Dental Hygiene Theory Exam
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Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Theory explores the foundational principles and evidence-based practices underlying dental hygiene care. The course introduces students to oral disease prevention, assessment strategies, infection control protocols, and the development of individualized care plans. Emphasis is placed on the scientific rationale for dental hygiene interventions, patient education, and ethical considerations in clinical practice. By integrating theory with real-world applications, students gain the knowledge necessary to promote optimal oral health and support comprehensive patient care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Illustrated Dental Embryology Histology and Anatomy 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Face and Neck Regions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ extends from just below the lateral margin of the eye toward the middle part of the external ear.
A) temporomandibular joint
B) zygomatic arch
C) labial commissure
D) infraorbital region
Answer: B
Q2) What part of the mandible extends upward and backward from the body of the mandible on each side?
A) Coronoid process
B) Mandibular symphysis
C) Ramus
D) Coronoid notch
Answer: C
Q3) The lips are fleshy folds that mark the gateway of the _____ cavity proper.
A) zygomatic
B) infraorbital
C) mental
D) oral
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Oral Cavity and Pharynx
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Q1) What are the small,elevated structures of specialized mucosa located on the dorsal surfaces of the tongue,some of which are associated with taste buds?
A) Lingual papilla
B) Sulcus terminalis
C) Parotid papilla
D) Foramen cecum
Answer: A
Q2) The _____ is a white ridge of raised callused tissue that extends horizontally at the level where the maxillary and mandibular teeth come together and occlude.
A) linea alba
B) buccal fat pad
C) parotid papilla
D) labial frenum
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development
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Q1) During prenatal development,the oropharyngeal membrane of the embryo:
A) consists of three embryonic layers.
B) is located superior to the first branchial arch.
C) disintegrates during the third week of prenatal development.
D) is located superior to the maxillary process.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning prenatal development is correct?
A) Most congenital malformations occur during the last prenatal week.
B) Maturation of existing structures occurs during the second to eighth week.
C) Initiation of embryonic layers occurs during the first week.
D) The fetus is the structure present during the embryonic period.
Answer: C
Q3) The primitive streak forms in the embryonic disc during prenatal development,causing:
A) initiation of palatal development.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) fusion of the mandibular processes.
D) disintegration of the oropharyngeal membrane.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Face and Neck Development
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Q1) How many processes are considered major during facial development so that they become the centers of growth for the face?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) Which of the following phrases concerning the second branchial arch during prenatal development is correct?
A) Called the mandibular arch
B) Contains Reichert cartilage
C) Forms into the muscles of mastication
D) Associated with the trigeminal nerve
Q3) A type of cleft lip can result during prenatal development from the lack of fusion between _____ processes.
A) mandibular and maxillary
B) medial nasal and maxillary
C) lateral nasal and medial nasal
D) two lateral nasal
E) lateral nasal and maxillary
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Orofacial Development
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Q1) Which way does the sulcus terminalis point toward the oropharynx after tongue development?
A) Upward
B) Downward
C) Forward
D) Backward
Q2) Which of the following structures is initially formed during the fifth week of prenatal development?
A) Neural tube
B) Palatal processes
C) Mandibular arch
D) Intermaxillary segment
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning tongue disturbances is correct?
A) Abnormalities of the tongue are common.
B) Ankyloglossia results from a long attachment of the lingual frenum.
C) Ankyloglossia may be associated with other craniofacial abnormalities.
D) Lingual frenum is never surgically cut anymore to free it.
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Chapter 6: Tooth Development and Eruption
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Q1) The overlapping period between the primary and permanent dentition is best considered the _____ period.
A) deciduous
B) adult
C) secondary
D) mixed dentition
Q2) Which part of the enamel organ is the main source of the junctional epithelium?
A) Outer enamel epithelium
B) Stellate reticulum
C) Stratum intermedium
D) Inner enamel epithelium
Q3) Tubercles are a developmental disturbance that occurs during the cap stage of tooth development with both dentitions,but with the permanent dentition it can be mainly noted on the:
A) occlusal surface of premolars.
B) occlusal surface of third molars.
C) cingulum on mandibular lateral incisors.
D) cingulum of mandibular canines.
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Chapter 7: Cells
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Q1) Which of following are metabolically inert substances in the cell that are also considered transient?
