Dental Hygiene Radiography
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Radiography is a course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices of radiography in the context of dental hygiene care. The course covers the physics of x-ray production, radiation safety and protection, radiographic techniques, image interpretation, and quality control specific to dental structures and common oral pathologies. Students gain hands-on experience in exposing, processing, and evaluating both intraoral and extraoral dental radiographs, with an emphasis on minimizing patient exposure and ensuring diagnostic quality. By completing this course, students are prepared to competently integrate radiographic examination into dental hygiene assessments while adhering to legal and ethical standards.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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35 Chapters
811 Verified Questions
811 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Radiation History
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) William Rollins:
A) Established the first college course in radiography for dental students.
B) Was the first to use film in intraoral radiography.
C) Developed the first dental x-ray unit.
D) Developed the first hot cathode x-ray tube.
Answer: C
Q2) Current fast radiographic film requires less than ____ % of the initial exposure times used in 1920.
A) 25
B) 10
C) 5
D) 2
Answer: D
Q3) The variable kilovoltage x-ray machine was introduced in:
A) 1895
B) 1913
C) 1923
D) 1957
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Radiation Physics
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components of the x-ray machine would have an indicator light for the on-off switch and an indicator light for the exposure button?
A) X-ray tube
B) X-ray tubehead
C) The control panel
D) The extension arm
Answer: C
Q2) Radioactivity is:
A) The emission and propagation of energy through space or a substance in the form of waves.
B) The emission and propagation of energy through space or a substance in the form of particles.
C) The process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state.
D) The process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a less balanced nuclear state.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Radiation Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When low kilovoltage peak settings are used (65 kVp to 70 kVp), a film with ____ will result.
A) high contrast
B) low contrast
C) many shades of gray
D) Both a and c
Answer: A
Q2) According to the inverse square law, if the length of the PID is doubled, the resultant beam is ____ as intense.
A) four times
B) twice
C) half
D) one quarter
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity?
A) Decreasing the kilovoltage peak
B) Decreasing the milliamperage
C) Decreasing the exposure time
D) Decreasing the source-to-film distance
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Radiation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Naturally occurring background radiation includes:
A) Cosmic radiation.
B) Consumer products.
C) Terrestrial radiation.
D) Both a and c.
Q2) The potential risk of dental radiography inducing a fatal cancer in an individual is about ____ the risk of a person developing cancer spontaneously.
A) 1/10
B) 1/100
C) 1/1000
D) 1/1,000,000
Q3) Which of the following combinations will result in the lowest absorbed dose for the patient from a 20-film series of dental radiographs?
A) Round collimation with F-speed film
B) Rectangular collimation with F-speed film
C) Round collimation with D-speed film
D) Rectangular collimation with D-speed film
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6
Chapter 5: Radiation Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) State and federal laws require that dental x-ray machines operating above 70 kVp have a minimum total (inherent plus added filtration) of ____ mm of aluminum filtration.
A) 1.5
B) 2.0
C) 2.5
D) 5.0
Q2) A circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is ____ inch(es) in diameter.
A) less than 1
B) 1.25
C) 2.75
D) 5.0
Q3) Radiation legislation varies greatly from state to state. For example, in some states a dental radiographer must successfully complete a radiation safety examination before he or she may expose dental x-rays.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Chapter 6: Dental X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ activate(s) the machine to produce x-rays.
A) on-off switch
B) exposure button
C) exposure light
D) control devices
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?
A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.
B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.
C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.
D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.
Q3) The position-indicating device (PID) is an extension of the:
A) Tubehead
B) Extension arm
C) Control panel
D) Exposure button
Q4) The ____ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead.
A) control devices
B) extension arm
C) control panel
D) exposure button
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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) The film emulsion is composed of a homogenous mixture of:
A) Calcium tungstate and lead salt crystals.
B) Gelatin and barium salt crystals.
C) Gelatin and silver halide crystals
D) Primer and silver halide crystals.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of a two-film packet?
A) A two-film packet requires twice the amount of exposure to produce a single radiograph.
B) A two-film packet has a single emulsion, whereas a one-film packet has a double emulsion.
C) A two-film packet has a double emulsion, whereas a one-film packet has a single emulsion.
D) Intraoral x-ray film is a double-emulsion type of film regardless of whether the film packet contains one or two films.
Q3) The latent image is stored by the ____ in dental x-ray film.
