Dental Hygiene
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices necessary for maintaining optimal oral health. It covers the anatomy and physiology of the oral cavity, disease prevention, patient education, and the techniques required for effective dental cleaning and assessment. Students will learn about oral hygiene tools, infection control procedures, patient communication strategies, and the role of dental hygienists in promoting community health. The course prepares students for real-world clinical environments by integrating theoretical knowledge with hands-on experience, fostering the skills essential for a successful career in dental hygiene.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an administrator or manager not doing when referring to dental hygiene?
A) Planning
B) Staffing
C) Financial work
D) Directing
Answer: C
Q2) What is the collaborative practice conceptual model?
A) Dentist and dental hygienist work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public
B) Model describing the best methods of dentist and dental hygienist to work as a team
C) Model showing how collaboration produces better work
D) Dental hygienists and other healthcare professionals work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the following list, select those that should be part of documentation of the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have a deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to care
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
H) All of the above
Answer: H
Q2) Which of the following represents a human need deficit in the need for a biologically sound dentition?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) No dental examination in the last 2 years
C) Vital signs outside of normal limits
D) Mucogingival problems
E) Concern about confidentiality
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) Being a good consumer of research literature means you:
A) understand what you are reading.
B) can identify the level of evidence.
C) know how much confidence you can put into the findings.
D) Both a and c are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes EBDM from traditional decision making?
A) Client preferences or values
B) Clinical circumstances
C) Clinician's experience and judgment
D) Scientific evidence
E) All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of secondary prevention include the following dental hygiene interventions except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Screening for dental caries
B) Placing sealants on insipient dental caries
C) Demonstrating sulcular toothbrushing for gingivitis
D) Providing a tray fluoride for a person with dry mouth
E) Root surface debridement on a tooth with chronic periodontitis
Q2) The distribution of a mailbox announcement is representative of which health promotion strategy?
A) Mass media
B) Legislation
C) Health education
D) Community organization
E) Clinical intervention
Q3) Which of the following is a major descriptor defining health?
A) Absence of disease and/or infirmity
B) Ability to adapt and cope with one's environment
C) Merely the presence of physical and psychological ability
D) Condition as diagnosed by a healthcare professional
E) Being ensured of a long life
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q2) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q3) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message. A)True B)False
Q4) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q5) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Q6) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q7) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q8) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q9) Oral health and education may not be highly valued when food, shelter, and clothing are not readily available.
A)True
B)False Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cultural competence starts with:
A) awareness of the client's background and cultural beliefs and values.
B) understanding the client's perspective and social context.
C) applying a variety of communication skills to appeal to the client's identity.
D) awareness of one's own cultural beliefs and practices.
Q2) Statement 1: Health care literacy is the ability to understand health or disease. Statement 2: Poverty is not a barrier to access healthcare.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q3) If a client does not speak the language of the care provider, the best strategy to interact would be to:
A) use a medical interpreter with no relationship to the client.
B) speak slowly and ask client if he or she understands the instructions.
C) ask a family member to translate.
D) use body language to communicate you care.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electronic portfolio has the following advantages when compared to a paper based portfolio except e-portfolios are:
A) more adaptable over time.
B) more compact and portable.
C) easier to learn than a paper-based portfolio.
D) a "greener" approach to documenting work.
Q2) All references cited in a dental hygiene portfolio must be formatted according to the National Library of Medicine Style Guide. It is not necessary to reference sources obtained from the Internet if they are open access.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following uses would most likely be acceptable in a student's portfolio under the fair use doctrine?
A) The portfolio is open access on the Internet.
B) The image is a copyrighted source.
C) A large portion of an author's work is used.
D) An image from Creative Common's is used, with attribution.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following services can dental hygienists perform in a hospital setting?
A) bedside care to clients to ill to be transported to the dental clinic
B) care for person who are homebound
C) care for persons who are wheelchair bound
D) take radiographs
Q2) Most treatment areas have which of the following pieces of equipment:
A) storage cabinets
B) computers for scheduling
C) sink
D) alcohol hand rub
Q3) Water used for dental treatment should meet the nationally recognized standards set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for drinking water, which is ____ CFU/mL.
A) <10,000
B) <500
C) <600
D) <200
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The components of a personnel health infection-control program should include which of the following?
