Dental Hygiene Radiography
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Radiography is a specialized course designed to provide students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills in the principles and techniques of dental radiography. The course covers the fundamentals of radiation physics, biology, and safety, emphasizing the importance of radiation protection for both patients and healthcare providers. Students learn to operate dental radiographic equipment, produce high-quality diagnostic images, and interpret findings relevant to oral health care. Through hands-on laboratory experience and theoretical instruction, participants develop the competency required to accurately perform, analyze, and document intraoral and extraoral radiographic procedures, ensuring high standards of patient care within a dental hygiene practice.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) The release of electrons from the hot tungsten filament at the cathode is called the
Answer: thermionic emission effect
Q2) If the useful beam is not centered on the film in the patient's mouth, the result will be:
A)foreshortening
B)elongation
C)collimator cutoff
D)overlapping
Answer: C
Q3) Identify the physicist who discovered x-rays:
A)Hittorf-Crookes
B)Roentgen
C)Edison
D)Kells
Answer: B
Q4) Because of the alternating current supplied to the x-ray tube it is considered to be
Answer: self-rectified
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) In order to increase the contrast on a radiograph one should ________ the kVp.
Answer: decrease
Q2) The degree of blackness on a film in known as:
A)contrast
B)density
C)umbra
D)penumbra
Answer: B
Q3) Long-scale contrast gives the radiograph a (an):
A)black and white appearance
B)gray appearance
C)underpenetrated appearance
D)fogged appearance
Answer: B
Q4) Scatter radiation can be reduced by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
A)open-ended PIDs
B)lead foil inside the film packet
C)kVp settings of 65 and below
D)using as small a beam as possible
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
Q2) Film speed is determined by:
A)the thickness of the emulsion
B)the presence of radiosensitive dyes
C)the size of the silver halide crystals
D)all of the above
Q3) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q4) Duplicating film:
A)necessitates the use of x-ray photons for exposure
B)does not need safelight conditions
C)has emulsion on both sides
D)has a direct positive emulsion
Q5) Rare earth intensifying screens differ from calcium tungstate screens in:
A)the cost
B)the amount of light photons generated in the cassette
C)their flexibility
D)the image definition
Q6) Film-screen imaging systems produce ___________ definition than intraoral film.
Q7) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Which of the following factors affects the response to radiation?
A)dose rate
B)total dose
C)age
D)cell sensitivity
E)all of the above
Q2) The total body radiation dose from a four bitewing examination utilizing E-speed film and rectangular collimation is approximately:
A)1 hour of background radiation
B)12 hours of background radiation
C)2 weeks of background radiation
D)1 month of background radiation
Q3) Human tissue is composed primarily of:
A)water
B)air
C)ions
D)toxins
Q4) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q5) The output of a dental x-ray machine is expressed in ________.
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) Presently the maximum permissible dose (MPD)for dental workers with ionizing radiation is _______________.
Q2) An area in which a secretary sits constantly that is adjacent to a dental operatory where radiographs are taken is said to have an occupancy factor of:
A)8 hours
B)1
C)1/4
D)1/16
E)5 days
Q3) Radiographs taken to confirm that procedures have been completed are called
Q4) An x-ray machine that has tube-head drift may produce dental images that are:
A)distorted
B)blurred
C)cone-cut
D)all of the above
Q5) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
Q6) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q2) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q3) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) If the developing time is 5 minutes, then the fixing time should be approximately
Q2) Cell phones should not be used in the darkroom because:
A)the illumination from the phone could cause film fog or expose the film
B)talking on the phone while processing radiographs is confusing
C)the phone could be dropped into the processing solutions
D)the operator may inadvertently open the darkroom door while processing
Q3) The coin test is an easy and reliable way to check the:
A)strength of the developer solution
B)safelight
C)density of the radiographic image
D)film speed
Q4) The typical wattage of a bulb used in safelighting is 60 to 75 watts. The safelight should be placed 3 to 4 feet from the working area.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q5) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
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Q6) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q2) Barrier envelopes should be used for:
A)all patients
B)patients with a positive medical history
C)patients who are bleeding
D)patients with contaminated saliva
Q3) Patients with active AIDS:
A)should not undergo radiographic procedures
B)need special infection control protocols
C)should have only panoramic examinations
D)follow the same infection control protocols as other patients
Q4) Anything one touches after working in the patient's mouth is considered to be
Q5) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q6) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Vertical bitewings can be used in both anterior and posterior regions of the mouth. Exposure factors need to be increased (kVp, mA, time)when exposing vertical bitewings.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) In a full-mouth survey:
A)periapical films of edentulous areas are not taken
B)bitewing films of edentulous areas are taken
C)periapical films of edentulous areas are taken
D)opposing teeth for bitewings are not necessary
Q3) Identify the film necessary to diagnose pathologic conditions of the tooth root:
A)bitewing
B)periapical
C)occlusal
D)skull
Q4) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
Q5) Using the paralleling technique to evaluate periodontal bone height is essential because the paralleling technique prevents excessive ______________.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Q2) ____________________ exposure times can be used for the bisecting technique because of the shorter FFD.
