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Dental Hygiene Radiology Exam Answer Key - 811 Verified Questions

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Dental Hygiene Radiology

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Dental Hygiene Radiology is an essential course that introduces students to the principles and practices of dental radiography as it pertains to dental hygiene care. The course covers the fundamentals of radiation physics, radiation safety, and infection control, as well as techniques for exposure, processing, and mounting of dental radiographs. Students will gain both theoretical knowledge and practical skills in taking intraoral and extraoral radiographs, interpreting radiographic findings, and identifying anatomical landmarks and common dental pathologies. Emphasis is placed on minimizing patient exposure while producing high-quality diagnostic images, fostering a comprehensive understanding necessary for effective and safe radiographic practices in a dental hygiene setting.

Recommended Textbook

Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS

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35 Chapters

811 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Radiation History

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radiation is defined as:

A) A form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles.

B) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.

C) A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube.

D) A branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays.

Answer: A

Q2) The variable kilovoltage x-ray machine was introduced in:

A) 1895

B) 1913

C) 1923

D) 1957

Answer: D

Q3) William Rollins:

A) Established the first college course in radiography for dental students.

B) Was the first to use film in intraoral radiography.

C) Developed the first dental x-ray unit.

D) Developed the first hot cathode x-ray tube.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Radiation Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which component of the tubehead aims and shapes the x-ray beam?

A) Metal housing

B) Tubehead seal

C) Aluminum discs

D) Position-indicating device

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following statements is/are true of ionizing radiation?

A) It is radiation that is capable of producing ions by removing or adding an electron to an atom.

B) It is strictly an electromagnetic radiation and does not involve particles that have mass.

C) It may be classified as to whether it is particulate or electromagnetic radiation.

D) Both a and c.

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Radiation Characteristics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Aluminum filters:

A) Remove more penetrating x-rays from the beam.

B) Decrease the mean penetrating ability of the x-ray beam.

C) Remove high-energy x-rays from the beam.

D) Reduce the intensity of the x-ray beam.

Answer: D

Q2) When low kilovoltage peak settings are used (65 kVp to 70 kVp), a film with ____ will result.

A) high contrast

B) low contrast

C) many shades of gray

D) Both a and c

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the use of voltage in dental x-ray equipment?

A) Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of 3 to 5 volts.

B) Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of less than 65 kilovolts.

C) Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of more than 100 kilovolts.

D) Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of 65 to 100 kilovolts.

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Radiation Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Uranium is an example of ____ radiation.

A) terrestrial

B) cosmic

C) artificial

D) Both a and c

Q2) A nonthreshold dose-response curve suggests that:

A) Below a threshold amount of radiation, no biologic damage occurs.

B) Below a threshold amount of radiation, a safe amount of biologic damage occurs.

C) Above a threshold amount of radiation, some biologic damage occurs.

D) No matter how small the amount of radiation received, some biologic damage occurs.

Q3) Which of the following modifications in technique will reduce patient exposure to radiation during dental radiographic procedures?

A) Use of D-speed rather than F-speed film

B) Round rather than rectangular collimation

C) A longer source-to-film distance

D) A lower kilovoltage peak

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Chapter 5: Radiation Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A rectangular collimator:

A) Restricts the beam more than a circular collimator.

B) Restricts the beam less than a circular collimator.

C) Significantly reduces patient exposure.

D) Both a and c

Q2) Inherent filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead:

A) Includes filtration that takes place when the primary beam passes through the glass window of the x-ray tube, the insulating oil, and the tubehead seal.

B) Includes the placement of aluminum discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal.

C) Alone meets the standards regulated by state and federal law.

D) Is equivalent to approximately 5.0 mm of aluminum.

Q3) The primary dictum of operator protection guidelines is that the operator must:

A) Remain in the room with the patient while the film is being exposed.

B) Avoid the primary beam.

C) Hold the film in the patient's mouth with their own finger.

D) Hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure.

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Chapter 6: Dental X-Ray Equipment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are beam alignment devices?

A) Stabe bite-block

B) XCP bite-block

C) EEZEE-Grip

D) Precision film holders

Q2) ____ regulate(s) the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment.

A) The federal government

B) State governments

C) Local governments

D) Municipal governments

Q3) The ____ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead.

A) control devices

B) extension arm

C) control panel

D) exposure button

Q4) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?

A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.

B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.

C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.

D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.

