a dentist discuss the diagnosis and treatment plans with a patient?
A)Reception
B)Dentist's private office
C)Dental laboratory
D)Consultation
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Q1) The basic instrument grasps include which of the following?
A)Pen grasp
B)Palm grasp
C)Palm-thumb grasp
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a goal of team dentistry,also known as four-handed dentistry?
A)To minimize stress and fatigue during dental procedures
B)To cause back pain and muscle aches
C)To follow motion economy during instrument transfer
D)To use moisture control techniques to improve visibility of the work field
Q3) The dentist and the dental assistant try to eliminate or reduce class _____ movements to reduce stress and body fatigue.
A)IV and V
B)III and IV
C)II and III
D)I and II
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Q1) The ______ refers to the part of the instrument that attaches the working end to the handle.
A)point
B)angle
C)blade
D)shank
Q2) _____ instruments allow the operator to thoroughly inspect the health status of the oral cavity.
A)Examination
B)Hand cutting
C)Restorative
D)Accessory
Q3) What instrument is used to measure the sulcus,or pocket depth,of the periodontium of each tooth?
A)Explorer
B)Cotton pliers
C)Millimeter ruler
D)Periodontal probe
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Q1) Which of the following is not correct about diamond rotary instruments?
A)They have a metal base with flecks of industrial diamonds.
B)They are inexpensive.
C)They increase cutting ability.
D)They shorten preparation time and increase productivity.
Q2) The most commonly shaped finishing burs used are _____-shaped.
A)flame
B)round
C)tapered
D)all of the above
Q3) The high-speed handpiece uses _____ burs.
A)friction-grip
B)straight
C)latch
D)laboratory
Q4) What design of bur is a 557 and what is its use?
A)Round bur: gains entrance into tooth structure
B)Straight fissure cross-cut: forms internal walls of the preparation
C)Inverted cone: forms retention grooves
D)Pear: extends cavity preparation
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Q1) Most dentists prefer a darker color dental dam because it provides:
A)bright color for good patient acceptance.
B)good contrast to tooth structure.
C)reduced glare.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Which of the following is not a guideline for using the air-water syringe?
A)Use air on the mouth mirror when indirect vision is involved.
B)Direct the syringe tip toward the tooth being treated.
C)Direct the syringe tip toward the patient's nose and lips.
D)Keep a close distance between the tooth and syringe tip.
Q3) What piece of dental dam equipment stabilizes and stretches the dam away from the tooth?
A)Clamp
B)Bow
C)Punch
D)Frame
Q4) The dental dam is placed _____ the local anesthetic is administered.
A)before
B)after
C)either a or b

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Q1) The dental assistant is preparing anesthesia for tooth #13.What length needle would be selected?
A)15/8 inches
B)5/8 inch
C)1 inch
D)2 inches
Q2) The most common form of topical anesthetic used to control a gag reflex during intraoral radiographs is:
A)spray.
B)liquid.
C)ointment.
D)patch.
Q3) The use of an anesthetic solution without a vasoconstrictor is recommended for patients with a history of:
A)stable angina.
B)recent myocardial infarction.
C)controlled hypertension.
D)treated or controlled congestive heart failure.
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Q1) The time lapse from x-ray exposure until noticeable damage occurs is known as:
A)the latent period.
B)chronic exposure.
C)the cumulative period.
D)none of the above.
Q2) A(n) _____ is a minute bundle of energy that has no weight or mass.
A)ion
B)atom
C)photon
D)electron
Q3) If you change the exposure time of the x-ray unit,what is affected?
A)Energy of the beam
B)Wavelength of the x-rays
C)Number of x-rays produced
D)Penetrability of the x-rays
Q4) Which council determines the radiation effects and levels tolerable for humans?
A)American Dental Association (Council on Radiation Safety)
B)American Dental Association (Council on Dental Materials)
C)National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements
D)All of these groups make recommendations.
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Q1) A film cassette made of plastic or metal is used to hold and protect the extraoral film.During exposure,the _____ side of the cassette must always face the patient.