A) Infection control education and training for staff
B) Appropriate immunizations for vaccine-preventable diseases
C) Exposure prevention and postexposure management strategies
D) Policies regarding work-related illness and work restrictions
E) Confidentiality of work-related medical evaluations for staff
F) All of the above
Q2) Low- to intermediate-level disinfectants used to clean environmental surfaces:
A) rapidly inactivate human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis B virus on clinical contact and housekeeping surfaces.
B) must be FDA registered and appropriate to disinfect floors, depending on type of contamination.
C) do both of the above.
D) do neither of the above.
Q3) Transmission-based precautions may be necessary to prevent the spread of: A) varicella.
B) hepatitis B.
C) hepatitis C.
D) HIV.
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preparation of all dental personnel in the office for management of medical emergencies should include training and current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS), practice in medical emergency drills, and an annual refresher course in emergency medicine. All office personnel should have emergency numbers memorized for use when needed.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What are the three signs or symptoms of a mild (partial) airway obstruction?
A) Possible cyanosis
B) Good air exchange
C) Coughing forcefully
D) Wheezing
E) High-pitched noise while inhaling
F) Increasing respiratory difficulty
G) Victim makes universal sign of choking
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q2) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q3) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Q5) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health history questionnaire includes all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Reason for appointment
B) History of dental procedures
C) Medical problems experienced
D) Height, weight, date of birth
E) Record of missed appointments
Q2) Evidence based protocols used in the dental office can protect the office if litigation occurs following a decision made for clinical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the health history reveals the client has had a prior unpleasant dental experience that has caused dental phobia, what is the most likely potential emergency situation?
A) Asthmatic attack
B) Seizure
C) Vasovagal syncope
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have taken the client's blood pressure and your readings taken 10 minutes apart are 150/116. When the client came in last week, the blood pressure was 120/80. According to blood pressure guidelines, what will the dentist recommend to the client?
A) The client should be referred for a medical consult before dental treatment.
B) The client should be referred for a medical consult after dental treatment.
C) No medical consult is needed; treat as usual.
Q2) Which of the following is a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?
A) <80/>150
B) >95/<120
C) <120/>80
D) <120/<80
Q3) The client's blood pressure is in the hypertensive range. All of the following could be attributed to the high blood pressure except: A) anxiety.
B) recent tobacco use.
C) white coat syndrome.
D) running to the appointment.
E) presyncope.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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Sample Questions
Q1) What field studies the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs?
A) Pharmacokinetics
B) Pharmacodynamics
C) Pharmacogenomics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Q2) All of the following characteristics apply to drug side effects except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Reversible
B) Tolerable
C) Dose-related
D) Unpredictable
Q3) Which FDA pregnancy category represents the highest degree of risk to the fetus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) X
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17
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer corner where the upper and lower eyelid meet is called the outer or lateral: A) commissure.
B) canthus.
C) supraorbital ridge.
D) nasion.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common site in the oral cavity for squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Attached gingiva
B) Hard palate
C) Lateral border of the tongue
D) Lower lip
Q3) Which of the following can be noted of a client during initial appraisal that gives an indication of deafness or stroke history?
A) Wearing long pants
B) Increased weight gain
C) Slurred speech
D) Wearing clear glasses
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring for furcation involvement, which of the following classes is described by the probe passing completely through the furcation, but the furcation is not clinically visible?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q2) In normal occlusion, the maxillary incisors are lingual to the mandibular incisors. The horizontal distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is known as the overbite.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Abrasion is the wearing of tooth by what mechanism?
A) By dissolution of organic matrix
B) By tooth to tooth contact
C) By forces other than mastication
D) By wearing of tooth by a chemical process
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used disclosing ingredient is:
A) methylene blue.
B) erythrosine dye.
C) formaldehyde.
D) fluorescein dye.
Q2) Retention and control of oral plaque is influenced by various contributory factors. Select all of the factors that influence oral biofilm retention and its removal.
A) Poorly contoured restorations
B) Widened periodontal ligament (PDL) spaces
C) Malpositioning of teeth
D) Intrinsic tooth stains
Q3) A dental index converts specific clinical observations into a numeric value (score) to measure the level of oral hygiene of an individual or population. A high numeric value or index score indicates good oral hygiene.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with frank carious lesions, radiographic approximal lesions, white spot lesions, or restorations in the past 3 years should have a saliva and a bacterial culture taken. All patients should have a salivary flow rate test for caries risk assessment.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Select all of the caries risk factors.
