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Dental Materials is an essential course that examines the properties, applications, and manipulation techniques of various materials used in dentistry, including metals, ceramics, polymers, and composites. The course covers the biological compatibility, physical and mechanical characteristics, as well as the selection criteria for restorative, preventive, and prosthetic dental materials. Students will explore topics such as material structure, corrosion, wear, setting reactions, and the factors influencing material performance in the oral environment. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical understanding and practical handling of dental materials to ensure quality and safety in dental practice.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Materials 3rd Edition by W. Stephan Eakle DDS FADM
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Q1) Which of the following is not a classification of dental materials?
A) Preventive
B) Biological
C) Restorative
D) Therapeutic
Answer: B
Q2) The first acceptable amalgam formula was developed by _____ in 1895.
A) G.V.Black
B) Pierre Fuchard
C) Dr.Frederick McKay
D) Dr.William Taggart
Answer: A
Q3) What was the "Amalgam War" fought over?
A) Mining rights in states in the Western region of the United States
B) The price of silver in relation to tin and zinc
C) The value and safety of silver dental amalgam
D) Patent issues between France and England
Answer: C
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Q1) Microleakage into the interface between tooth structure and restorative material is responsible for much of the _____ observed following tooth restoration.
1)recurrent decay
2)marginal staining
3)postoperative sensitivity
4)tarnish
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2
Answer: B
Q2) Adhesion is the method of _____ retention.
A) chemical
B) mechanical
C) dual Answer: A
Q3) Most modern dental materials are made to be moisture resistant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered an indirect placement restorative material?
A) Gold
B) Gold foil
C) Amalgam
D) Composite resin
Answer: A
Q2) What will happen if expired materials or improperly stored materials are used?
A) Render the material ineffective
B) Be of little consequence
C) Cause a toxic reaction
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following are considered to be therapeutic dental materials?
A) Partial and complete dentures
B) Fluorides and pit and fissure sealants
C) Fillings,inlays,crowns,bridges,and implants
D) Medicated bases and topical treatments for periodontal disease
Answer: D
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Q1) Materials that are transferred from larger containers to smaller containers must be labeled using what?
A) A photo of the original label
B) A specially made secondary label
C) Secondary labeling is not necessary.
D) Either a or b
Q2) When would one wear a rubber or neoprene apron?
A) Assisting with treatment of all dental patients
B) Mixing or pouring chemicals that are caustic
C) Assisting with acids used for bonding procedures
D) Grinding partial denture frameworks containing beryllium
Q3) What are the four components of the chemical training program for employees?
Q4) Who has the responsibility of assessing hazardous chemicals and then passing the information to consumers?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
B) Organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
D) Chemical manufacturers

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Q1) Hypersensitivity may occur when _____ are irritated by procedures or chemicals associated with composite resin restorations.
A) ameloblasts
B) osteoblasts
C) odontoblasts
Q2) When a resin bonding agent hardens,it creates projections that lock into the tooth,creating a _____ bond.The resin bonding agent will then form a _____ bond to other resins placed over it,such as composite resin.
A) chemical;chemical
B) chemical;mechanical
C) mechanical;chemical
D) mechanical;mechanical
Q3) When a composite resin is polymerized,a small layer of uncured material will remain.What is this called?
A) Smear layer
B) Hybrid layer
C) Hydrophobic
D) Oxygen-inhibited layer
Q4) What are the three modes of curing for resin bonding agents?
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Q1) Macrofilled composite
A)A light-cured,low-viscosity composite resin that contains fewer filler particles
B)An early generation of composite that contained filler particles ranging from 10 to 100 mm in diameter
C)A composite that contains all nano-sized fillers to enhance physical properties
D)A composite that contains both macrofill and microfill particles
E)A composite that contains very small filler particles averaging 0.04 mm in diameter
Q2) Which of the following is used to prepare the dentinal tooth surface for placement of glass ionomer cement?
A) 35% phosphoric acid
B) 10% polyacrylic acid
C) A rotary cutting instrument such as a diamond bur
D) Nothing;it bonds to calcium without surface preparation.
Q3) List the advantages and disadvantages of glass ionomer cements.
Q4) List the three different types of composite resins and describe how they each polymerize.
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Q1) Which permanent teeth are most susceptible to caries?
A) Upper and lower first premolars
B) Upper and lower second premolars
C) Maxillary molars
D) Mandibular molars
Q2) Which of the following would be a likely cause of sealant failure?
