Dental Hygiene Radiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Radiology introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices of dental radiography as essential tools in oral health care. The course covers the history, physics, and biological effects of radiation, emphasizing radiation safety and protection for both patients and practitioners. Students learn techniques for exposing, processing, and evaluating intraoral and extraoral radiographic images, with a focus on accurate image acquisition for diagnosis and treatment planning. Practical sessions develop proficiency in using radiographic equipment and interpreting dental radiographs, while also addressing infection control, patient communication, and legal aspects of dental imaging.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) The release of electrons from the hot tungsten filament at the cathode is called the
Answer: thermionic emission effect
Q2) If a radiograph is described as "underpenetrated," then the error must be:
A)excessive kVp
B)too little mA
C)excessive mA
D)too little kVp
Answer: D
Q3) Because of the alternating current supplied to the x-ray tube it is considered to be _______.
Answer: self-rectified
Q4) Identify the metal used in the focal spot of the x-ray tube:
A)tungsten
B)molybdenum
C)copper
D)iron
Answer: A
Q5) The quality of the x-ray photons is determined by the __________.
Answer: kilovoltage
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using the bisecting method the object-film distance is kept to a
Answer: minimum
Q2) All of the following will keep the penumbra as small as possible EXCEPT:
A)small focal spot
B)small OFD
C)angulation of the target
D)decreased FFD
Answer: D
Q3) Long-scale contrast gives the radiograph a (an):
A)black and white appearance
B)gray appearance
C)underpenetrated appearance
D)fogged appearance
Answer: B
Q4) The most common cause of lack of detail on a radiograph is __________.
Answer: patient movement
Q5) In order to increase the contrast on a radiograph one should ________ the kVp. Answer: decrease
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
Q2) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
Q3) Film fog may be caused by:
A)exhausted processing solutions
B)improper safelight conditions
C)unprotected storage of films
D)all of the above
Q4) The lead foil backing is included in the intraoral film packet:
A)to absorb back-scattered radiation
B)to help keep the film packet light-tight
C)to hold the film in place
D)to protect the film from saliva
Q5) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
Q6) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q7) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation caries is most often seen on teeth:
A)interproximally
B)on occlusal surfaces
C)at the cervical area circumferentially
D)on the incisal edges
E)around crowns
Q2) To further protect our patients from excessive exposure to radiation in dental procedures, the ADA recommends the use of:
A)F-speed film and/or digital sensors
B)the use of selection criteria in ordering radiographic exams
C)rectangular collimation
D)all of the above
Q3) All of the following tissues are considered radiosensitive EXCEPT:
A)lens of the eyes
B)thyroid gland
C)nerve tissue
D)reproductive cells
Q4) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q5) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) The removal of the long wavelength, low energy x-ray photons from the beam is the job of the:
A)collimator
B)filters
C)insulating oil
D)open-ended cone
Q2) Using E-speed film (instead of D-speed film)reduces the radiation exposure to the patient by approximately:
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)nearly 100%
Q3) An x-ray machine that has tube-head drift may produce dental images that are:
A)distorted
B)blurred
C)cone-cut
D)all of the above
Q4) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
Q5) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q2) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q3) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
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8
Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Sample Questions
Q1) The washing step between the developer and fixer solution usually lasts approximately 20 seconds. It is safe to open the darkroom door during this time period.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) Cell phones should not be used in the darkroom because:
A)the illumination from the phone could cause film fog or expose the film
B)talking on the phone while processing radiographs is confusing
C)the phone could be dropped into the processing solutions
D)the operator may inadvertently open the darkroom door while processing
Q3) Identify the best way to check for light leaks in the darkroom:
A)stand inside the darkroom in complete darkness
B)paint the walls black
C)check the tightness of the lids for the processing tanks
D)process several films and check for film fog
Q4) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Q5) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
Page 9
Q6) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a practice in which there are many HIV-positive patients, the film rollers in automatic processors should be:
A)scrubbed with an abrasive cleaner every day
B)autoclaved every day
C)disinfected after every use
D)treated in the usual acceptable manner
Q2) Barrier pack films:
A)need higher kVp
B)need more mAs
C)should only be used for the bisecting method
D)none of the above
Q3) Barrier envelopes should be used for:
A)all patients
B)patients with a positive medical history
C)patients who are bleeding
D)patients with contaminated saliva
Q4) Anything one touches after working in the patient's mouth is considered to be
Q5) Infection control procedures should be followed for __________ patients.