A) Medium or high Streptococcus mutans count
B) Medium to high Lactobacillus count
C) Moderate plaque deposits on teeth
D) Saliva flow greater than 1 mL/min stimulated
E) Exposed roots
F) Deep pits and fissures
G) Frequent snack use greater than 3 times a day
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Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds and attaches the tooth roots to the alveolar bone is:
A) cementum.
B) dentin.
C) unattached gingiva.
D) periodontal ligament (PDL).
Q2) Which of the following is a local contributing factor to periodontal disease?
A) Subgingival margin placement of a crown
B) Bleeding on probing
C) Financial stress
D) Past history of periodontitis
Q3) Each of the following types of radiographs could be used for periodontal disease assessment except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Periapical
B) Panoramic
C) Horizontal bitewing
D) Vertical bitewing
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22
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilator-associated pneumonias:
A) occur most often in patients receiving care in an intensive care unit (ICU) for prolonged hospital care.
B) occur when the breathing tube becomes colonized by microorganisms from the mouth and oropharynx.
C) can be reduced by performing oral hygiene procedures on ICU patients.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels that lead to coronary heart disease are also the main cause of which of the following?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Nonhemorrhagic stroke
E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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23
Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client's assessed blood pressure was 140/90 mm Hg. Given the client's race, weight, smoking behavior, and periodontal health status, what systemic disease is this client most at risk for?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Respiratory disease
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) The dental hygiene diagnosis can be based on just one sign or symptom. This is to simplify the dental hygiene diagnostic process.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The dental hygiene diagnosis is written in a three-part statement that includes all of the following except:
A) unmet human need.
B) cause.
C) length of time the patient has had the problem.
D) defining characteristics (signs and symptoms).
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Q1) A well-written, client-centered goal will have a subject, verb, criteria for measurement, and a specified time dimension. Which of the following best describes the selection of a verb?
A) The action desired of the client to achieve the desired outcome
B) Desired observable behavior of outcome
C) Who is responsible for performing the action
D) When the desired outcome will be achieved
Q2) Which phase of the process of care defines the evaluation strategies that will be applied to measure the success of the care plan in achieving the desired outcomes?
A) Assessing
B) Diagnosing
C) Planning
D) Implementing
E) Evaluation
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25
Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angled, rather than vertical, bristle tuft arrangements have been shown to contribute significantly to more effective plaque removal because they reach farther interproximally.
Toothbrushing alone can clean the entire interproximal tooth surface, so interdental cleaning
Augments are not needed.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What is the recommended duration of toothbrushing?
A) 1 minute
B) 1 1/2 minutes
C) 2 minutes
D) 2 1/2 minutes
E) 3 minutes
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and
Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Q1) An end-tufted toothbrush is most effective in which of the following areas?
A) Around an orthodontic bracket cemented to the maxillary right first molar
B) Between two maxillary molars with a type I embrasure area
C) On the facial surface of a protruded mandibular central incisor
D) Under a removable partial denture that replaces several mandibular teeth
Q2) Which of the following aids should be discarded after one use?
A) Floss threader
B) Rubber tip stimulator
C) Toothpick holder
D) Wooden wedge/triangular toothpick
Q3) The dental water jet reduces the host inflammatory response; however, this has no impact on periodontal disease activity.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Q1) Sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS) may cause:
A) a metallic taste in the mouth.
B) a prickling sensation on the tongue.
C) aphthous ulcers.
D) a burning sensation.
Q2) The pH of a dentifrice is a protective factor. The pH of a dentifrice is a risk factor.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following two products are incompatible?
A) Sorbitol and vegetable oils
B) Essential oils and mint oils
C) Sodium lauryl sulfate and chlorhexidine
D) Triclosan and pyrophosphate
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Q1) When selecting an instrument to scale heavy calculus deposits, which of the following must be considered?
A) Length of the shank
B) Angle of the shank
C) Strength of the shank
D) Texture and shape of the shank
Q2) Important factor(s) to consider in a probe design that is too fine and sharp is (are) the following?
A) Subject to damage during sterilization procedures
B) Trauma due to perforation of the nonkeratinizing epithelium junction
C) Patient comfort and safety
D) All of the above
Q3) Straighter shanked instruments are used mainly for anterior areas: however, what type of fulcrum will allow these instruments to be used in posterior areas?
A) Same arch
B) Opposite arch
C) Cross arch
D) Finger on finger
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Q1) Working end wear of inserts and tips results in which of the following?