A)front
B)back
C)right
D)left
Q2) Which is the correct order of steps in manual film processing?
A)Fix, rinse, develop, wash
B)Develop, rinse, fix, wash
C)Fix, wash, rinse, wash
D)Rinse, develop, fix, wash
Q3) A ______image is produced when x-rays interact with the film emulsion.
A)visible
B)distorted
C)latent
D)none of the above
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Q1) According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings-2003,digital radiography sensors:
A)are single-use items and should be disposed of between patients.
B)do not require a barrier; they should be wiped down with disinfectant between patients.
C)should use FDA-cleared barriers.
D)should be heat sterilized.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding federal and state regulations on the use of dental x-ray equipment?
A)All dental x-ray machines manufactured or sold in the United States after 1934 must meet federal regulations.
B)The use of dental x-ray equipment is regulated by federal but not state regulations.
C)The federal government requires x-ray machines to be registered and charges a fee for this registration.
D)Most states have laws that require inspections of dental x-ray equipment on a regular basis.
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Q1) Radiographic images on an edentulous patient might be required for:
A)detection of interproximal caries.
B)identifying objects embedded in the bone.
C)detecting retained root tips, impacted teeth, and lesions.
D)both b and c.
Q2) Which film holder can aid in positioning the film during an endodontic procedure,because it fits around the dam clamp and the endodontic instruments?
A)XCP
B)EeZee-Grip
C)EndoRay
D)Stabe bite-block
Q3) In adults,a size #_____ intraoral film is used for the occlusal technique.
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)4
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Q1) How can a lead apron artifact be avoided during exposure of panoramic images?
A)Use a lead apron without a thyroid collar.
B)Place the lead apron high around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
C)Place the lead apron low around the neck of the patient so that it does not block the x-ray beam.
D)Both a and c are correct.
Q2) A dark radiolucent shadow that obscures the anterior teeth can indicate that the patient's:
A)chin was too low.
B)head was posterior to the focal trough.
C)lips were not closed on the bite-block during the exposure.
D)tongue was not in contact with the palate during the exposure.
Q3) The correct position of the Frankfort plane for a diagnostically correct panoramic image is:
A)parallel to the floor
B)perpendicular to the floor
C)tipped downward
D)tipped upward
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Q1) Criteria for new restorative materials include that the material is:
A)able to protect the tooth and tissues of the oral cavity.
B)easily formed and placed restoring comfort, function, and contour.
C)not capable of irritating tissues or being poisonous.
D)all of the above are criteria for new restorative materials.
Q2) Which is not a step in finishing a composite restoration?
A)Burnishing
B)Reduction of composite
C)Fine finishing with disks and burs
D)Polishing with strips and paste
Q3) Biting off a piece of taffy is an example of _______ stress.
A)compressive
B)tensile
C)shear
D)all of the above
Q4) The purpose of _________ is to pack the amalgam in the cavity preparation.
A)amalgamation
B)condensing
C)carving
D)trituration

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Q1) Patients may feel sensitivity _______ after the placement of a restoration.
A)immediately
B)after a month
C)several months
D)sensitivity may develop at any time
Q2) Thermal changes from hot,cold,or electrical energy created by other metals coming into contact with the tooth are defined as which type of pulpal stimuli?
A)Biological
B)Mechanical
C)Physical
D)Chemical
Q3) Desensitizer should be placed:
A)after thoroughly drying the tooth.
B)on enamel only.
C)and dried immediately.
D)after rinsing and lightly drying.
Q4) If a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important rule to follow when preparing dental cements?
A)Working as quickly as possible
B)Following the manufacturer's instructions
C)Making the mix as thick as possible
D)Doing all of the above
Q2) Temporary cements are used when the dentist:
A)is cementing porcelain laminate veneers.
B)will need to remove the indirect restoration at a later time.
C)is cementing cast restorations permanently.
D)restores teeth with silver amalgam restorations.