A) Plaque deep in the grooves
B) Rubber dam application
C) Moisture on the tooth
D) Demineralization
Q3) At what pH will tooth demineralization occur?
A) 3.5
B) 4.5
C) 5.5
D) 6.5
Q4) What is the proper order for the steps of applying sealant?
A) Etch,clean,cure,seal
B) Clean,etch,seal,cure
C) Etch,seal,cure,clean
D) Clean,seal,cure,etch

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Q1) Which stains are most effectively removed by bleaching of vital teeth?
A) Black stains
B) Green stains
C) Blue-gray stains
D) Yellow-brown stains
Q2) Which stains have the best chance of removal when a bleaching product is used?
A) Iron
B) Food
C) Coffee
D) Antibiotics
Q3) Why should a leaking restoration be replaced before the bleaching process is started?
A) Ensure a correct shade match
B) Prevent a line of black stain around the restorations
C) Be certain that restorative needs are treated before esthetic needs
D) Prevent excessive penetration of bleach through dentinal tubules that might irritate the pulp and cause sensitivity
Q4) What is the role of the dental assistant or dental hygienist in the delivery of whitening services for the patient?
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Q1) When porcelain particles are melted and fused to metal,what is the process known as?
A) Firing
B) Smelting
C) Bonding
D) Sintering
Q2) An intense color
A)Long wavelength
B)Short wavelength
C)High value
D)Low value
E)High chroma
Q3) Which of the following is most challenging when placing veneers?
A) The patient has a diastema.
B) The natural tooth structure is dark.
C) The teeth are rotated out of occlusion.
D) The adjacent teeth have been bleached.
Q4) Describe the different techniques for fabrication of ceramic restorations.
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Q1) Which of the following may happen if a newly placed amalgam contracts excessively?
A) It can put pressure on the cusps.
B) It will open gaps at the margins,contribute to leakage of fluids and bacteria,and cause sensitivity.
C) It can cause pain with biting pressure.
D) It can result in fracture of the cusps.
Q2) Amalgam restorations are a combination of which alloys?
A) Copper and tin
B) Silver and mercury
C) Specific amounts of each of the above
Q3) In the low-copper amalgams,zinc was responsible for the gradual _____ of the amalgam over time if moisture contamination was present during placement.
A) tarnish
B) corrosion
C) expansion
D) contraction
Q4) Describe the different particle shapes in amalgam alloys.
Q5) List the main components of amalgam alloy and describe their function.
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Q1) Noble alloy
A)Alloy composed of non-noble metals
B)A mixture of two or more metals
C)Alloy containing at least 60% noble metals,40% of which must be gold
D)Classification of metal based on its high cost
E)Alloy composed of metals that do not corrode readily
Q2) Patients who have an adverse reaction to base-metal appliances such as partial dentures are typically allergic to which metal?
A) Chrome
B) Cobalt
C) Nickel
D) Titanium
Q3) What is an advantage of using a wrought metal?
A) Easily deforms
B) Does not bend
C) Can be heated
D) Uses light force
Q4) Identify the wrought metals used for orthodontic wires.
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Q1) Xenografts
A)Grafts harvested from the patient's body
B)Grafts harvested from a cadaver
C)Grafts obtained from animals
D)Grafts made from inert,synthetic materials
Q2) Which of the following are recommended for use with titanium implants?
A) Air polishers
B) Steel curettes
C) Ultrasonic scalers
D) Plastic or graphite curettes and scalers
Q3) The success rate of dental implants is more than _____% with careful case selection.
A) 50
B) 70
C) 90
D) 99
Q4) What is the most common type of implant used today?
A) Endosseous
B) Subperiosteal
C) Transosteal

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Q1) Which of the following is true of abrasive materials in dentifrices?
A) The abrasive agents improve the efficiency of the toothbrush in the removal of stains,food debris,and biofilm.
B) Abrasive agents decrease the light reflected by the enamel.
C) Higher abrasive rankings are desirable to prevent removal of softer tooth structures and restorations.
D) Toothpastes do not contain abrasive materials.
Q2) Which of the following is true of microabrasion?
A) It utilizes sodium bicarbonate powder.
B) It is not meant to be used intraorally.
C) It is recommended for removal of stain from teeth.
D) It can be used to remove minimal amounts of tooth structure.
Q3) Why shouldn't prostheses with metal components be placed in dilute acid solutions or hypochlorites (bleach)?