8

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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film

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Sample Questions

Q1) The areas of the film that are ____ energized will be ____ when the film is processed. 1. more; darker

2) more; lighter

3) less; darker

4) less; lighter

A) 1 and 3

B) 1 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 4

Q2) Rare earth screens:

A) Have phosphors that emit blue light.

B) Have phosphors that emit green light.

C) Are less efficient than calcium tungstate intensifying screens.

D) Are slower than calcium tungstate intensifying screens.

Q3) Latent image centers are aggregates of:

A) Silver bromide crystals.

B) Bromine atoms.

C) Neutral silver atoms.

D) Gelatin.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Dental X-Ray Image Characteristics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radiopaque refers to that portion of a processed radiograph that is:

A) Black.

B) White.

C) Gray.

D) Within the plastic base.

Q2) If the milliamperage is increased, the film density ____, and the film appears ____.

A) Increases; lighter

B) Increases; darker

C) Decreases; darker

D) Decreases; lighter

Q3) The x-ray beam must be perpendicular to the tooth and film in order to minimize: A) Sharpness.

B) Grain size.

C) Focal spot size.

D) Dimensional distortion.

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Chapter 9: Dental X-Ray Film Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Film hangers are a device used to:

A) Hold films during processing.

B) Mount films.

C) View films.

D) Open film packets.

Q2) The purpose of the preservative is to prevent the developer solution from oxidizing in the presence of:

A) Silver halide.

B) Silver bromide.

C) Air.

D) Moisture.

Q3) Duplicating film:

A) Is placed inside the patient's mouth.

B) Is the same as intraoral film.

C) Is gray on both sides of the film packet.

D) Requires the use of a film duplicator.

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Chapter 10: Quality Assurance in the Dental Office

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Sample Questions

Q1) The stepwedge technique for evaluating developer strength relies on exposing one exposed stepwedge film:

A) Each day.

B) Each week.

C) Every time 20 films have been processed.

D) Every time 40 films have been processed.

Q2) To conduct the film-screen contact test, the position-indicating device (PID) should have a ____-inch target-film distance.

A) 6

B) 12

C) 40

D) 72

Q3) According to the test for dental x-ray film, if the processed film appears clear with a slight blue tint, the film:

A) Has expired.

B) Is fresh and has been properly stored and protected.

C) Has been improperly stored.

D) Has been exposed to radiation.

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12

Chapter 11: Dental Radiographs and the Dental

Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Through the use of dental radiographs, the dental radiographer can detect ____ that cannot be detected clinically. 1. Diseases

2) Lesions

3) Conditions of teeth and bones

A) 1, 2, 3

B) 1, 2

C) 2, 3

D) 3 only

Q2) When radiographs are properly prescribed, exposed, and processed, the benefit of disease detection ____ the risk of small doses of x-radiation.

A) Does not outweigh

B) Is considered equal

C) Slightly outweighs

D) Far outweighs

Q3) Radiographs are a(n) ____ comprehensive patient care.

A) Adjunct to

B) Necessary component of

C) Option for

D) Supplement to

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Patient Relations and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient's first impression of the dental team most often involves the:

A) Dentist.

B) Dental hygienist.

C) Dental auxiliary.

D) Entrance to the building.

Q2) Communication is defined in the text as:

A) Having a conversation.

B) Establishing a connection.

C) The process by which information is exchanged between two or more persons.

D) Two or more persons in the same location or room.

Q3) Which of the following would be an example of the use of interpersonal skills rather than technical skills with patients?

A) Proper maintenance of processing equipment

B) Discussing the rationale for use of dental radiographs

C) Correct film positioning

D) Preventing light leaks in the darkroom

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14

Chapter 13: Patient Education and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patient education is likely to result in decreased:

A) Acceptance of prescribed treatment.

B) Fears of x-ray exposure.

C) Cooperation.

D) Motivation for regular dental visits.

Q2) According to the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs," dental x-ray procedures ____ because of pregnancy.

A) Must be avoided

B) Should be minimized

C) Should be limited to emergency care

D) Do not need to be altered

Q3) There is ____ interval between x-ray examinations.

A) no set time

B) a set 6-month

C) a set 12-month

D) a set 24-month

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Chapter 14: Legal Issues and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true of radiographs and the patient's dental record?

A) Radiographs may be discarded when outdated.

B) It is advised to keep patient radiographs in a file separate from patient charts.