A) Frequency adjustment problems
B) Lack of efficiency
C) Limited cavitation
D) Need for decreased power settings
E) Inadequate water flow for cooling
Q2) One of the major differences between the piezoelectric ultrasonic instrument and the magnetostrictive ultrasonic instrument is which of the following?
A) The purpose of the water that is emitted at the working end
B) The surfaces of the working end that are adapted to the tooth
C) The frequency used
D) The type of stroke employed when activating
E) The power used
Q3) All of the following are contraindications for use of ultrasonic instrumentation except:
A) cardiovascular disease with secondary pulmonary disease.
B) communicable diseases.
C) multiple dystrophy with dysphagia.
D) chronic pulmonary disease with a history of acute conditions.
E) cardiac pacemaker.
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Q1) The CEJ has the most proximal incisal/occlusal curvature on which of the following teeth?
A) Incisors
B) Canines
C) Premolars
D) Molars
Q2) The proximal surfaces of roots that are narrower on the lingual than the facial surface are more readily approached from the lingual because there is more proximal space there for the adaptation of instruments.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the clinical crown of a tooth is true?
A) It is that part of a tooth covered with enamel.
B) It is only that part of the tooth that can be seen in the oral cavity.
C) Its apical limit is determined by the gingival margin.
D) It may include the anatomic crown and part of the anatomic root.
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Q1) All of the following oral conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing with aluminum trihydroxide air-polishing powder except:
A) composites.
B) recession.
C) glass ionomer restorations.
D) porcelain veneers.
E) intact enamel.
Q2) All of the following are contraindicated when teeth are polished with a rubber cup and prophylaxis paste except:
A) rapid speed.
B) coarse paste.
C) air-polishing agents.
D) heavy pressure.
E) wet field.
Q3) All of the following client conditions contraindicate tooth bleaching except:
A) hypertension.
B) pregnancy.
C) nursing mothers.
D) enamel cracks.
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Page 32
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Laser therapy may prove useful in NSPT in the future for which of the following?
A) Gingival curettage
B) Elimination of subgingival periodontal pathogens
C) Assisted periodontal debridement
D) Periodontal debridement therapy
E) Antimicrobial therapy
Q2) The therapeutic endpoint for nonsurgical periodontal therapy includes all of the following except:
A) reduction of pocket depth.
B) restoration of gingival health.
C) elimination of infectious microorganisms.
D) improved or stable clinical attachment level.
E) significant reduction in bleeding on probing.
Q3) Periodontal diagnosis is determined by analyzing disease characteristics including all of the following except:
A) extent.
B) severity.
C) classification.
D) bleeding on probing.
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subantimicrobial systemic dose of antibiotics refers most closely to which of the following statements?
A) Antibacterial with shifts in normal periodontal flora
B) Used for relatively short periods of time
C) Administration of a reduced quantity of drug for alternative purposes
D) Used in clients normally sensitive to antibiotics
Q2) All of the following describe the research guidelines provided by the ADA Council on Scientific Affairs except:
A) study population should be representative of typical users.
B) studies should be at least 2 months long.
C) study product should be used in its normal regimen.
D) at least two studies should be conducted by independent researchers.
Q3) Which of the following is the term used to describe the needlelike tip used for professional irrigation?
A) Jet tip
B) Cannula
C) Irrigant
D) Microsphere
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of necrotizing periodontal diseases?
A) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae, pain, and spontaneous gingival bleeding
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in the palate
D) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms.
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Page 35
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a way to decrease the pathologic factors for caries management?
A) Explaining the caries process
B) Teaching brushing and flossing
C) Reducing caloric intake
D) Using a 0.12% chlorhexidine rinse to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
E) Using xylitol gum to reduce the numbers of S. mutans
Q2) Place the following procedural steps in order from first step to last step. Your answer should appear with commas and spaces (e.g. A, B, C, D, E, F, G).
A) Explain the benefits of fluoride and obtain informed consent.
B) Load fluoride into trays.
C) Place saliva ejector.
D) Try-in trays to select appropriate size.
E) Offer post-treatment instructions.
F) Insert both trays.
G) Dry the teeth.
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36
Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) When placing sealants on the maxillary teeth, the most effective device other than a rubber dam to reduce saliva contamination from the Stensen's duct is (are):
A) cotton rolls.
B) cotton rolls with a holder.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) high volume evacuation (HVE) only.
Q2) When applying a sealant material, use a small amount of material on the brush _____ the pits and fissures.
