Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice introduces students to the foundational principles and clinical techniques essential for the effective promotion of oral health. This course covers topics such as oral anatomy, infection control, patient assessment, preventative dental care, and instrumentation skills. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient communication, and ethical responsibilities within dental hygiene. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and supervised clinical experiences, students develop the competencies necessary to provide comprehensive dental hygiene care and collaborate within a dental healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Haveles
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27 Chapters
1027 Verified Questions
1027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many years must pass after a drug patent expires before other drug companies can market the same compound as a generic drug?
A) 20 years
B) 17 years
C) 7 years
D) 0 years
Answer: D
Q2) The abbreviation used on prescriptions for four times a day is:
A) bid.
B) qid.
C) qd.
D) ud.
Answer: B
Q3) Refill instructions are found in the body of a prescription.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What route is used to administer the tuberculosis skin test?
A) Intramuscular
B) Intradermal
C) Intravenous
D) Subcutaneous
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not a subject of pharmacokinetics?
A) Physiologic action of drugs
B) Metabolism of drugs
C) Elimination of drugs
D) Absorption of drugs
Answer: A
Q3) The half-life of a drug is most related to its:
A) onset.
B) duration.
C) safety.
D) time to peak concentration.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the recommended solution for the adverse effect of nausea following administration of a drug?
A) Cease taking the drug.
B) Go outside and get some fresh air.
C) Take the drug with food or milk.
D) Take the drug at bedtime.
E) Seek medical attention.
Answer: C
Q2) A dose of a drug that kills 50% of experimental animals is termed:
A) ED .
B) minimally effective dose.
C) LD .
D) therapeutic index.
Answer: C
Q3) Type _____ hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic receptors are found in which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Central nervous system
B) Sympathetic nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
D) Neuromuscular junction
E) Adrenal medulla
Q2) Anticholinergics:
A) accelerate gastric emptying.
B) decrease esophageal and gastric motility.
C) cause miosis.
D) do not have an effect on heart rate.
Q3) Which of the following agents is being used to produce methamphetamine?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Pseudoephedrine
C) Dopamine
D) Dipivefrin
Q4) Pathways innervating smooth muscles and glands are considered afferent pathways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid (Nonnarcotic)Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-dose aspirin therapy is recommended for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) People who have had heart bypass surgery
B) Men aged 45 to 79 with no history of heart disease
C) Women aged 55 to 79 with no history of heart disease
D) A person with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Q2) Who is most likely to experience the most cases of accidental overdose with acetaminophen?
A) Infants
B) Children
C) Young adults
D) Older adults
Q3) Which of the following agents is known to have a drug interaction with lithium?
A) Aspirin
B) Naproxen
C) Acetaminophen
D) Oxycodone
Q4) Salicylism is a toxic effect from acetaminophen.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Opioid (Narcotic)Analgesics and Antagonists
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morphine is stronger than oxycodone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following drugs can be used to treat heroin addiction?
A) Hydromorphone
B) Methadone
C) Naltrexone
D) Both a and c
E) Both b and c
Q3) Which is the major symptom of opioid overdose?
A) Miosis
B) Mydriasis
C) Urticaria
D) Respiratory depression
Q4) A patient presents with itching and urticaria after codeine administration. This response most likely represents a:
A) pharmacologic action of codeine.
B) hypersensitivity reaction to codeine.
C) placebo effect from receiving codeine.
D) reaction unrelated to codeine administration.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibiotics is associated with photosensitivity?
A) Erythromycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Metronidazole
D) Aminoglycosides (e.g., streptomycin)
Q2) Which of the following choices is the dental hygienist's biggest dental problem in the adult patient?
A) Caries
B) Periodontal disease
C) Localized dental infection
D) Systemic dental infection
Q3) Azithromycin and clarithromycin:
A) cause lysis of the bacterial cell wall.
B) are not effective against anaerobes.
C) have a higher incidence of adverse reactions than erythromycin.