Q3) Which type of cement is preferred for cementation of ceramic veneers?
A)Zinc phosphate
B)Polycarboxylate
C)Glass ionomer
D)Composite resin
Q4) If used as a base zinc phosphate requires the use of a liner first.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The length or depth of the alginate impression tray borders can be extended by adding _____ to the tray.
A)utility wax
B)acrylic
C)boxing wax
D)border molding compound
Q2) An impression is a _____ reproduction of teeth and surrounding oral tissues,and the model created from the impression is a _____ reproduction of the structures.
A)positive; positive
B)positive; negative
C)negative; positive
D)negative; negative
Q3) The three curing stages are:
A)first impression, setting phase, final impression.
B)initial set, final set, final cure.
C)initial impression, curing stage, final impression.
D)first set, curing set, final set.
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Q1) When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife after it has cured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Light-cured resin can be used to make trays for ________ impressions.
A)edentulous
B)dentulous
C)partially edentulous
D)all types of impressions
Q3) When mixing gypsum,it is important to use the correct amount of water and powder.If additional powder is added after mixing has begun,the mix will be:
A)stronger.
B)weaker.
C)unaffected.
D)none of the above.
Q4) Type _____ baseplate wax is a softer wax used for denture construction.
A)I
B)II
C)III
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Q1) A veneer is applied to the _____ surface of a prepared tooth.
A)incisal
B)facial C)mesial
D)distal
Q2) An example of esthetic dentistry includes:
A)veneer.
B)teeth bleaching. C)dentures.
D)both a and b.
Q3) Brush-on whitening:
A)can cause blotches on the teeth if not used properly.
B)is as effective as other tooth-whitening methods.
C)is inhibited by saliva.
D)both a and c.
Q4) The internal surface of a cavity preparation is the: A)axial wall.
B)cavity wall.
C)pulpal wall.
D)line angle.

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Q1) Stainless steel matrices cannot be used for anterior composite resins because the:
A)resins can be scratched by the stainless steel.
B)stainless steel can interfere with the setting of the resins.
C)stainless steel can stain the color of the resin.
D)both a and b.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of posterior metal matrix bands?
A)The smaller circumference of the band is the occlusal edge.
B)The smaller circumference is placed toward the gingival edge.
C)The larger circumference of the band is the gingival edge.
D)The edge of the band is contoured in the proximal contact area.
Q3) The component of a universal matrix retainer that serves to guide the direction of the matrix loop according to the quadrant that is being treated is the:
A)spindle.
B)outer guide slots.
C)inner knob.
D)diagonal slot.
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Q1) An indirect restoration:
A)is also known as a cast restoration.
B)is permanent.
C)can be an inlay, onlay, crown, or bridge.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The metal of choice for inlay and onlay cast restorations is:
A)porcelain.
B)ceramics.
C)gold.
D)amalgam.
Q3) The tapered finish line of the margin at the cervical area of a tooth preparation is a(n):
A)articulator. B)chamfer.
C)core.
D)shoulder.
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Q1) The final step after cementing the provisional coverage is:
A)removing the gingival retraction cord.
B)taking a periapical radiograph.
C)checking the occlusion.
D)polishing the provisional.
Q2) Which procedure would require a patient to wear a provisional prosthesis for a longer period of time?
A)Porcelain veneers
B)Implants or periodontal therapy
C)Full gold cast crowns
D)Porcelain jacket crowns
Q3) The provisional should _____ below the margin of the preparation.
A)not extend
B)extend one to three mm
C)extend four to six mm
D)extend six to eight mm
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Q1) Simple repairs of broken denture acrylic are sometimes handled in the dental office laboratory by using:
A)glutaraldehyde.
B)cold-cured acrylics.
C)Palodent.
D)Eugenol.
Q2) Festooning is completed during which appointment?
A)Records appointment
B)Final impression appointment
C)Try-in of baseplates and occlusal rim appointment
D)Try-in appointment
Q3) What items must be considered when selecting teeth for a partial denture?
