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Dental Imaging Techniques provides a comprehensive overview of the principles, methods, and applications of imaging in dentistry. The course covers topics such as intraoral and extraoral radiographic techniques, digital imaging, advanced modalities like cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT), and interpretation of radiographic findings. Emphasis is placed on radiation safety, image evaluation, and integration of imaging into clinical diagnosis and treatment planning. Students will gain both theoretical knowledge and practical skills in selecting appropriate imaging methods to enhance patient care in various dental specialties.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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Q1) William Rollins:
A) Established the first college course in radiography for dental students.
B) Was the first to use film in intraoral radiography.
C) Developed the first dental x-ray unit.
D) Developed the first hot cathode x-ray tube.
Answer: C
Q2) The variable kilovoltage x-ray machine was introduced in:
A) 1895
B) 1913
C) 1923
D) 1957
Answer: D
Q3) The x-ray was discovered by:
A) Heinrich Geissler
B) Wilhelm Roentgen
C) Johann Hittorf
D) William Crookes
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are true of ionizing radiation?
A) It is radiation that is capable of producing ions by removing or adding an electron to an atom.
B) It is strictly an electromagnetic radiation and does not involve particles that have mass.
C) It may be classified as to whether it is particulate or electromagnetic radiation.
D) Both a and c.
Answer: D
Q2) Which is the most common possibility when an x-ray photon interacts with matter?
A) No interaction
B) Absorption or photoelectric effect
C) Compton scatter
D) Coherent scatter
Answer: C
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Q1) Milliamperage regulates the ____ of electrons produced at the cathode filament.
A) quality
B) quantity
C) speed
D) power
Answer: B
Q2) Milliampere-seconds is a combination of milliamperes and:
A) Density
B) Contrast
C) Voltage
D) Exposure time
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity?
A) Decreasing the kilovoltage peak
B) Decreasing the milliamperage
C) Decreasing the exposure time
D) Decreasing the source-to-film distance
Answer: D
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Q1) Examples of nonstochastic effects include:
A) Erythema
B) Cancer
C) Loss of hair
D) Both a and c
Q2) One gray is equivalent to ____ rad(s).
A) 1
B) 10
C) 100
D) 1000
Q3) ____ refers to the quantity of radiation received or the total amount of radiation energy absorbed.
A) Total dose
B) Dose rate
C) Amount of tissue irradiated
D) Cell sensitivity
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Q1) Which type of PID would be most effective in reducing patient exposure?
A) Conical
B) 16-inch round PID
C) 8-inch rectangular PID
D) 16-inch rectangular PID
Q2) Which of the following types of position-indicating devices (PIDs) do not produce scatter radiation?
A) Rectangular
B) Conical
C) Round
D) Both a and c
Q3) The thyroid collar:
A) Is recommended for all intraoral films.
B) Is recommended for all extraoral films.
C) May exist as a separate shield or as part of the lead apron.
D) Both a and c.
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Q1) ____ regulate(s) the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment.
A) The federal government
B) State governments
C) Local governments
D) Municipal governments
Q2) The Rinn XCP system includes a:
A) Beam alignment device.
B) Styrofoam bite-block.
C) Snap-on metal collimating device.
D) Both a and c.
Q3) During an exposure:
A) The exposure button is briefly depressed and then released to initiate the exposure.
B) The exposure button is firmly depressed until the preset exposure time is completed.
C) The exposure light on the control panel is illuminated to signal the completion of the exposure.
D) A beep sounds to signal initiation of the exposure.
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Q1) Film is best stored in an area that is:
A) Hot.
B) Humid.
C) Cool and dry.
D) Exposed to radiation.
Q2) The latent image is stored by the ____ in dental x-ray film.
A) Gelatin
B) Film base
C) Adhesive layer
D) Silver halide crystals
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding dental x-ray film and formation of the latent image?
A) The film is placed to the buccal of the teeth.
B) The film is placed to the lingual of the teeth.
C) A periapical film is an extraoral film.
D) A bite-wing film is an extraoral film.
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Q1) Which of the following choices would result in increased magnification of the radiographic image?
A) Increased target-film distance
B) Decreased object-film distance
C) Increased object-film distance
D) Both a and b
Q2) A radiograph that has ____ is said to have high contrast.
A) A very dark overall appearance
B) A very light overall appearance
C) Many shades of gray
D) Very dark areas and very light areas
Q3) When a high operating kilovoltage peak (>90 kVp) is used, (low/high) subject contrast and (many shades of gray/areas of black and white) are seen on the radiograph.
A) Low subject contrast; many shades of gray
B) Low subject contrast; areas of black and white
C) High subject contrast; many shades of gray
D) High subject contrast; areas of black and white
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Q1) Film hangers are a device used to:
A) Hold films during processing.