A) Subsequent bad taste when reinserted into the patient's mouth
B) The resultant corrosion of these components
C) Release of hydrogen sulfide gas
D) Darkening of the prostheses
Q4) Describe the rationale for selective polishing.
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Q1) Which cement should be removed with alcohol or orange solvent once it has set?
A) Glass ionomer
B) Zinc phosphate
C) Zinc oxide eugenol
D) Zinc polycarboxylate
Q2) Which of the following would not be used as pulpal protection under a restoration?
A) Varnish
B) Resin cement
C) Low-strength liner
D) High-strength base
Q3) Expansion of ______ cement as it absorbs moisture after setting is a concern,making the cement less desirable for cementation of all-ceramic indirect restorations because of the risk of fracture.
A) glass ionomer
B) zinc phosphate
C) zinc polycarboxylate
D) resin-modified glass ionomer
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Q1) Of the items listed,which would not be made from an alginate impression?
A) Mouth guard
B) Bleaching tray
C) Retainer
D) Onlay
Q2) When preparing to take an alginate impression,which of the following is not necessary?
A) Fluff the material to mix.
B) Wear a mask and eyewear.
C) Have patient use antibacterial rinse.
D) Use a try-in tray for fit.
Q3) A dental impression is a/an _____ reproduction of the teeth.
A) positive
B) negative
C) distorted
D) approximate
Q4) List and describe the different types of impression materials suitable for crown and bridge procedures.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of inlay waxes?
A) Most dentists prefer to use the direct waxing technique.
B) These waxes are generally in light colors of white or yellow.
C) Type I inlay wax is melted onto a die outside the mouth in a direct technique.
D) They may be used directly in the mouth and placed onto the prepared tooth in the direct waxing technique.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the double-pour method for fabricating and trimming diagnostic/working casts?
A) This technique involves two separate mixes.
B) After the impression is poured,the remaining material is used for the base.
C) One mix of gypsum is produced to pour the anatomic and art portions of the cast.
D) The material in the inverted impression may slump away from the impression,causing distortion of the cast or trapping or air voids.
Q3) List and describe the use of the different types of gypsum products used in dentistry.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the chairside reline?
A) It utilizes an indirect technique in which an impression of the tissues is made inside the existing denture and a cast is made from this impression.
B) The reline material is applied to the primed denture base,and the denture is reseated in the patient's mouth for border molding.
C) An indexing instrument is used to establish the relationship between the cast and the denture.
D) The lining material is heat- and pressure-processed in the denture base.
Q2) During processing of a denture base,heat-cured acrylic resin in the _____ stage is placed in the space created by removal of the wax and record base.
A) sandy
B) sticky
C) dough
D) rubber
Q3) Describe how a denture is fabricated using heat-cured resin.
Q4) Describe the process of addition polymerization.
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Q1) Which factor,associated with a provisional restoration,is responsible for irritation,inflammation,and recession of the gingiva?
A) Chewing hard foods
B) Poor marginal coverage
C) Contour of the provisional
D) Brushing and flossing the provisional
Q2) Finish line
A)The continuous margin that borders the preparation to which the restoration is fit or finished
B)A restoration that covers all or part of the external surface of the tooth and may extend over the cusp tips on facial or lingual surfaces or include the removal of cusps
C)Provisional restoration made on a cast outside the patient's mouth
D)A restoration within the crown of the tooth,such as an inlay
E)Provisional restoration made directly inside the patient's mouth
Q3) Which of the following is the most durable of the preformed crowns?
A) Polycarbonate crown
B) Stainless steel crown
C) Aluminum shell crown
D) Celluloid crown form lined with acrylic or composite materials
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Q1) What is the best method of proper home care for guards?
A) Brush with toothpaste to remove debris.
B) Soak in mouthwash to remove odors.
C) Store in water when not in use.
D) Allow to air-dry in a rigid container.
Q2) Which type of sports mouth guard is most effective?
A) Stock
B) Custom-fit
C) Boil and bite
D) They are all equally effective.
Q3) What is a common treatment for people with severe OSA?
A) Weight loss
B) Use of a CPAP
C) Reduced alcohol intake
D) Use of nasal decongestants
Q4) When would a space maintainer be used?
A) Hold space for a permanent tooth
B) Guide a permanent tooth into place
C) Prevent a primary tooth from being lost prematurely
D) Open more space in the dental arch for accurate eruption
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