A) and dab into
B) and drag the material across
C) using a scrubbing motion apply to
D) using a sweeping motion apply to
Q3) When sealant materials were first introduced, which of the following problems were the most pronounced?
A) Retention
B) Lack of strength
C) Material difficult to manipulate
D) Irritation to tooth structure
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not recommended for nutritional counseling in the oral care setting?
A) Use plastic examples of food.
B) Provide nutritional counseling in the same area prophylaxis is performed.
C) Provide brochures about dietary guidelines and MyPlate.
D) Keep a set of measuring spoons on hand to demonstrate.
Q2) Nutritional counseling for dental caries prevention targets which of the following?
A) Consumption of nutrient dense foods
B) Decreased consumption of fermentable carbohydrates
C) Proper toothbrushing technique
D) Regularity of flossing
Q3) During pregnancy, a woman's caloric needs increase by approximately how many calories per day?
A) 0
B) 150
C) 350
D) 550
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the major aspects of nicotine addiction that sustain tobacco use?
A) Psychologic aspects
B) Behavioral aspects
C) Sensory aspects
D) Social-cultural aspects
E) All of the above
Q2) All of the following are nicotine replacement products except:
A) nicotine gum.
B) nicotine lozenge.
C) nicotine patch.
D) varenicline.
Q3) All of the following identify ways to help clients become tobacco-free except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Advising about the health benefits of chemicals added to tobacco
B) Advising of health risks with tobacco use
C) Advising about all aspects of nicotine addiction
D) Being supportive and assisting the client with problem solving
E) Advising about coping strategies
F) All of the above are appropriate ways.
G) Options b, c, d, and e are appropriate ways.
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Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) may lose water due to imbibition.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 1
Q2) Preliminary impressions were taken of Patty's arches and study casts constructed. These study casts may be used for:
A) documenting the client's dental arches as part of her permanent record.
B) enhancing the client's education as a visual aid.
C) constructing necessary custom-made oral appliances.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Silicone alginate-alternative impression materials are especially helpful when:
A) setting time is a concern.
B) elasticity is a concern.
C) dimensional stability is a concern.
D) multiple molds may be needed.
E) Both c and d are correct.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) part(s) of the rubber dam retainer?
A) Bow
B) Prongs
C) Forceps holes
D) All of the above
Q2) A Tofflemire retainer and metal matrix band would most likely be used to place what class of restoration?
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
Q3) Rubber dam placement is indicated for all of the following except:
A) moisture control.
B) visibility.
C) client protection.
D) client with severe asthma.
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behavior modification to decrease dentinal hypersensitivity would include all of the following except which one?
A) Use of a daily, self-applied fluoride mouth rinse or gel
B) Decreased intake of extreme hot and cold foods
C) Use of low-abrasive dentifrice
D) Periodontal surgery
Q2) Which of the following occurs most of the time with regard to the relationship between cementum and enamel?
A) Cementum overlaps enamel.
B) Cementum and enamel meet (no overlap).
C) Enamel overlaps cementum.
D) Enamel and cementum do not meet.
Q3) Dentinal hypersensitivity is most common on what region of the tooth?
A) Lingual
B) Buccal cervical
C) Facial
D) Occlusal
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client is scheduled for scaling and root planing of the upper right quadrant. You have administered the ASA, MSA, GP, and NP using a short 27-gauge needle and now are preparing to do the PS a. Before administering the PSA, you draw the needle across a piece of sterile gauze and it becomes caught on the gauze. You should clear the needle from the gauze and:
A) proceed with the injection.
B) take the opportunity to change to a long 27-gauge needle.
C) replace it with a new short 30-gauge needle so that the larger lumen decreases the difficulty for aspiration.
D) replace it with a new short 25-gauge needle because of the high risk of aspiration in this area of the mouth.
Q2) Which of the following are ways to decrease pain during an injection?
A) Apply a dime size amount of topical gel before needle insertion.
B) Remove the needle quickly after depositing solution.
C) Shake the tissue as you are inserting the needle.
D) Change the needle after 3 or 4 tissue penetrations.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oversedation with nitrous oxide may be manifested by which of the following?
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Allergic reaction
C) Tingling sensation
D) A slight heaviness in the client's chest
E) Both a and b
Q2) Nausea after nitrous oxide exposure may occur as a result of which of the following?
A) Titrating the levels of nitrous oxide delivered
B) Overoxygenating at the end of the appointment
C) Seesawing the nitrous oxide delivery
D) Turning off the nitrous oxide too quickly
E) All of the above
Q3) The flowmeters indicate that a client is receiving 4 L of nitrous oxide and 6 L of oxygen. What is the client's tidal volume?