A)Patient's age and body size
B)Space to be occupied by the artificial tooth or teeth
C)Color of the adjacent teeth
D)All of the above
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Q1) During the second surgery of the osseointegrated implant,the:
A)endosteal implant fixture is exposed.
B)abutment screw is connected to the anchor.
C)abutment screw is connected to the prosthesis.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following represents the correct sequence for implant placement from start to finish?
1)The titanium implant is surgically embedded into the bone.
2)The abutment post or cylinder attaches to the artificial tooth.
3)The titanium abutment screw is screwed into the implant after osseointegration of the implant and during stage II surgery.
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 1, 3
C)1, 3, 2
D)3, 1, 2
Q3) The ideal candidate for dental implants meets which of the following criteria?
A)Has good stable health and adequate alveolar bone
B)Is willing to commit to conscientious oral hygiene and regular dental visits
C)Is concerned about the financial investment of implants
D)Both a and b
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Q1) Pulp fibrosis:
A)develops as a result of necrosis of the pulp.
B)is seen in patients with a traumatic injury to the tooth.
C)has a draining tract where pus is intermittently discharged.
D)has symptoms of sudden onset of pain, swelling, and pus formation.
Q2) What is the order of use for the following instruments?
1)Files
2)Endodontic explorer
3)Gutta-percha
4)Paper points
5)Glick Number 1
A)1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
B)2, 3, 4, 5, and 1
C)2, 1, 4, 3, and 5
D)5, 1, 3, 2, and 4
Q3) The purposes of irrigation solutions in root canal therapy include:
A)providing tissue dissolution.
B)providing bleeding control.
C)deodorizing the canal.
D)all of the above.
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Q1) The procedure of smoothing the surface of a root by removing abnormal tooth tissue that is rough,contaminated,or permeated with calculus is the:
A)probing.
B)scaling.
C)root planing.
D)curettage.
Q2) Which statement is not true concerning occlusal adjustments?
A)Excessive biting pressure noted in a specific area is referred to as occlusal trauma.
B)Occlusal equilibration adjusts the patient's bite so that occlusal forces are equally distributed over all the teeth.
C)Occlusal trauma can cause periodontal pocket formation.
D)Tooth mobility can be caused by occlusal trauma.
Q3) Which statement is not true of laser use in periodontics?
A)Lasers can be used to remove excess tissues, such as in a gingivoplasty.
B)Laser incisions heal faster than those made with scalpels.
C)The risk of blood-borne contamination is reduced.
D)Special training is needed by any person who operates or assists during a laser operation.
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Q1) Which statement is not true concerning forceps extractions?
A)A "simple" forceps extraction is not considered a surgical procedure.
B)Most routine extractions do not require placement of sutures.
C)A forceps extraction is performed on a tooth that is fully erupted.
D)A forceps extraction is performed using extensive instrumentation.
Q2) If using a cold pack to reduce swelling,it should be placed for ___ minutes on and ____ minutes off.
A)ten; ten
B)twenty; ten
C)twenty; twenty
D)ten; twenty
Q3) The surgical setup cannot be open for more than _____ before it is considered unsterile and should not be used.
A)thirty minutes
B)sixty minutes
C)ninety minutes
D)three hours
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Q1) Stainless steel crowns are:
A)durable enough to last until permanent teeth erupt.
B)indicated when there are rampant caries.
C)used to restore a fractured tooth.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The American Association of Pediatric Dentistry recommends a dental checkup at least _____ for most children.
A)once every three months
B)twice a year
C)once a year
D)once every two years
Q3) Which of the following is not an accepted type of restraint to be used with children with behavior problems?
A)Papoose board
B)Holding their hand
C)Sedative drugs
D)Having the parent physically hold them
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Q1) What damage can result from using the prophy angle at a high speed?
A)It can cause frictional heat that can damage the tooth.
B)It can remove dentin.
C)It can cause frictional heat that can burn the gingiva.
D)Both a and c can result.