B) Mount films.
C) View films.
D) Open film packets.
Q2) Potassium bromide functions as which of the following components of developer solution?
A) Developing agent
B) Preservative
C) Accelerator
D) Restrainer
Q3) During processing, a chemical reaction occurs, and the halide portion of the ____ silver halide crystal is removed.
A) Unexposed, unenergized
B) Exposed, unenergized
C) Unexposed, energized
D) Exposed, energized
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Q1) To perform the coin test, the film and coin are exposed to:
A) The safelight.
B) The darkroom ceiling or white light.
C) The light with the darkroom door open.
D) No light at all.
Q2) The results of a film-screen contact test should be viewed on a viewbox in a:
A) Dimly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
B) Brightly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
C) Dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
D) Brightly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
Q3) A reference radiograph is compared with a radiograph taken each day for matched:
A) Milliamperage
B) kVp
C) Color
D) Density
Q4) To conduct the coin test, the film and coin are exposed for:
A) 10 seconds.
B) 3 or 4 minutes.
C) 15 minutes.
D) An entire workday.

Page 12
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Radiographer
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Q1) Through the use of dental radiographs, the dental radiographer can detect ____ that cannot be detected clinically. 1. Diseases
2) Lesions
3) Conditions of teeth and bones
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3 only
Q2) To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always: (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.)
A) Maintain an adequate distance.
B) Have proper positioning.
C) Have proper shielding.
D) Avoid the primary beam.
Q3) Radiographs are a(n) ____ comprehensive patient care.
A) Adjunct to
B) Necessary component of
C) Option for
D) Supplement to
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Q1) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
Q2) When a patient trusts the dental professional, the patient is:
A) Less likely to provide information.
B) Less likely to cooperate during treatment.
C) More likely to comply with prescribed treatment.
D) Less likely to return for further treatment.
Q3) The patient's first impression of the dental team most often involves the:
A) Dentist.
B) Dental hygienist.
C) Dental auxiliary.
D) Entrance to the building.
Q4) Communication is defined in the text as:
A) Having a conversation.
B) Establishing a connection.
C) The process by which information is exchanged between two or more persons.
D) Two or more persons in the same location or room.
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Q1) According to the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs," dental x-ray procedures ____ because of pregnancy.
A) Must be avoided
B) Should be minimized
C) Should be limited to emergency care
D) Do not need to be altered
Q2) With faster F-speed film, a single intraoral film results in a surface skin exposure of ____ milliroentgens.
A) 1.25
B) 12.5
C) 125
D) 1250
Q3) Exposures in the range of thousands of roentgens are ____ in dental radiography. A) Often exceeded
B) Exceeded with a full mouth series
C) Rarely exceeded
D) Inconceivable
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Q1) The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental radiographs is termed:
A) A treatment alternative.
B) Disclosure.
C) Self-determination.
D) Behavior modification.
Q2) Erroneous entries in the dental record should:
A) Be erased.
B) Be blocked out.
C) Be covered with white-out.
D) Never be erased or blocked out.
Q3) If the patient is a minor, informed consent:
A) Is waived.
B) May still be obtained from the patient.
C) Must be obtained from the parent.
D) Must be obtained from a legal guardian.
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Q1) In dental radiography, no ____ are used.
1) Critical instruments
2) Semicritical instruments
3) Noncritical instruments
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)3 only
D)1 only
Q2) Which of the following surfaces on the x-ray machine must be covered or disinfected?
1) Control panel
2) Exposure button
3) Tubehead
4) Position-indicating device (PID)
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)2 only
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Q1) The CMRS is defined as a series of intraoral dental radiographs that shows:
A) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
B) All the edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
C) All the dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
D) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws that can be verified clinically.
Q2) There are ____ methods for obtaining periapical radiographs.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Ten
Q3) A total of ____ to ____ films may be included in the CMRS.
A) 4; 7
B) 7; 14
C) 14; 20
D) 19; 21
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Q1) The lingual cusp of the first premolar usually obscures the distal contact of the canine on the ____ exposure.
A) Maxillary canine
B) Maxillary incisor
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular incisor
Q2) The recommended posterior periapical sequence for the Rinn XCP instruments starts with the:
A) Maxillary left quadrant.
B) Maxillary right quadrant.
C) Mandibular left quadrant.
D) Mandibular right quadrant.
Q3) Reusable film holders must be ____ after each use.
A) Rinsed with tap water
B) Wiped with disinfectant
C) Placed in an immersion disinfectant
D) Sterilized
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Q1) The rule of isometry states that two triangles are equal if they have ____ equal angles and share a common side.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q2) With size 2 film, a total of ____ anterior film placements are used in the bisecting technique.