A) 4 L
B) 6 L
C) 10 L
D) 2 L
E) 7 L
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason why most disabled people do not have access to dental care is they:
A) are unable to pay for their dental work.
B) do not care about their dental health.
C) are unable to travel to a dental office.
D) are unable to find a dentist who will treat them.
Q2) According to the Americans with Disability Act, the term disability is associated with a limitation in a major life activity. Major life activities can include learning, thinking, interacting with others, and the operation of major bodily functions.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following should be taken into consideration when treating a patient who is totally blind except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Greet the client by grasping their hand.
B) Allow the client to smell and feel materials that are to be used.
C) Instruct the client to leave the guide dog in the waiting area.
D) Explain to the client the location of the dental operatory.
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Page 45
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clients receiving antihypertensive drug therapy may experience all of the following except:
A) orthostatic hypotension.
B) xerostomia.
C) metallic taste.
D) fatigue.
Q2) The following are risk factors for cardiovascular disease. One of the risk factors is nonmodifiable; the remaining risk factors are modifiable. Which risk factor is nonmodifiable?
A) Professional stresses
B) Gender
C) Tobacco use
D) Obesity
E) Diet high in saturated fats
Q3) Which would be the most likely consequence of the client's delay in taking a sublingual dose of nitroglycerin?
A) Angina attack
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Hypertensive reaction
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of diabetes results from insulin resistance and a defect in insulin secretion?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
Q2) A scheduled client has diabetes and is showing symptoms of diabetes. The client reported recent test findings of a fasting blood glucose level greater than 126 mg/dL, and blood glucose levels greater than 200 mg/dL two hours after a meal. The dental hygienist should do which of the following?
A) Defer treatment and refer client to his or her physician.
B) Conduct a consultation with the physician to determine the best course of action.
C) Continue dental hygiene care.
D) Let the dentist provide the periodontal maintenance care.
Q3) Polydipsia is the term that describes excessive:
A) urination.
B) hunger or eating.
C) thirst.
D) glucose in the blood.
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What plaque-removal method is the best choice for a client who is experiencing painful chemotherapy-induced mucositis and large ulcers on the buccal mucosa?
A) Battery-powered toothbrush with small bristle head
B) Alcohol-based mouthwash
C) Saltwater rinse
D) Gauze or foam brush dipped in baking soda-saline solution
Q2) Which of the following oral infections is not caused by a decrease in immune response (immunosuppression) because of chemotherapy?
A) Dysphagial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Viral infection
D) Bacterial infection
Q3) All of the following are considered to be a palliative measure for radiation-induced xerostomia except:
A) chlorhexidine rinse (0.12%).
B) saliva substitute.
C) humidified room air.
D) salivary gland stimulant.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) A known HIV-positive patient is noted to have painless bleeding of the gingiva with minimal manipulation, as well as halitosis and gingival inflammation. Which of the following treatments will likely be helpful?
A) Twice daily 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate rinses
B) Twice daily hydrogen peroxide rinses
C) Encouragement to brush and floss daily
D) Nystatin mouthrinse by prescription
E) No treatment is needed.
Q2) A dental hygiene practitioner experiences a percutaneous exposure with a large-bore hollow needle while performing irrigation on a patient. Before undergoing care, the patient had stated that he had never been tested for HIV, but that he had used injection drugs in the distant past. What is the best course of action?
A) Wash the puncture site with warm water.
B) Obtain HIV tests on the patient and practitioner to determine next steps.
C) Consider starting single-agent PEP while awaiting HIV test results.
D) Consider starting double-agent PEP while awaiting HIV test results.
E) Consider starting triple-agent PEP while awaiting HIV test results.
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Sample Questions
Q1) When treating stroke survivors, it is best to wait on any elective dental care for which period of time after the incident?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 3 years
E) Delaying treatment is not necessary.
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes Bell palsy?
A) Facial paralysis caused by a cranial nerve deficit
B) Malformation resulting from an incomplete neural tube formation
C) Uncoordinated ambulation and seizures that lead to frequent falls
D) Developmental disturbance resulting in a distorted facial appearance
Q3) Approximately what percentage of persons receiving phenytoin experience gingival enlargement?
A) 1%
B) Less than 25%
C) 50%
D) More than 75%
E) 100%
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Page 50
Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select three primary factors that are necessary for the development of autoimmunity.