C) The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of radiographs exposed.

D) Dental radiographs are an optional rather than integral part of the dental record.

Q2) The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental radiographs is termed:

A) A treatment alternative.

B) Disclosure.

C) Self-determination.

D) Behavior modification.

Q3) Generally, there are ____ elements to informed consent.

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Six

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Chapter 15: Infection Control and the Dental Radiographer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Preparation of supplies and equipment involves sterilizing which of the following items?

A) Film

B) Film-holding devices

C) Lead apron

D) PID

Q2) ____ is defined as the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms.

A) Antiseptic

B) Antibiotic

C) Antiinfective

D) Asepsis

Q3) After seating the patient, the radiographer must complete which of the following procedures before washing the hands and putting on gloves?

1) Chair adjustment

2) Headrest adjustment

3) Placing the lead apron

A)1, 2, 3

B)1, 2

C)2, 3

D)3 only

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Chapter 16: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The CMRS is defined as a series of intraoral dental radiographs that shows:

A) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.

B) All the edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.

C) All the dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.

D) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws that can be verified clinically.

Q2) A total of ____ to ____ films may be included in the CMRS.

A) 4; 7

B) 7; 14

C) 14; 20

D) 19; 21

Q3) Periapical radiographs must show the entire crowns and roots of the teeth being examined as well as ____ to ____ mm beyond the root apices.

A) 0.1; 0.5

B) 1.0; 2.0

C) 2.0; 3.0

D) 4.0; 5.0

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Chapter 17: Paralleling Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) An increased ____ distance results in increased image magnification.

A) Target-object

B) Object-film

C) Target-film

D) Operator-patient

Q2) The authors recommend that each film be placed in the bite-block with the dot:

A) Down.

B) Up.

C) Distal.

D) In the slot.

Q3) Parallel is defined as:

A) To cut across or through.

B) Intersecting at or forming a right angle.

C) Moving or lying in the same plane, always separated by the same distance and not intersecting.

D) An angle of 90 degrees formed by two lines perpendicular to each other.

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Chapter 18: Bisecting Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) With the finger-holding method, which of the following would be used to hold the maxillary right molar film?

A) Left thumb

B) Right thumb

C) Left finger

D) Right finger

Q2) Which of the following commercially available film holders can be used with the bisecting technique?

A) Rinn BAI instruments

B) Rinn XCP instruments

C) Stabe bite-block

D) Both a and c

Q3) When the bisecting technique is used, the film must be placed along the ____ surface of the tooth.

A) Buccal

B) Lingual

C) Mesial

D) Distal

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Bite-Wing Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) For the premolar bite-wing exposure, the front edge of the film should be aligned with the midline of the:

A) Maxillary canine.

B) Mandibular canine.

C) Maxillary first premolar.

D) Mandibular first premolar.

Q2) According to the text, the identification dot in bite-wing film placement:

A) Should be oriented "dot down."

B) Should be oriented "dot distal."

C) Should be oriented "dot up."

D) Has no significance.

Q3) For the molar bite-wing exposure, the front edge of the film should be aligned with the midline of the:

A) Maxillary first premolar.

B) Mandibular first premolar.

C) Maxillary second premolar.

D) Mandibular second premolar.

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Chapter 20: Exposure and Technique Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cone cut occurs when:

A) The film is underexposed.

B) The film is overexposed.

C) The PID was not properly aligned with the periapical film holder.

D) The exposure button was not depressed for a sufficient amount of time.

Q2) The appearance of a patient's finger on the film is called a:

A) Hemangioma

B) Phalangioma

C) Myxoma

D) Pericytoma

Q3) Blurred images appear on the film when:

A) There is patient movement.

B) The film is reversed.

C) There is a double exposure.

D) The film is creased.

Q4) With ____, images appear stretched and distorted.

A) Film creasing

B) Film bending

C) Double exposure

D) Patient movement

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Chapter 21: Occlusal and Localization Techniques

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Sample Questions

Q1) In adults, size ____ film is used in the occlusal examination.

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 4

Q2) For the maxillary pediatric occlusal projection, position the PID so that the central ray is directed at ____ degrees toward the center of the film.

A) +20

B) +45

C) +60

D) +90

Q3) Which of the following is a maxillary occlusal projection, but not a mandibular occlusal projection?