Q2) The lingual surfaces of the maxillary right quadrant are polished with the patient's head positioned ______ the operator.
A)up and toward B)up and away from C)down and toward D)down and away
Q3) Which of the following choices represents an endogenous stain?
A)An excessive amount of fluoride during the development of the tooth
B)Blueberries
C)Dental amalgam that has been incorporated into tooth structure
D)Coffee
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Q1) The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first ___ years of eruption.
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)9
Q2) _______ is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
A)Rubber cup polishing
B)Bristle-brush polishing
C)Microabrasion
D)Scaling
Q3) Which of the following indicates a sealant may have to be replaced or adjusted?
A)The explore catches.
B)Floss does not easily pass through contact.
C)The shine is not even.
D)All of the above are indications.
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Arch wires that are made of _____ are useful in early stages of treatment because they are flexible.
A)nickel titanium
B)stainless steel
C)beta titanium
D)optiflex
Q2) _______ are(is) used to close space between teeth.
A)Elastic ligatures
B)Elastic chains
C)Comfort tubing
D)Both a and b
Q3) Preparing bands for cementation includes all of the following except:
A)wiping attachments with wax or Chapstick.
B)placing the band occlusal surface down on masking tape.
C)placing the band gingival surface down on masking tape.
D)fill the entire inner surface with cement.
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Q1) Good listening skills:
A)are one of the easiest skills to master.
B)allow you to let your mind wander when talking to a patient.
C)should not be influenced by a person's appearance.
D)do not require you to look at the speaker.
Q2) When trying to resolve a conflict it is important to:
A)involve the dentist or office manager so they will know what is going on.
B)keep it personal; use "I" or "me" instead of "we."
C)try to get other coworkers "on your side."
D)know the difference between "conflict" and "harassment."
Q3) How should a dental assistant react if,while in the dental chair,the patient begins to move restlessly,is sweating,and appears to be agitated?
A)Ignore the behavior.
B)Ask the patient if he wants to stop the procedure.
C)Ask the patient if he is in pain and assure him that everything is fine.
D)Suggest that the patient reschedule for a time when he can relax more.
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Q1) Which statement is not true of HIPAA compliance?
A)Dental practices must strictly adhere to privacy procedures as set forth by HIPAA.
B)The dentist must follow a specific format when putting HIPAA policies into practice.
C)New staff members must be trained as soon as possible in HIPAA regulations.
D)Document of training must be included in the procedure manual.
Q2) Most dental practices use ___-minute time units,because they provide maximal flexibility in scheduling,allowing for more productivity.
A)10
B)15
C)30
D)60
Q3) _____ was adopted to enhance and protect the privacy and rights of patients.
A)HIPAA
B)OSHA
C)A Patient's Bill of Rights
D)The Blood-borne Pathogens Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under __________,a subscriber to a dental insurance plan has the option to continue coverage if he or she changes jobs,is laid off,or retires.
A)federal insurance
B)the Patient's Bill of Rights
C)the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
D)the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Q2) Financial arrangements:
A)should be made before treatment is initiated in all cases, including emergencies.
B)are public information and should be made in a public setting, such as at the front desk where others can witness the discussion.
C)should be made, in an unhurried manner, with the person responsible for the account.
D)should be recorded on the patient's medical and dental history form.
Q3) Patient account ledgers are organized according to the:
A)patient's last name.
B)insurance company.
C)responsible party.
D)employer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your appearance for a job interview should:
A)not make a difference in getting the job.
B)be neat and conservative.
C)reflect that you are well organized and competent.
D)both b and c.
Q2) When dressing for an interview:
A)it is appropriate to wear a "scrubs" type uniform, since that is what is usually worn in the dental office.
B)keep make-up and jewelry to a minimum.
C)dress in conservative business attire, such as a dress pants and a blouse.
D)both b and c.
Q3) Benefits of being employed in a larger group dental practice include:
A)more opportunities to show off your skills.
B)greater opportunity for advancement.
C)more opportunities to socialize with auxiliaries.
D)all of the above.
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