A) Inclusions
B) Vacuoles
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Lysosomes
Q2) The smallest living unit of organization in the body is a(n):
A) organ.
B) tissue.
C) cell.
D) system.
Q3) The active transport of material from a vesicle within the cell out into the extracellular environment is termed:
A) endocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) interphase.
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Chapter 8: Basic Tissue
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Q1) The crystalline formation of mature bone consists of mainly of which of the following?
A) Calcium hydroxyapatite
B) Osteoid
C) Osteocytes
D) Canaliculi
Q2) What is the most common type of collagen protein in the body?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Q3) Which of the following basic tissue types is usually composed of fewer cells spaced farther apart and containing larger amounts of matrix between the cells?
A) Epithelium
B) Nerve tissue
C) Muscle tissue
D) Connective tissue
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Chapter 9: Oral Mucosa
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Q1) Which of the following layers of nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium produces the basal lamina of the basement membrane within the oral mucosa?
A) Basal layer
B) Intermediate layer
C) Superficial layer
D) Prickle layer
Q2) What is one difference in the repair process of the oral mucosa as compared to that of the skin?
A) Dry scab is present.
B) Clot stays moist over time.
C) Inflammatory response is triggered.
D) Fibroblasts migrate to produce immature connective tissue.
Q3) Which of the following changes can occur in the oral mucosa as it ages?
A) Increase in rete ridges in epithelium
B) Increase in lingual papillae on the dorsal tongue surface
C) Decrease in taste buds with the lingual papillae
D) Decrease in lingual veins on the ventral surface of the tongue
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Chapter 10: Gingival and Dentogingival Junctional Tissue
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Q1) Cell renewal of the junctional epithelium takes place in the:
A) internal basal lamina.
B) external basal lamina.
C) lamina propria.
D) basal layer of the tissue
Q2) Which of the following gingival tissue lines the floor of the gingival sulcus in a healthy situation?
A) Sulcular epithelium
B) Junctional epithelium
C) Attached gingiva
D) Marginal gingiva
Q3) Which of the following is considered part of the dentogingival junctional tissue within a healthy oral cavity?
A) Periodontal epithelium
B) Junctional epithelium
C) Sulcular epithelium
D) Both junctional and sulcular epithelia
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck Structures
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Q1) Which of the following ducts are located in the septum of the salivary gland?
A) Intercalated
B) Striated
C) Excretory
D) Both the intercalated and striated ducts
Q2) Where is the lingual tonsil located in the oral cavity?
A) Dorsal tongue surface
B) Lateral tongue surface
C) Walls of the nasopharynx
D) Between the faucial pillars
Q3) The connective tissue capsule surrounding the salivary gland is continuous with the connective tissue septa that run between the epithelial components,creating:
A) nodes and nodules.
B) ducts and acinus.
C) lobes and lobules.
D) channels and ducts.
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Chapter 12: Enamel
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Q1) Which of the following cell types are not renewable during the lifetime of the tooth?
A) Ameloblasts
B) Odontoblasts
C) Odontoclasts
D) Cementoblasts
Q2) The crystals in the enamel rod groups bend sinusoidally to the right or left at a slightly different angle than do adjacent groups,which is shown in the:
A) Tomes granular layer.
B) Hunter-Schreger bands.
C) lines of Retzius.
D) imbrication lines of von Ebner.
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with the incremental nature of enamel?
A) Tomes granular layer
B) Lines of Retzius
C) Perikymata
D) Imbrication lines
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Chapter 13: Dentin and Pulp
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Q1) Which zone in the pulp contains a nerve and capillary plexus?
A) Odontoblastic layer
B) Cell-rich zone
C) Pulpal core
D) Cell-free zone
Q2) The most common cell type in connective tissue such as the pulp is the:
A) endothelial cell.
B) fibroblast.
C) white blood cell.
D) odontoblast.
Q3) Lateral pulp canals within the pulp chamber extend:
A) from pulp tissue to the periodontal ligament.
B) vertically toward the cementum.
C) between two pulp canals, as a bridge.
D) from the chamber, parallel to another canal.
Q4) During cavity preparation of a tooth,care must be taken to preserve the:
A) enamel rod fluid.
B) support of the dentinal tubules.
C) cemental vascularity.
D) vitality of the pulp.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Periodontium: Cementum, Alveolar Process, and Periodontal Ligament
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Q1) Cellular cementum is most likely found around which of the following root regions?