A) Topographic occlusal projection

B) Lateral occlusal projection

C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection

D) Pediatric projection

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Chapter 22: Panoramic Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) A "reverse smile line" is seen on the radiograph if the patient's:

A) Chin is tipped down.

B) Chin is tipped up.

C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.

D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.

Q2) A lead apron ____ a thyroid collar should be used when exposing a panoramic film, and the patient should be told to raise the tongue up to the ____.

A) Without; palate

B) Without; occlusal plane

C) With; palate

D) With; occlusal plane

Q3) The anterior teeth will appear "fat" if the:

A) Chin is tipped down.

B) Chin is tipped up.

C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.

D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.

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Chapter 23: Extraoral Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following projections would be best for evaluating impacted third molars?

A) Body of the mandible projection

B) Ramus of the mandible projection

C) Reverse Towne projection

D) Waters projection

Q2) For the ____ projection, the patient's head is tipped toward the side being imaged.

A) Body of the mandible

B) Lateral cephalometric

C) Reverse Towne

D) Waters

Q3) The extraoral film is typically used to evaluate:

A) Gutta percha root canal fillings

B) The integrity of the crest of alveolar bone

C) The temporomandibular joint area

D) Interproximal decay

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Chapter 24: Imaging of Patients With Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When intraoral films are impossible to obtain, the radiographer should:

A) Skip radiographs.

B) Use an injection of local anesthetic on the patient's throat and try again.

C) Use extraoral films to obtain diagnostic information.

D) Use an intraoral digital film sensor rather than conventional film.

Q2) A developmental disability is a substantial impairment of mental or physical functioning that occurs before age ____ years and is of indefinite duration.

A) 12

B) 18

C) 19

D) 22

Q3) ____ periapical films can be used to examine the edentulous arches.

A) Eight

B) Twelve

C) Fourteen

D) Eighteen

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26

Chapter 25: Digital Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Digital imaging uses ____ to produce an image.

A) An x-ray processor

B) Radiographic film

C) Processing chemistry

D) An electronic sensor and computerized imaging system

Q2) With the feature of ____, the gray-scale of the diagnostic image is reversed so that radiolucent images appear white and radiopaque images appear black.

A) Pseudocolor alteration

B) Digital subtraction

C) Contrast

D) Image orientation

Q3) The electrons that compose the silicon charge-coupled device (CCD) can be visualized as being divided into an arrangement of blocks or picture elements known as:

A) A field arrangement.

B) Pixels.

C) Phosphors.

D) A grid.

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27

Chapter 26: Three-Dimensional Digital Imaging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Common uses of three-dimensional imaging include which of the following?

1) Implant placement

2) Extraction or exposure of impacted teeth

3) Definition of anatomic structures

4) Airway and sinus analysis

5) Evaluation of temporomandibular joint disorders

A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B)2, 4, 5

C)1, 2, 3

D)Some other combination

Q2) Viewing software allows the practitioner to select the region of interest and to scroll through these images on a computer monitor to create three-dimensional information that will assist in ____.

A) Obtaining insurance reimbursement.

B) Referrals.

C) Diagnosis and treatment planning.

D) All of the above.

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Chapter 27: Normal Anatomy: Intraoral Images

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Sample Questions

Q1) The external oblique ridge typically ends in the ____ molar region.

A) Maxillary first

B) Mandibular first

C) Maxillary third

D) Mandibular third

Q2) The mental fossa is located ____ the mental ridge in the mandibular ____ region.

A) Above; incisor

B) Below; incisor

C) Above; premolar

D) Below; premolar

Q3) The mental foramen is frequently misdiagnosed as a ____ because of its apical location.

A) Dentigerous cyst

B) Radicular cyst

C) Periapical granuloma

D) Odontoma

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29

Chapter 28: Film Mounting and Viewing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suggestions for mounting radiographs include mounting bite-wing radiographs with the curve of Spee directed ____ toward the distal and remembering that most maxillary molars have ____ roots.

A) Upward; two

B) Upward; three

C) Downward; two

D) Downward; three

Q2) The dental radiographer should always mount films ____ after processing.

A) Immediately

B) 24 hours

C) 3 days

D) 1 week

Q3) The film mount should be labeled ____ the films are mounted. A(n) ____ can be used to label film mounts.

A) Before; special marking pencil

B) After; special marking pencil

C) Before; ink pen

D) After; standard graphite pencil

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Chapter 29: Normal Anatomy: Panoramic Images

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following structures is part of the sphenoid bone?