Page 10
Q6) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Identify the film placement most likely to excite the gag reflex:
A)maxillary central incisors
B)mandibular canine
C)maxillary molars
D)mandibular molars
Q2) Identify the film that shows the teeth in occlusion with only the crowns visible:
A)bitewing
B)periapical
C)occlusal
D)cephalometric
Q3) When the PID is not positioned so that it almost touches the patient's face, a ________ film will result.
Q4) Identify the most common error seen with the paralleling technique:
A)overlapping
B)collimator cut-off
C)film placement
D)elongation
Q5) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
Q6) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ exposure times can be used for the bisecting technique because of the shorter FFD.
Q2) In the bisecting technique the tooth-film distance is:
A)maximal
B)minimal
C)not important
D)none of the above
Q3) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Q4) When compared with periapical films, topographic occlusal films have a __________.
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
Q6) A +75 degree vertical angulation for a maxillary cuspid will produce a (an)________ image.
Q8) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique. Page 12
Q7) A -5 degree vertical angulation for the lower incisors will produce a (an)________ image.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Static electricity artifacts appear as:
A)multiple black linear streaks
B)multiple clear linear streaks
C)fogged areas on the film
D)yellow-brown artifacts on the film
Q2) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
Q3) Indications for dental office tomography include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)placement of dental implants
B)diagnosis of interproximal caries
C)evaluation of the temporomandibular joint
D)diagnosis of pathologic lesions
Q4) All of the following are advantages of panoramic radiography EXCEPT:
A)patient cooperation
B)image quality
C)time of exposure
D)simplistic procedure
Q5) If the patient is not positioned properly in the focal trough, _____________ will result on the opposite side.
Page 14
Q6) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following methods is best for radiographing an impacted third molar?
A)posterior anterior
B)lateral oblique projection of the mandible
C)lateral skull
D)posterior anterior of the sinuses
Q2) Extraoral films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q3) Extraoral projections should use:
A)100 kVp
B)65 kVp
C)45 kVp
D)none of the above
Q4) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
Q5) If there is no cassette available, in an emergency a (an)___________ can be used to make a lateral oblique projection of the mandible.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
Q2) A conventional panoramic projection will show both the right and left joints in the: A)lateral plane
B)axial plane
C)cross-sectional plane
D)frontal plane
Q3) Images that are opaque on an image obtained by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)have a _________ hydrogen density and a _________ signal.
Q4) Four views of the TMJ can be seen by:
A)MRI
B)CT
C)arthrography
D)the transcranial technique
Q5) On the average, the exposure time at 65 kVp and 10 mA for a transcranial projection is:
A)7 to 10 impulses
B)7 to 10 seconds
C)7 to 15 impulses
D)7 to 15 seconds
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q2) A digital image is composed of structurally ordered areas called:
A)phosphors
B)signals
C)pixels
D)sensors
Q3) To "process" a full-mouth survey and a panoramic image by the storage phosphor technique takes about:
A)5 minutes
B)10 seconds
C)2 minutes
D)1 minute
Q4) Utilizing digital imaging, the operator should be standing at a minimum of:
A)one foot from the source of radiation
B)two feet from the source of radiation
C)six feet from the source of radiation
D)none of the above
Q5) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
Q6) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q7) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) The CT number for air is:
A)-1000
B)1000
C)0
D)500
Q2) MRI actually measures:
A)electron density
B)proton density
C)neutron density
D)all of the above
Q3) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
Q4) The wavelengths used in MRI are:
A)long
B)cannot cause ionization
C)do not produce a radiation dose to the patient
D)all of the above
Q5) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q6) A CT scan taken in the axial plane can be reformatted to the _______ and _________ planes.
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Q7) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality assurance programs include:
A)keeping accurate records
B)maintaining darkroom cleanliness
C)producing acceptable radiographs
D)all of the above
Q2) The _______ has published an outline of preventive procedures for radiographic systems.
Q3) An easy way to check solution strength in the darkroom is with:
A)a reference film
B)a step wedge
C)an ionizing chamber
D)a thermometer
Q4) ______________ is a plan of action to ensure that the radiographs produced have maximum diagnostic yield with minimal patient exposure.