A) Gelatin
B) Film base
C) Adhesive layer
D) Silver halide crystals
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Dental X-Ray Image Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in ____ temperature will result in a film with increased contrast.
A) Development
B) Water bath
C) Fixer
D) Room
Q2) A longer position-indicating device (PID) results in:
A) An increased target-film distance.
B) A more divergent x-ray beam.
C) More image magnification than when a shorter PID is used.
D) An increased object-film distance.
Q3) The range of useful densities seen on a dental radiograph is termed the:
A) Film contrast.
B) Subject contrast.
C) Scale of contrast.
D) Kilovoltage peak.
Q4) Radiopaque refers to that portion of a processed radiograph that is:
A) Black.
B) White.
C) Gray.
D) Within the plastic base.
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Chapter 9: Dental X-Ray Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reticulation means the film appears:
A) To have white spots.
B) To have dark spots.
C) Cracked.
D) As thin, black branching lines.
Q2) Duplicating film:
A) Is placed inside the patient's mouth.
B) Is the same as intraoral film.
C) Is gray on both sides of the film packet.
D) Requires the use of a film duplicator.
Q3) Exhausted fixer produces a radiograph:
A) With adequate "clearing" of the film.
B) With proper hardening of the film emulsion.
C) That will turn a yellow-brown color because exhausted fixer does not stop the chemical reaction.
D) That will require longer exposure time to achieve comparable contrast and density.
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11
Chapter 10: Quality Assurance in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the stepwedge technique is used to evaluate developer strength, if the density on the daily radiograph differs from that on the standard radiograph by more than ____ steps, the developer solution is depleted.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Seven
Q2) To test the automatic film processor, ____ in the automatic processor.
A) Unwrap one film, expose it to light, and then process the film
B) Unwrap one film, do not expose it to light, and then process the film
C) Unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process the exposed film
D) Unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process both films
Q3) If the image of the coin appears on the processed radiograph after the coin test:
A) The safelighting is correct.
B) The safelighting is not safe to use with that type of film.
C) Conduct the test again with the darkroom door closed rather than open.
D) Conduct the test again with the safelight off rather than on.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Dental Radiographs and the Dental
Radiographer
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental radiographer requires which of the following to perform dental radiographic procedures?
A) Sufficient knowledge
B) Technical skills
C) Sufficient knowledge and technical skills
D) Neither sufficient knowledge nor technical skills
Q2) Retakes resulting in unnecessary patient exposure to x-radiation must be avoided:
A) Whenever it is convenient because the dose is so low.
B) Only if the patient is uncomfortable with exposure.
C) Only if older (pre-1975) equipment is used.
D) At all times.
Q3) To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always: (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.)
A) Maintain an adequate distance.
B) Have proper positioning.
C) Have proper shielding.
D) Avoid the primary beam.
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Page 13
Chapter
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is a nonverbal communication skill associated with interest and warmth.
A) Leaning slightly away from the patient
B) A slumped posture
C) Tapping fingers
D) An attentive posture
Q2) The patient's first impression of the dental team most often involves the:
A) Dentist.
B) Dental hygienist.
C) Dental auxiliary.
D) Entrance to the building.
Q3) The term facilitation means :
A) Initiating.
B) The act of making easier.
C) The act of continuing.
D) Construction of a facility.
Q4) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
14
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Chapter 13: Patient Education and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decisions about the number, type, and frequency of dental x-rays are determined by the ____ based on the patient's individual needs.
A) Insurance company
B) Dental assistant
C) Dental hygienist
D) Dentist
Q2) With faster F-speed film, a single intraoral film results in a surface skin exposure of ____ milliroentgens.
A) 1.25
B) 12.5
C) 125
D) 1250
Q3) Which of the following types of questions must be answered only by the dentist?
A) The need for dental radiographs.
B) X-ray exposure.
C) Questions about diagnosis.
D) The safety of dental x-rays.
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Chapter 14: Legal Issues and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a ____ law.
A) Federal
B) State
C) County
D) City
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of radiographs and the patient's dental record?
A) Radiographs may be discarded when outdated.
B) It is advised to keep patient radiographs in a file separate from patient charts.
C) The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of radiographs exposed.
D) Dental radiographs are an optional rather than integral part of the dental record.