A) Genetic mutations
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Cytokinetic response
D) Infection
E) Trauma
F) Hemorrhage
G) Immunohistoincompatibility
Q2) Select the options that should be part of documentation for the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have autoimmune disease.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to treatment
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemodialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the patient's blood is cleansed:
A) through the peritoneal lining of the stomach.
B) a few ounces at a time while pumped through a special filter.
C) using a chemical detoxifying agent.
D) using heat.
Q2) All of the following are special precautions taken by the dental hygienist with persons on peritoneal dialysis except which one?
A) Receive medical clearance.
B) Never take blood pressure readings in the dialysis access arm.
C) Consider delaying or modifying therapy if heparin has been administered in the previous 24 hours.
D) Determine need for antibiotic premedication before invasive dental procedures.
Q3) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multi-drug resistant tuberculosis is a mild form of tuberculosis, which is often caused by low patient compliance.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) If asthma symptoms persist after administering a client's bronchodilator, what action should be taken?
A) Administer oxygen and epinephrine, monitor vital signs, and call for assistance.
B) Lay the client supine, administer epinephrine, and release the client to travel to the hospital.
C) Check the client's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs); monitor vital signs; and call for assistance.
D) Ask the client to lean over the back of a chair, monitor vital signs, and call for assistance.
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53
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a mild form of autism characterized by impairment in social interactions without significant problems in language, cognitive ability, or age-appropriate developmental skills; persons are socially awkward, do not understand the use of gestures, lack empathy, avoid eye contact, and seem unengaged.
A) Autistic disorder (classic autism)
B) Childhood disintegrative disorder
C) Rett syndrome
D) Asperger's syndrome
Q2) The most severe form of autism in which the person has difficulty talking and relating to others and the environment and displays compulsive, ritualistic behaviors are referred to as:
A) autistic disorder (classic autism).
B) childhood disintegrative disorder.
C) Rett syndrome.
D) Asperger's syndrome.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) Select all intraoral methamphetamine mouth signs.
A) Rampant decay
B) Xerostomia
C) Bruxism
D) Severe gingivitis
Q2) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:
A) 12 to 14.
B) 18 to 25.
C) 20 to 35.
D) 40 to 55.
E) 50 to 59.
Q3) A client presents with a history of alcoholism. The dental hygienist should consider all of the following except:
A) expect wound healing delay.
B) expect prolonged bleeding for invasive procedures.
C) consult client's primary care physician before invasive therapy.
D) refer client to a treatment facility.
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the dental hygienist-client discussion, all of the following nonverbal clues may provide additional evidence to support the suspicion of an eating disorder except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Loss of eye contact
B) Absolute denial
C) Discomfort with questioning
D) Tearfulness
E) Suppressed humor
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the initial professional response of the dental hygienist whose client states that he or she has begun active treatment for an eating disorder?
A) Expect client will make steady progress with the disorder.
B) Commend the client for seeking therapy.
C) Suggest tooth prophylaxis for removal of stains.
D) Inform the client of evidence of dental trauma.
E) Tell the client to cease all purging behaviors.
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Teratogens are harmful environmental risk factors that may include various drugs, _____, infections, and/or radiation.
A) vitamins
B) highly spiced foods
C) chemicals
D) allergens
Q2) Few anxiolytics are safe during pregnancy; however, a single exposure to N O-O analgesia for no more than 30 minutes is considered to be safe.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) When does the endogenous sex steroid hormone gingival disease occur?
A) As estrogen and progesterone levels rise
B) As estrogen and progesterone levels decrease
C) In infants and children
D) In postmenopausal women
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Page 57
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic conditions most commonly seen in the elderly include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Arthritis
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes
D) Scurvy
E) Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F) Hepatitis A
G) HIV disease
Q2) All of the following are expected to decline normally in aging except:
A) vision.
B) hearing.
C) thickness of epithelium.
D) salivary function.
Q3) Many older clients may benefit from daily use of a nonalcoholic mouth rinse to:
A) reduce periodontal disease.
B) reduce oral malodor.
C) assist in the removal of plaque biofilm.
D) increase salivary flow.
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Page 58
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium hypochlorite cleansers should be avoided with dentures that have:
A) acrylic components.
B) metal components.
C) porcelain components.
D) staining.
Q2) The two components of a fixed partial dental prosthesis are a(n) _____ and a(n) _____.