Q5) QA programs for digital imaging include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)sensor cables should be carefully uncoiled each day
B)phosphor plates should be submerged in cold sterilizing solutions after each patient
C)the sensor and cable should not be clamped by a hemostat
D)the cable should be placed so that the operator chair does not roll over it
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q2) The tube shift technique is useful clinically in:
A)localizing objects in the third plane
B)treating handicapped patients
C)patients with trismus
D)radiographing gagging patients
Q3) All of the following are positive ways to relax the dental patient EXCEPT:
A)to recognize the patient by name
B)to develop a good chairside manner
C)to chew gum during radiographic procedures
D)using small talk prior to radiographic procedures
Q4) Good patient management techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)praising patients for good cooperation
B)ignoring patient questions regarding radiation dose
C)instructing patients in a firm but polite tone
D)instructing patients with confidence
Q5) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
Q6) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) All of the following landmarks will appear radiolucent EXCEPT:
A)ridge
B)concavity
C)foramen
D)concavity..
Q2) Identify the commonly-seen radiolucent landmark in the apical area of the mandibular premolars:
A)mental ridge
B)lateral fossa
C)mental foramen
D)incisive foramen
Q3) Mandibular landmarks visible on panoramic radiographs include:
A)mandibular condyle
B)condylar neck
C)sigmoid notch
D)all of the above
Q4) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of
Q5) On periapical radiographs the external oblique ridge is always seen __________ the internal oblique ridge.
Q6) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q2) Cysts and benign lesions usually grow:
A)rapidly
B)at no specific rate
C)slowly
D)at various rates
Q3) If a lesion is not seen in three planes:
A)the operator should dismiss the patient
B)no advanced imaging is needed
C)the operator should reschedule the patient's appointment
D)further imaging is needed
Q4) If all the borders of a lesion are not seen, the dental professional should:
A)recommend further imaging
B)retake the periapical
C)retake the bitewing
D)not take or recommend further radiographs
Q5) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q6) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
Q7) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Bitewing radiographs that have incorrect horizontal angulations will make interproximal caries detection:
A)easier
B)difficult
C)almost impossible
D)none of the above
Q2) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it ___________.
Q3) Radiographically, the alveolar crest appears more convex and pointed in the posterior areas. The alveolar crest appears flatter and smoother in the anterior areas.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q4) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q5) Interproximal caries is best seen on:
A)periapical films utilizing bisecting angle technique
B)occlusal radiographs
C)bitewing radiographs
D)panoramic radiographs
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Identify the radiographic sign of pulpitis in the pulp chamber:
A)the presence of additional pulp denticles
B)widened lamina dura
C)no radiographic changes are seen
D)changes in alveolar bone
Q2) Identify a possible cause(s)for the formation of secondary dentin:
A)pulp capping
B)attrition
C)deep dental caries
D)all of the above
Q3) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
Q4) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q5) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q6) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Radiographically in fusion we see:
A)two pulp canals
B)calcified canals
C)one pulp canal
D)all of the above
Q2) Dens "invaginatus" is:
A)an invagination of the enamel organ
B)usually at the point of the cingulum
C)not a "tooth within a tooth"
D)all of the above
Q3) After the tooth erupts, the dental papilla appears:
A)at the crown
B)buccal to the crown
C)lingual to the crown
D)at the forming apices
Q4) A supernumerary tooth in the midline is referred to as a (an):
A)odontoform
B)mesiodens
C)enamel pearl
D)taurodont
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q2) Bitewing projections cannot be used to detect:
A)periapical pathology
B)condensing osteitis
C)root fracture
D)all of the above
Q3) One way to differentiate a retained root tip radiographically is by the appearance of a
Q4) The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
A)mandibular molar periapical projection
B)lateral oblique projection
C)posterior anterior projection
D)right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
Q5) Fractures of the mandible will:
A)not be seen on periapical films
B)appear as radiopaque lines
C)appear as radiolucent lines
D)not be seen during the first 24 hours
Q6) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Explaining to the patient the nature and purpose of the dental radiographs is part of obtaining:
A)risk management
B)informed consent
C)maximum permissible dose
D)administrative radiographs
Q2) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q3) Treating a patient without proper radiographs is a breach of the:
A)law of ALARA
B)Inverse Square Law
C)MPD
D)standard of care
Q4) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Q5) Violations of the inspections of x-ray machines and radiation code may result in:
A)a warning given to the dentist
B)closing the dental practice for one month
C)suspension of a dentist's radiation permit
D)suspension of a dentist's license to practice
Q6) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
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