Q3) Lack of informed consent may be shown by the following:
A) Consent from an individual under the influence of drugs or alcohol
B) Consent from an individual with legal right to give it
C) Consent from an individual under duress
D) Both a and c
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16
Chapter 15: Infection Control and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before dental x-ray films are exposed, the treatment area must be prepared using:
A) Antiseptic.
B) Aseptic technique.
C) Sterilization of critical instruments.
D) Low-level disinfectant.
Q2) Commercially available barrier envelopes:
A) Minimize contamination before exposure of the film.
B) Minimize contamination after exposure of the film.
C) Are made of a material that blocks the passage of photons.
D) Are made of a material that blocks the passage of electrons.
Q3) Pathogens are:
A) Any microorganisms.
B) Bacteria but not viruses.
C) Viruses but not bacteria.
D) Microorganisms capable of causing disease.
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are ____ methods for obtaining periapical radiographs.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Ten
Q2) The CMRS is defined as a series of intraoral dental radiographs that shows:
A) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
B) All the edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
C) All the dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
D) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws that can be verified clinically.
Q3) Which technique examines the crowns of both maxillary and mandibular teeth on a single film?
A) Periapical paralleling technique
B) Periapical bisecting technique
C) Occlusal technique
D) Interproximal examination
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Chapter 17: Paralleling Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entire crowns and roots of one lateral and one central incisor, including the apices of the teeth and surrounding structures, must be seen on the ____ radiograph.
A) Maxillary canine
B) Maxillary incisor
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular incisor
Q2) With size 2 film, a total of ____ anterior film placements are used with the paralleling technique.
A) Four
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
Q3) The authors recommend an exposure sequence starting with tooth No.:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 11
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Chapter 18: Bisecting Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear ____. Foreshortening of images results from ____ vertical angulation.
A) Shortened; insufficient
B) Shortened; excessive
C) Too long; insufficient
D) Too long; excessive
Q2) According to the recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique, the second posterior quadrant exposed should be the:
A) Maxillary right quadrant.
B) Maxillary left quadrant.
C) Mandibular right quadrant.
D) Mandibular left quadrant.
Q3) When the bisecting technique is used, the central ray is directed at 90 degrees to the:
A) Film.
B) Long axis of the tooth in the same arch.
C) Long axis of the tooth in the opposing arch.
D) Imaginary bisector.
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20
Chapter 19: Bite-Wing Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) The problem with a single bite-wing film per side for adult patients is increased:
A) X-ray exposure.
B) Possibility of inciting the gag reflex.
C) Overlapped contacts.
D) Useful diagnostic information.
Q2) Vertical bite-wings are often used for patients with:
A) Mixed dentition.
B) Extensive decay.
C) Bone loss.
D) Sealants.
Q3) The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a periapical film and used to stabilize the film during exposure. The periapical film is oriented in the bite loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Chapter 20: Exposure and Technique Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following films would most likely appear black?
A) An unexposed film
B) A film exposed to light
C) An overexposed film
D) An underexposed film
Q2) Blurred images appear on the film when:
A) There is patient movement.
B) The film is reversed.
C) There is a double exposure.
D) The film is creased.
Q3) To correct a film where apices do not appear:
A) Make certain that no more than 3/4 inch of the film edge extends beyond the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.
B) Make certain that no more than 1/8 inch of the film edge extends beyond the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.
C) Increase the exposure time.
D) Direct the x-ray beam through the interproximal spaces.
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22
Chapter 21: Occlusal and Localization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the maxillary topographic occlusal projection, the central ray is directed at ____ degrees.
A) +30
B) +45
C) +65
D) -30
Q2) In adults, size ____ film is used in the occlusal examination.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Q3) The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB stands for:
A) Shift
B) Similar
C) Same
D) Some
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Panoramic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) In panoramic radiography, the movement of the film and the tubehead produces an image through the process known as:
A) Scanography
B) Digitizing
C) Scintillation
D) Tomography
Q2) The anterior teeth will appear "skinny" if the:
A) Chin is tipped down.
B) Chin is tipped up.
C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.
D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.
Q3) The anterior teeth will appear "fat" if the:
A) Chin is tipped down.
B) Chin is tipped up.
C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.
D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.
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Chapter 23: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the ____ projection is to identify fractures of the condylar neck and ramus areA.
A) Reverse Towne
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Submentovertex
Q2) A grid can be used to ____ film fog and ____ the contrast of the radiographic image.