D) may be used as alternative antibiotics for the prophylaxis of endocarditis and prosthetic joint infections.
Q4) Metronidazole has antiinflammatory activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common FDA-approved use of interferons is for the treatment of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Emphysema
E) Sarcoidosis
Q2) The following statements are true of ketoconazole except which one?
A) Ketoconazole is an imidazole that is used in dentistry.
B) Hepatoxicity subsequent to the administration of ketoconazole is thought to be an idiosyncratic reaction.
C) Ketoconazole has a masculinizing effect by increasing testosterone levels.
D) At least 2 hours should pass between the ingestion of an antacid and the administration of ketoconazole.
E) Ketoconazole is available as a cream.
Q3) All currently available interferons are parenteral.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which local anesthetic agent is neither an ester nor an amide?
A) Propoxycaine
B) Dyclonine
C) Articaine
D) Lidocaine
Q2) The following states are characteristics of the salt form of a local anesthetic except which one?
A) Charged, cation (ionized)
B) Alkaline
C) Crystalline solid
D) Stable
Q3) The recommended concentration of epinephrine to combine with a local anesthetic is 1:200,000 for most procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Levonordefrin is commonly combined with which local anesthetic?
A) Lidocaine
B) Procaine
C) Mepivacaine
D) Bupivacaine
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion hypoxia may occur if insufficient 100% oxygen is delivered at the termination of a nitrous oxide procedure because:
A) the lungs are insufficiently inflated.
B) the loss of carbon dioxide could decrease ventilation.
C) nitrous oxide is highly soluble in blood.
D) nitrous oxide has a slow onset and recovery.
Q2) A patient for whom nitrous oxide is to be administered should be warned to avoid eating a large meal within _____ hours of the appointment.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q3) Nitrous oxide is contraindicated for use in a patient with which of the following conditions?
A) Diabetes
B) Emphysema
C) Hypertension
D) Glaucoma
E) None of the above
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which benzodiazepine is preferred for use in elderly patients?
A) Benzodiazepines that require phase I metabolism and not phase II metabolism
B) Benzodiazepines that require phase II metabolism and not phase I metabolism
C) Benzodiazepines that require both phase I and phase II metabolism
D) Benzodiazepines that require neither phase I nor phase II metabolism
Q2) Which of the following agents is a melatonin receptor agonist?
A) Buspirone
B) Zaleplon
C) Chloral hydrate
D) Ramelteon
E) Tizanidine
Q3) Which of the following agents may decrease the effectiveness of benzodiazepines?
A) Tobacco
B) Omeprazole
C) Valproic acid
D) Fluoxetine
Q4) Barbiturates have no significant analgesic effects.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pilocarpine is a(n)_____ agent that produces an increase in saliva.
A) adrenergic
B) antiadrenergic
C) cholinergic
D) anticholinergic
Q2) Acyclovir should not be used prophylactically to prevent minor outbreaks of herpes because excessive use may lead to resistant strains of herpes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Long-term exposure of the lip to _____ can cause irreversible tissue changes known as actinic cheilitis.
A) lipstick or lip gloss.
B) the sun.
C) alcohol.
D) cold wind.
Q4) The ulcerated area of ANUG begins at the marginal gingiva.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children that drink water with at least 1 ppm of fluoride and ingest fluoride supplements are at risk for developing chronic fluoride toxicity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of professionally applied NaF varnish?
A) NaF varnish is available in Europe but is not currently available in the United States as a dentin-desensitizing agent and as a cavity liner.
B) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)has approved the varnish for its anticaries effect.
C) The use of fluoride varnish for caries prevention has been endorsed by the ADA.
D) NaF varnish is available as a 5% solution.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning fluoride toxicity?
A) Both acute and chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
B) Acute but not chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
C) Chronic but not acute toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
D) Neither acute nor chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately _____% of people with hypertension are properly treated.
A) 20
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Q2) When a physician finds out that his female patient wishes to start a family, he decides to change her cholesterol-lowering medication. He changes her medication from:
A) niacin to simvastatin.