A) Cervical part of the root
B) Entire root of an unerupted tooth
C) Apical part of the root
D) Furcation region of the root
Q2) The most common cell in the periodontal ligament is the:
A) cementoblast.
B) fibroblast.
C) odontoclast.
D) osteoclast.
Q3) Which part of the periodontal ligament is noted to be wider in a healthy adult tooth?
A) Near the apex
B) Near the cervix
C) Both near the apex and cervix
D) Between the apex and cervix
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Chapter 15: Overview of Dentitions
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Q1) Which term is used to describe the method by which the teeth of the mandibular arch come into contact with those of the maxillary arch?
A) Embrasures
B) Occlusion
C) Palmer Notation Method
D) Ridges or cusps
Q2) The cementoenamel junction tooth is located at the border of the ____ third of the root.
A) horizontal
B) middle
C) cervical
D) apical
Q3) When two teeth in the same arch come into contact,the curvatures next to the contact areas form spaces considered:
A) line angles.
B) point angles.
C) height of contours.
D) embrasures.
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Chapter 16: Permanent Anterior Teeth
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Q1) Which of the following surfaces is considered the masticatory surface for permanent anterior teeth when newly erupted?
A) Incisal edge
B) Incisal ridge
C) Occlusal table
D) Cervical curvature
Q2) Which of the following teeth may have a linguogingival groove?
A) #7 and #8
B) #12 and #13
C) #24 and #25
D) #27 and #28
Q3) The lingual ridge is located ____ on the lingual surface of permanent maxillary canines.
A) mesiodistally
B) incisocervically
C) obliquely
D) cervically
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18
Chapter 17: Permanent Posterior Teeth
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Q1) Which of the following features helps distinguish the permanent right permanent maxillary second premolar from the left?
A) Mesial marginal groove present
B) Differing position of contact areas
C) Lingual cusp offset to mesial
D) Central groove shorter on its mesial part
Q2) Which of the following permanent teeth are usually the first to erupt into the oral cavity?
A) Maxillary central incisors
B) Mandibular central incisors
C) Maxillary first premolars
D) Mandibular first molars
Q3) How many pulp horns does the permanent maxillary second molar usually have?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
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19
Chapter 18: Primary Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features is noted concerning the hard dental tissue of a primary molar as compared to that of a permanent molar?
A) Thinner dentin between pulp chambers and enamel
B) Overall thinner enamel throughout the crown
C) Overall thicker dentin throughout the crown and root
D) Inconsistent enamel thickness throughout the crown
Q2) Which of the following complications are associated with extraction of primary molars?
A) Susceptible to fracture during extraction procedures
B) Concrescence with nearby canines
C) Dilaceration of the root trunk
D) Extra root branches
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct concerning when a child's first dental appointment should occur?
A) Within 1 year of the eruption of first primary tooth
B) No later than 12 months of age
C) Within 2 years of the eruption of first primary tooth
D) No later than 24 months of age
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Chapter 19: Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) During what weeks of prenatal development does the temporomandibular joint develop?
A) Fifth to sixth week
B) Sixth to eighth week
C) Tenth to eleventh week
D) Eleventh to twelfth week
Q2) Which of the following does not come in numbers of two on a person as it relates to the temporomandibular joint?
A) Number of joint discs in one joint
B) Number of bones involved in the one joint
C) Number of synovial cavities in each joint disc
D) Number of attachments of the poles of the joint to each condyle
Q3) Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the histology present in the temporal bone in the area of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Cancellous bone overlying compact bone
B) Outermost surface covered by endosteum
C) Innermost part consists of periosteum and medullary cavity
D) Surface covered by fibrocartilage
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Chapter 20: Occlusion
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Q1) Lateral deviation of the mandible,or lateral excursion,is evaluated by shifting the lower jaw:
A) forward.
B) backward.
C) upward.
D) side to side.
Q2) Which Angle classification of malocclusion in the permanent dentition is characterized by an ideal mesiodistal relationship of the jaws and dental arches?
A) Class I
B) Class II, division I
C) Class II, division II
D) Class III
Q3) Which of the following is (are) not considered part of the three areas of centric contacts or centric stops?
A) Height of contour
B) Marginal ridges
C) Central fossae
D) Occlusal pits
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