A) bridge; pontic
B) pontic; clasp
C) clasp; abutment
D) abutment; pontic
Q3) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a fractured jaw?
A) Deformed mandible
B) Malocclusion
C) Painful swelling at injury site
D) Difficulty closing
Q2) An individual suffering from a fractured jaw and subsequent surgery will experience what percentage loss of body weight?
A) 2%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Q3) Facial fractures resulting from motor vehicle accidents can be prevented, because wearing seat belts and obeying speed limits are safety measures.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents will help in the maintenance of the implant?
A) Combination of 1% chlorhexidine and 1% thymol
B) Solution of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate
C) Arestin
D) Fluoride varnish
Q2) All of the following instruments can be used by the dental hygienist to maintain the dental implant except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Air-polishing device
B) Gold-tipped Gracey instrument
C) Wood-tipped or porte polisher
D) Teflon-coated scaler
Q3) All of the following are contraindicated on dental implants except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Metal-tip inserts of sonic and ultrasonic instruments
B) Air abrasive systems
C) Gold-tipped scaling instruments
D) Rubber-cup polishing with flour of pumice or course grit abrasive paste
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mild crowding of the permanent mandibular incisors may resolve after the age of 10 for which of the following reasons?
A) The permanent mandibular incisors are only slightly larger in size than the primary mandibular incisors. Normal growth of the anterior region of the mandible provides more than adequate room for the permanent incisors by the age of 12.
B) The presence of primate space distal to the mandibular canines allows space for the mandibular canines to move distally, creating more room for the mandibular incisors and alleviating mild crowding problems.
C) The tongue will force the permanent incisors facially, creating adequate room to resolve any problems of crowding.
D) It is not possible for even mild crowding of the permanent mandibular anterior teeth to resolve at this time because adequate growth of the anterior region of the mandible has not occurred.
Q2) Serial extraction and palatal expansion therapies are completed to:
A) achieve closure of maxillary anterior diastemas.
B) maintain space when a primary tooth is lost prematurely.
C) treat severe crowding problems.
D) do none of the above.
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62
Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Dental hygienists' low reporting of child abuse and neglect may reflect:
A) a lack of information on how to recognize signs of abuse and neglect.
B) a lack of separation of dental hygienists' reports from other healthcare professional reports.
C) a lack of knowledge on how to report child maltreatment.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following types of abuse varies from state to state regarding the dental hygienist's responsibility as a mandated reporter?
A) Elder maltreatment and domestic violence
B) Child and vulnerable adult abuse
C) Human trafficking
D) Child and vulnerable adult neglect
E) Both b and d
Q3) Some of the typical sites for inflicted injuries of abuse are:
A) cheeks.
B) neck.
C) genitals.
D) lower back.
E) all of the above.
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Page 63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) Hospice is a place where patients go at the end-of-life. It exists to provide compassion, support, and care for persons in the last phases of terminal illness.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Select four oral complications found among patients in palliative care.
A) Crossbite
B) Mucositis
C) Candidiasis
D) Overjet
E) Xerostomia
F) Ulcers
Q3) Which risk factor(s) for the onset of xerostomia is most important?
A) Anxiety
B) Dehydration
C) Salivary gland disease
D) Medications and drug therapies
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64
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Office policies are a great communication tool for both clients and staff, because it is a way of stating the office philosophies and expectations for all parties involved.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Practice management includes all the following except:
A) facilitating high quality care.
B) efficient use of time.
C) reduced stress of employees and clients.
D) increased supervision of employees.
E) enhanced professional satisfaction.
Q3) The most effective marketing strategy for practice promotion is:
A) sales flyers.
B) free seminars.
C) client referral.
D) print advertising.
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65
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) What type of employment is it for an employee that works solely in one office, or for one employer in multiple offices, for a customary number of hours, normally, 30 to 40 hours per week?
A) Temporary
B) Full-time
C) Probationary
D) Job sharing
E) Part-time
Q2) What is the minimum amount of notice that should be given to the employer in the event of resignation?
A) 1 week
B) 7 work days
C) 2 weeks
D) 2 months
E) 6 months
Q3) Personal testimonies to a job candidate's competence and character is a(n):
A) mentor.
B) character witness.
C) reference.
D) advisor.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
Q2) In the scenario described, if a civil lawsuit were filed and a trial occurred, which of the following levels of proof would the jury or judge use in determining if the dental hygienist was guilty of negligence?
A) Substantial proof
B) Beyond a reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof of intent
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