B) simvastatin to atorvastatin.
C) simvastatin to niacin.
D) gemfibrozil to candesartan.
Q3) Diuretics can produce _____, which can predispose a patient to serious arrhythmias. (Select all that apply.)
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypokalemia
C) hyperuricemia
D) hypouricemia
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents is the drug of choice for NSAID-induced ulcers?
A) Ranitidine
B) Misoprostol
C) Omeprazole
D) Metoclopramide
Q2) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)may be associated with a greater risk of Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of drugs work by blocking 5-HT3 receptors in the central nervous system and the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A) Laxatives
B) Antidiarrheals
C) Antiemetics
D) Antacids
E) Proton pump inhibitors
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Chapter 16: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents interferes with platelets?
A) Carbamazepine
B) Valproic acid
C) Ethosuximide
D) Both a and b
E) Both a and c
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding adverse reactions to antiepileptic agents?
A) These medications have a broad therapeutic index.
B) CNS depression is a common side effect of antiepileptic agents.
C) Central nervous system (CNS)depression will antagonize that of other sedative agents.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q3) Alopecia may be observed as an adverse effect of phenytoin, and carbamazepine can cause hirsutism.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true; the second part is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false; the second part is true.
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs): (Select all that apply.)
A) are considered first line therapy for the treatment of depression.
B) are considered superior to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
C) can induce withdrawal symptoms is abruptly discontinued.
D) are antipsychotic agents.
Q2) Abrupt withdrawal of serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)can lead to symptoms of:
A) urinary retention.
B) anxiety.
C) tachycardia.
D) sweating.
Q3) All of the following symptoms are "negative" (passive)symptoms of psychoses except for which one?
A) Flat affect
B) Vocalization of feelings of superhuman strength
C) Abstract thinking difficult
D) Social withdrawal
E) Thought and speech impaired
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Chapter 18: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inflammatory activity of the adrenocorticosteroids may cause them to mask the symptoms of an infection. Adrenocorticosteroids decrease a patient's ability to fight infection by suppression of migration of plasma cells.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning adrenal crisis?
A) Once adrenal suppression occurs, the adrenal gland will never respond normally again.
B) The adrenal crisis occurs because of a relative lack of corticosteroids during stress.
C) Administering adrenal steroids may be necessary after a stressful dental procedure to prevent adrenal crisis.
D) Problems generally occur with either low or very high doses, not in the mid-range.
Q3) Corticosteroids increase resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is used to treat persistent asthma and the bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema?
A) Theophylline
B) Ipratropium
C) Omalizumab
D) Cromolyn
Q2) Pseudoephedrine, _____ agonist, is used systemically as a nasal decongestant.
A) an -adrenergic
B) a -adrenergic
C) an -adrenergic and -adrenergic
D) neither an a-adrenergic nor a -adrenergic
Q3) _____ is the least toxic of all asthma medications.
A) Omalizumab
B) Cromolyn
C) Theophylline
D) Fluticasone
E) Zileuton
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Drugs for the Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sedation with antihistamines is additive with that caused by other CNS depressant drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following symptoms is the most common side effect associated with the older antihistamines? (Please note: all are associated, but one is most common)
A) Nausea
B) Xerostomia
C) Sedation
D) Constipation
Q3) Montelukast (Singulair)is a(n):
A) intranasal corticosteroid.
B) leukotriene modifier.
C) intranasal anticholinergic drug.
D) mast cell stabilizer.
E) oral decongestant.
Q4) Cromolyn sodium works by blocking acetylcholine receptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding systemic complications of diabetes?
A) Hypolipidemia is common in patients with diabetes.
B) Neuropathy is a complication of diabetes.
C) Gangrene can occur in peripheral extremities.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) Both b and c are true.
Q2) The most common adverse reaction associated with any insulin product is:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) intestinal stasis.
D) bradycardia.