A) Glenoid fossa

B) Articular eminence

C) Lateral pterygoid plate

D) Styloid process

Q2) The ____ is a hole or opening in the temporal bone located superior and anterior to the mastoid process.

A) Glenoid fossa

B) Articular eminence

C) External auditory meatus

D) Infraorbital foramen

Q3) Which of the following radiographs allows the dental professional to view the largest area of the mandible and maxilla on a single film?

A) Four bite-wing films

B) 18-film periapical series

C) 21-film periapical series

D) Panoramic

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Chapter 30: Introduction to Image Interpretation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The definition of interpret is to:

A) Establish a diagnosis.

B) Offer an explanation.

C) Process radiographs.

D) Mount radiographs.

Q2) In the dental setting, most films are examined in the:

A) Business office.

B) Darkroom.

C) Operatory.

D) Reception room.

Q3) To interpret films, the dental radiographer must be confident in the identification and recognition of the following:

1) Normal anatomy

2) Dental caries

3) Periodontal disease

4) Traumatic injuries and periapical lesions

A)1, 2, 3, 4

B)1, 2, 3

C)2, 3, 4

D)1, 2, 4

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Chapter 31: Descriptive Terminology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Unilocular lesions tend to be:

A) Small and expansile.

B) Small and nonexpansile.

C) Large and expansile.

D) Large and nonexpansile.

Q2) A radiograph should not be referred to as a(n):

A) Radiogram.

B) Roentgenogram.

C) X-ray.

D) X-ray film.

Q3) Most structures radiographed ____ exhibit uniform thickness and therefore appear ____.

A) do; white

B) do not; gray

C) do; black

D) do not; white

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Chapter 32: Identification of Restorations, Dental Materials, and Foreign Objects

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the most common restorative material used in dentistry?

A) Porcelain

B) Cast gold

C) Amalgam

D) Acrylic

Q2) Amalgam overhangs can be described as extensions of amalgam seen on dental radiographs beyond the crown portion of a tooth located in the ____ region.

A) Buccal

B) Lingual

C) Interproximal

D) Occlusal

Q3) A thin radiopaque line outlining the prepared tooth may be evident on a dental radiograph of an all-porcelain crown. This thin line represents:

A) Die spacer

B) Cement

C) An air pocket

D) A metal substructure

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Interpretation of Dental Caries

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is true of root surface caries?

A) Root surface caries involve the loss of enamel.

B) Root surface caries are clinically difficult to detect on exposed root surfaces.

C) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).

D) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just above the CEJ.

Q2) The ____ radiograph is the radiograph of choice for the evaluation of caries.

A) Periapical

B) Bite-wing

C) Panoramic

D) Occlusal

Q3) In the practice of dentistry, ____ is probably the most frequent reason for taking dental radiographs.

A) Periodontitis

B) Caries

C) Impacted teeth

D) Orthodontia

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Chapter 34: Interpretation of Periodontal Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The severity of bone loss is measured by the:

A) Pocket depth.

B) Recession.

C) Amount of inflammation.

D) Clinical attachment loss.

Q2) Calculus ____ on a dental radiograph.

A) Appears radiolucent

B) Appears radiopaque

C) Does not appear

D) Appears dark or black

Q3) Moderate bone loss is defined as a loss of ____ mm.

A) 1 to 2

B) 2 to 3

C) 3 to 4

D) 4 to 5

Q4) The periodontal ligament space is located between the root of the tooth and the:

A) Crest of alveolar bone.

B) Lamina dura.

C) Cementum.

D) Spongy bone.

Page 36

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Chapter 35: Interpretation of Trauma and Pulpal and Periapical Lesions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Periapical cysts account for ____ of all cysts in the oral region.

A) 10% to 20%

B) 20% to 25%

C) 25% to 50%

D) 50% to 70%

Q2) Which of the following is a periapical radiolucency?

A) Hypercementosis

B) Condensing osteitis

C) Periapical cyst

D) Sclerotic bone

Q3) ____ is a diffuse calcification of the pulp chamber and pulp canals of teeth.

A) Pulpal sclerosis

B) Pulpal obliteration

C) Pulp stones

D) Internal resorption

Q4) The treatment for condensing osteitis is:

A) Extraction.

B) Root canal therapy.

C) Osseous recontouring.

D) No treatment is necessary.

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