Q3) Compared with standard intraoral films, the occlusal film size is approximately:
A)the same
B)twice as large
C)4 times as large
D)8 times as large
Q4) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
Q5) Identify the number that correlates to the size of an occlusal film packet:
A)size 0
B)size 1
C)size 2
D)size 4
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Q6) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) The imaginary line that runs from the inferior border of the eye socket to the superior border of the external auditory meatus is called:
A)the Frankfort plane
B)the midsagittal plane
C)the occlusal plane
D)none of the above
Q2) A high thyroid collar placement should never be used when:
A)taking bitewings on children
B)taking occlusal films
C)taking pantomograms
D)the patient has a history of radiation therapy to the neck
E)all of the above
Q3) Static electricity artifacts appear as:
A)multiple black linear streaks
B)multiple clear linear streaks
C)fogged areas on the film
D)yellow-brown artifacts on the film
Q4) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to ___________.
Q5) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) The best extraoral projection to detect a fracture of the zygomatic arch is the
Q2) Identify the projection used to view the entire skull in the sagittal plane:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q3) Identify the projection used to view the maxillary sinus and middle third of the face:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q4) Which of the following methods is best for radiographing an impacted third molar?
A)posterior anterior
B)lateral oblique projection of the mandible
C)lateral skull
D)posterior anterior of the sinuses
Q5) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) A conventional panoramic projection will show both the right and left joints in the:
A)lateral plane
B)axial plane
C)cross-sectional plane
D)frontal plane
Q2) Complications may occur with:
A)arthrography
B)MRI
C)CT
D)a panoramic radiograph
Q3) Identify the most common extraoral view used to examine the temporomandibular joint after the panoramic examination:
A)transcranial projection
B)submentovertex projection
C)skull projection
D)MRI
Q4) Images that are opaque on an image obtained by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)have a _________ hydrogen density and a _________ signal.
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Identify the main disadvantage of digital imaging:
A)bulky, rigid sensors
B)environmental waste issues
C)infection control
D)lack of definition and detail
Q2) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q3) Identify the advantage of digital imaging that is most attractive to the busy dental practice:
A)reduction in radiation dose
B)more levels of contrast produced
C)faster image acquisition
D)patient education
Q4) One advantage of the storage phosphor technique is that the sensor:
A)is larger
B)is thicker
C)is slightly more flexible
D)is more sensitive to radiation
Q5) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
Q6) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q7) The cost of a digital imaging unit is approximately __________.
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water makes up approximately:
A)50% of human tissue
B)10% of human tissue
C)70% of human tissue
D)1% of human tissue
Q2) The energy source for CT scans is:
A)gamma radiation
B)radio waves
C)ultrasound
D)x-radiation
Q3) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
Q4) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Q5) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions
EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q6) A CT scan taken in the axial plane can be reformatted to the _______ and _________ planes.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) All of the following terms are synonymous EXCEPT:
A)reference film
B)stepwedge film
C)overexposed film
D)standard film
Q2) Guidelines for storage of unprocessed and unexposed films include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)storage in a warm, humid location
B)stored at temperatures between 50° F and 70° F
C)stored in a ventilated area
D)used before the expiration date on the package
Q3) Fresh, full-strength fixer clears films in:
A)30 seconds
B)1 minute
C)2 to 3 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q4) The powder capable of contaminating intraoral film is approximately ___% lead.