Q3) Which of the following pancreatic hormones promotes fuel mobilization?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP; amylin)
D) Pancreatic peptide
Q4) Diabetes is the major cause of blindness in adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exophthalmos is a characteristic sign of:
A) cretinism.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) acromegaly.
D) dwarfism.
E) hyperprolactinemia.
Q2) In most homeostatic systems the hormone released has a negative feedback effect on the secretion of the hormone stimulating substance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is characteristic of diffuse toxic goiter?
A) It is also known as Plummer disease.
B) It is characterized by a diffusely enlarged, highly vascular thyroid gland.
C) It occurs primarily in older patients and usually arises from long-standing nontoxic goiter.
D) Both a and b are characteristics.
E) Both b and c are characteristics.
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Chapter 23: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the intraoral appearance of oral mucositis as a consequence of chemotherapy for cancer?
A) Lacy white lines that represent Wickham's striae
B) Mouth sores on the soft tissue of the tongue and inside the mouth
C) Single or small clusters of vesicles that quickly rupture, forming painful ulcers
D) Chronic, multiple oral ulcerations and a history of oral and skin blisters
Q2) Which of the following is a treatment option to alleviate symptoms of mucositis?
A) Injection of corticosteroids
B) Oral rinse of 2% viscous lidocaine
C) A 1-week course of oral antibiotics
D) Use of a chlorhexidine rinse
Q3) _____ effects are associated primarily with administration or vincristine (Oncovin)or vinblastine (Velban).
A) Gastrointestinal
B) Dermatologic
C) Neurologic
D) Immunosuppressant
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Chapter 24: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important component in the treatment of syncope is:
A) placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
B) exhibiting confidence in action and voice.
C) administering spirits of ammonia by inhalation.
D) placing the patient's head between his or her legs.
Q2) Which of the following reasons is why the chance of an emergency occurring in the dental office continues to increase?
A) The average age of the dental patient has increased.
B) Dental offices are administering more complicated regimens.
C) Dental appointments are taking longer than they used to take.
D) Dental patients are, on average, getting sicker.
E) All of the above are reasons.
Q3) Which of the following choices would be the correct sequence for administration of emergency drugs for anaphylactic shock: (1)albuterol, (2)parenteral epinephrine, (3)intravenous corticosteroids?
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 2
C) 2, 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 1
E) 3, 1, 2
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proving that a drug is teratogenic is difficult because:
A) drugs are uniformly teratogenic.
B) the timing of the drug exposure is consistent for each drug.
C) one drug can produce a variety of abnormalities, and different drugs can produce the same abnormality.
D) different animal species and humans are uniformly consistent in their responses to drugs.
Q2) Which of the following tetracyclines is (are)contraindicated in pregnancy: (1)tetracycline, (2)minocycline, (3)doxycycline?
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3
E) 1 only
Q3) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Drug Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations.
Q2) Which of the following are true of nicotine in smoking tobacco and smokeless tobacco? (Select all that apply.)
A) There are many other components of tobacco smoke that are harmful in addition to nicotine.
B) About one-half of the adult American population smokes cigarettes.
C) Chronic use of tobacco is causally related to many serious diseases, including coronary artery disease and oral and lung cancers.
D) Smokeless tobacco is a safe alternative to smoking cigarettes.
Q3) Which of the following choices is not a symptom of ethyl alcohol intoxication?
A) Constricted pupils
B) Impairment of judgment
C) Ataxia
D) Emotional lability
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Chapter 27: Natural/Herbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)exempts _____ from meaningful FDA regulation: (1)vitamins, (2)minerals, (3)botanical products, (4)domestic products?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2
Q2) Which of the following oral and dental effects have been observed with herbal medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) Intraoral hemorrhage
B) Xerostomia
C) Oral candidiasis
D) Stomatitis
Q3) Acemannan is available as an over-the-counter (OTC)topical patch to reduce the healing time of:
A) aphthous ulcers.
B) oral herpes lesions.
C) bullous lesions.
D) oral abrasions.
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