A) Four
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
Q3) When the ____ is/are used, the patient may use excessive force to stabilize the film, causing the film to bend and resulting in image distortion.
A) Rinn BAI instruments
B) Stabe bite-block
C) Finger-holding method
D) EEZEE-Grip film holder
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Q1) ____ sizes of bite-wing films are available.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six
Q2) Which size film is used only for bite-wings?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
Q3) Vertical bite-wings are often used for patients with:
A) Mixed dentition.
B) Extensive decay.
C) Bone loss.
D) Sealants.
Q4) In the adult patient, which size film is recommended for bite-wing exposures?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
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Q1) When overlapped contacts appear on film, the cause is:
A) Incorrect vertical angulation.
B) Incorrect horizontal angulation.
C) A dropped receptorcorner.
D) An underexposed film.
Q2) To avoid a double exposure:
A) Only expose and process one half of the patient's mouth at one time.
B) Mark exposed films with indelible ink.
C) Always separate exposed and unexposed films.
D) Ask the patient to hold the unexposed films.
Q3) A cone cut occurs when:
A) The film is underexposed.
B) The film is overexposed.
C) The PID was not properly aligned with the periapical film holder.
D) The exposure button was not depressed for a sufficient amount of time.
Q4) When the occlusal plane appears tipped or tilted, the error is a(n):
A) Incorrect horizontal angulation.
B) Incorrect vertical angulation.
C) Dropped film corner.
D) Elongated image.

Page 22
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Q1) Which occlusal projection is used to locate foreign bodies or salivary stones in the region of the floor of the mouth?
A) Topographic occlusal projection
B) Lateral occlusal projection
C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection
D) Pediatric projection
Q2) The dental radiograph is a ____-dimensional picture of a ____-dimensional object.
A) Two; two
B) Three; three
C) Two; three
D) Three; two
Q3) The pediatric projection is recommended for use in children ____ years old or younger.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
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Q1) A "reverse smile line" is seen on the radiograph if the patient's:
A) Chin is tipped down.
B) Chin is tipped up.
C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.
D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.
Q2) A panoramic film is ____ film(s) taken using an ____ technique.
A) A series of; intraoral
B) A series of; extraoral
C) A single; intraoral
D) A single; extraoral
Q3) A ghost image occurs when:
A) The patient moves while the film is being exposed.
B) The film is reversed after being removed from the film carrier.
C) All metallic or radiodense objects are not removed before the exposure of a panoramic film.
D) The patient raises his or her hand while an exposure is being made.
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Q1) The left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the cassette for the ____ projection.
A) Lateral cephalometric
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Submentovertex
Q2) Lateral jaw radiography:
A) Requires the use of a special x-ray unit.
B) Provides for more diagnostic information than a panoramic radiograph.
C) Is used to examine the anterior portion of the mandible.
D) Is valuable for patients with limited jaw opening because of a fracture or swelling.
Q3) An extraoral radiograph is placed ____ the mouth during x-ray exposure. Extraoral radiography is used to image ____ areas of the skull or jaws.
A) Outside; small
B) Outside; large
C) Inside; small
D) Inside; large
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Q1) Which film placement is most likely to elicit the gag reflex?
A) Maxillary premolar
B) Maxillary molar
C) Mandibular premolar
D) Mandibular molar
Q2) Size ____ film is typically used for the edentulous examination.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Q3) If a person is blind or visually impaired, the dental radiographer must:
A) Communicate using clear visual explanations.
B) Communicate using clear verbal explanations.
C) Not explain each procedure before performing it.
D) Gesture to another person in the presence of a person who is blind.
Q4) Suggestions to avoid stimulating the gag reflex include:
A) Sliding the film along the palate.
B) Placing the film slowly to avoid stimulating the patient.
C) Demonstrating film placement.
D) Waiting for 30 seconds before exposing each film.
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Q1) A primary advantage to digital imaging is the superior gray-scale resolution that results. Digital imaging uses up to 32 shades of gray.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Storage phosphor imaging:
A) Is a form of direct digital imaging.
B) Is a wired digital radiography system.
C) Uses a sensor with a fiber-optic cable.
D) Uses a reusable imaging plate.
Q3) Sensors that cannot be sterilized:
A) Should be disposed of between patients.
B) Are wiped off with a surface disinfectant (iodophor) between patients.
C) Require complete coverage with disposable plastic sleeves for each patient.
D) Are placed in an immersion disinfectant for an appropriate amount of time between each patient.