Q5) The _______ has published an outline of preventive procedures for radiographic systems.
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Q6) Processing solutions should be changed _________, depending on the workload.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) Marking grids should not be confused with grids used to __________.
Q2) Placebo techniques very often work with:
A)retarded patients
B)hearing impaired patients
C)physically handicapped patients
D)patients who have a tendency to gag
Q3) The reverse bitewing technique is really a(n):
A)lateral oblique projection
B)occlusal projection
C)bisecting projection
D)posterior anterior projection
Q4) It is __________ for a caregiver or parent to be in the operatory (with careful safety precautions taken)when radiographs are taken of a patient with a disability.
Q5) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q6) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
Q7) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) On a routine full-mouth survey it is not possible to see the:
A)mental foramen
B)incisive foramen
C)lingual foramen
D)mandibular foramen
Q2) Mandibular landmarks visible on panoramic radiographs include:
A)mandibular condyle
B)condylar neck
C)sigmoid notch
D)all of the above
Q3) The nasal septum ends inferiorly at another radiopaque landmark known as the:
A)nasal conchae
B)anterior nasal spine
C)nasal cavity
D)nasopalatine foramen
Q4) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the __________.
Q5) Temporary acrylic crowns appear ___________ on radiographs.
Q6) Two soft tissue shadows often seen on periapical radiographs are the _______ and the ________.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q2) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q3) Cysts and benign lesions usually grow:
A)rapidly
B)at no specific rate
C)slowly
D)at various rates
Q4) Rapidly growing lesions without distinct borders are usually:
A)cysts
B)benign
C)malignant
D)not cause for concern
Q5) In addition to radiographic findings, identify a symptom(s)that may be part of a diagnosis:
A)medical history
B)clinical examination
C)vitality testing
D)all of the above
Q6) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Caries that has penetrated halfway through the enamel surface is termed:
A)incipient
B)advanced
C)moderate
D)severe
Q2) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
Q3) Identify the best way to detect occlusal caries:
A)periapical films utilizing bisecting angle technique
B)occlusal radiographs
C)bitewing radiographs
D)clinical exam with mouth mirror and explorer
Q4) All of the following conditions resemble radiographic dental caries EXCEPT:
A)abrasion
B)attrition
C)amalgam overhang
D)cervical burnout
Q5) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the
Q6) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
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Q7) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q2) How do a periapical cyst and a periapical granuloma appear radiographically?
A)they may appear identical
B)a cyst is always larger
C)a cyst is always smaller
D)none of the above
Q3) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Q4) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Q5) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q6) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Teeth that exhibit dilaceration may be a problem if what type of treatment is needed?
A)endodontic therapy
B)extraction
C)amalgam restoration
D)a and b
Q2) All of the following terms are synonymous EXCEPT:
A)supernumerary teeth
B)extra teeth
C)hypodontia
D)hyperdontia
Q3) In amelogenesis imperfecta, the tooth tissue(s)that are affected include:
A)enamel
B)dentin
C)pulp
D)all of the above are affected
Q4) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present.
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Q5) Impacted teeth can be localized in their mesiodistal position by periapical, ___________, or lateral oblique films.
Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) Fractures of the mandible will:
A)not be seen on periapical films
B)appear as radiopaque lines
C)appear as radiolucent lines
D)not be seen during the first 24 hours
Q2) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q3) The radiographic appearance of the skull in Paget's disease will show:
A)a decrease in size
B)an increase in size
C)a cotton wool bony appearance
D)none of the above
Q4) One way to differentiate a retained root tip radiographically is by the appearance of a
Q5) A malignant tumor of bone will appear _________ on radiographs.
Q6) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Page 25
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Identify the most regulated discipline within dentistry:
A)radiology
B)periodontics
C)oral surgery
D)endodontics
Q2) If a patient refuses a recommended radiographic examination:
A)dental procedures should go on as planned
B)the patient should sign a release form
C)it should be entered into the patient record and treatment should not be performed
D)the patient should be asked to leave the practice
Q3) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
Q4) The dentist being physically present in the office during radiographic procedures is known as:
A)compliance
B)direct supervision
C)quality assurance
D)federal regulations
Q5) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q6) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
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