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Q1) If the field of view is large, findings or pathology in other regions of the oral and maxillofacial complex may be accidently included. The size of the field of view should not matter if a high-quality machine is used.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and document observations outside the region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. It is not the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Q1) On a dental radiograph, the periodontal ligament space (PDL) space appears as a ____ line around the root of a tooth.
A) Thin radiopaque
B) Thin radiolucent
C) Wide radiopaque
D) Wide radiolucent
Q2) A ridge is defined as a ____ of bone.
A) Linear prominence or projection
B) Sharp, thornlike projection
C) Small bump or nodule
D) Rounded prominence
Q3) Which of the following tooth structures is most radiolucent?
A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Pulp
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Q1) When all the windows of the film mount are not filled with radiographs, the text recommends placing ____ in the unused frames.
A) Masking tape
B) Nothing
C) Black opaque paper
D) An unexposed film
Q2) The film mount should be labeled ____ the films are mounted. A(n) ____ can be used to label film mounts.
A) Before; special marking pencil
B) After; special marking pencil
C) Before; ink pen
D) After; standard graphite pencil
Q3) Radiographs are intended to be placed in a film holder in:
A) The order in which they were exposed.
B) The order in which they were processed.
C) Anatomic order.
D) The order prescribed by the ADA nomenclature.
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Q1) Only the ____ border of the orbit is visible on most panoramic radiographs.
A) Inferior
B) Lateral
C) Medial
D) Superior
Q2) Which of the following structures is part of the sphenoid bone?
A) Glenoid fossa
B) Articular eminence
C) Lateral pterygoid plate
D) Styloid process
Q3) The anterior nasal spine is a sharp bony projection of the maxilla located at the ____ portion of the nasal cavity.
A) Anterior and superior
B) Anterior and inferior
C) Posterior and superior
D) Posterior and inferior
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Q1) To interpret films, the dental radiographer must be confident in the identification and recognition of the following:
1) Normal anatomy
2) Dental caries
3) Periodontal disease
4) Traumatic injuries and periapical lesions
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
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Q1) A(n) ____ is an image that is produced on photosensitive film.
A) X-ray
B) Radiograph
C) Photon
D) Electron
Q2) A radiograph appears ____ where the tissues are soft or thin.
A) Radiopaque
B) White
C) Light
D) Black or dark
Q3) A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a ____ process.
A) Benign slow-growing
B) Benign rapidly growing
C) Malignant slow-growing
D) Malignant rapidly growing
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Q1) Diatorics are found in:
A) Silver point endodontic fillings.
B) Gutta percha endodontic fillings.
C) Anterior porcelain denture teeth.
D) Anterior acrylic denture teeth.
Q2) A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown appears:
A) Uniformly radiopaque.
B) Uniformly radiolucent.
C) To have two radiographic components. The metal component appears completely radiopaque, and the porcelain component appears slightly radiopaque.
D) To have two radiographic components. The metal component appears completely radiolucent, and the porcelain component appears slightly radiolucent.
Q3) Diatorics are:
A) Color sources.
B) Metal retention pins.
C) Identification dots.
D) Orthodontic brackets.
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Q1) ____ caries are found between two teeth.
A) Occlusal
B) Buccal
C) Lingual
D) Interproximal
Q2) The ____ radiograph is the radiograph of choice for the evaluation of caries.
A) Periapical
B) Bite-wing
C) Panoramic
D) Occlusal
Q3) In the practice of dentistry, ____ is probably the most frequent reason for taking dental radiographs.
A) Periodontitis
B) Caries
C) Impacted teeth
D) Orthodontia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ radiograph using the ____ technique is the film of choice for the evaluation of periodontal disease.
A) Bite-wing; paralleling
B) Bite-wing; bisecting
C) Periapical; paralleling
D) Periapical; bisecting
Q2) ADA Case Type II is:
A) Gingivitis.
B) Mild or slight periodontitis.
C) Moderate periodontitis.
D) Advanced or severe periodontitis.
Q3) The severity of bone loss is measured by the:
A) Pocket depth.
B) Recession.
C) Amount of inflammation.
D) Clinical attachment loss.
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Q1) Luxation is:
A) The abnormal displacement of teeth.
B) Used to describe fragments of bone following traumatic injury.
C) Hemorrhage, or bleeding.
D) Swelling or edema.
Q2) Teeth that have been luxated should be evaluated by a(n) ____ radiograph.
A) Bite-wing
B) Periapical
C) Occlusal
D) Panoramic
Q3) ____ is a diffuse calcification of the pulp chamber and pulp canals of teeth.
A) Pulpal sclerosis
B) Pulpal obliteration
C) Pulp stones
D) Internal resorption
Q4) The treatment for condensing osteitis is:
A) Extraction.
B) Root canal therapy.
C) Osseous recontouring.
D) No treatment is necessary.
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