A) Decrease; decrease
B) Increase; increase
C) Decrease; increase
D) Increase; decrease
Q3) Scatter radiation:
A) Increases film fog.
B) Increases film contrast.
C) Reduces film contrast.
D) Both a and c.
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Chapter 24: Imaging of Patients With Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person is blind or visually impaired, the dental radiographer must:
A) Communicate using clear visual explanations.
B) Communicate using clear verbal explanations.
C) Not explain each procedure before performing it.
D) Gesture to another person in the presence of a person who is blind.
Q2) A person with a physical disability may have problems with:
1) Vision
2) Hearing
3) Mobility
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 3
Q3) The mixed occlusal and periapical examination consists of ____ size 4 films and ____ size 2 films.
A) Two; four
B) Two; two
C) Four; four
D) Four; two
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Advantages of the use of digital imaging include which of the following?
A) The size of the digitized image makes it attractive as a patient education tool.
B) There is an opportunity for an increase in interactive dialogue between the patient and the radiographer.
C) The use of visualization can increase the patient's understanding of the disease process.
D) Some combination of the above.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Given that the human eye can resolve 8 to 10 lp/mm, a CCD system is inadequate for diagnosis of dental disease. The majority of the research has shown that the traditional Radiographs perform at least as well as digital images and at times even better.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Chapter 26: Three-Dimensional Digital Imaging
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Q1) Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and document observations outside the region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. It is not the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Prior to CBCT, patient preparations include:
A) Removal of metallic items in the head and neck region.
B) Removal of eyeglasses.
C) Specific directions as to performing the scan while teeth are slightly apart or biting together.
D) All of the above.
Q3) The acronym, DICOM, stands for:
A) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine
B) Direct Imaging and Cone-beam Modality
C) Distance Imaging and Communications in Medicine
D) Divergent Images and Cone-beam Modus
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Normal Anatomy: Intraoral Images
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Q1) On a maxillary periapical radiograph, the inferior nasal conchae appear as a ____ mass within the nasal cavity.
A) Well-demarcated radiolucent
B) Well-demarcated radiopaque
C) Diffuse radiolucent
D) Diffuse radiopaque
Q2) The mental fossa is located ____ the mental ridge in the mandibular ____ region.
A) Above; incisor
B) Below; incisor
C) Above; premolar
D) Below; premolar
Q3) The maxillary tuberosity appears as a ____ bulge distal to the ____ molar region.
A) Radiolucent; first
B) Radiolucent; third
C) Radiopaque; first
D) Radiopaque; third
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Chapter 28: Film Mounting and Viewing
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Q1) When viewing radiographs, it is easier to detect subtle changes in density and contrast if:
A) The treatment room lights are left on.
B) Extraneous light is eliminated.
C) The viewbox light is turned off.
D) Films are held up by the operator and viewed through ceiling lights.
Q2) The text recommends viewing radiographs ____ in a room with ____ lighting.
A) as many times as necessary; bright
B) as many times as necessary; dimmed
C) A single time; bright
D) A single time; dimmed
Q3) Although all members of the dental team may interpret dental radiographs, it is the responsibility of the ____ to establish a final or definitive interpretation and diagnosis.
A) Dentist or dental hygienist
B) Dentist or dental assistant
C) Dental hygienist or dental assistant
D) Dentist
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Chapter 29: Normal Anatomy: Panoramic Images
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Q1) Which of the following radiographs allows the dental professional to view the largest area of the mandible and maxilla on a single film?
A) Four bite-wing films
B) 18-film periapical series
C) 21-film periapical series
D) Panoramic
Q2) The ____ rests in the glenoid fossA.
A) Styloid process
B) Mastoid process
C) Mandibular condyle
D) Coronoid process
Q3) On a panoramic radiograph, which of the following structures appears as a radiopaque bulge distal to the third molar region?
A) Hamulus
B) Maxillary tuberosity
C) Coronoid process
D) External auditory meatus
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Chapter 30: Introduction to Image Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the dental setting, most films are examined in the:
A) Business office.
B) Darkroom.
C) Operatory.
D) Reception room.
Q2) In the dental setting, interpretation refers to an explanation of what is viewed on a radiograph, whereas the term diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
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Chapter 31: Descriptive Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a radiopaque structure?
A) Dental pulp
B) Dentin
C) Periodontal ligament space
D) Soft tissue
Q2) Which of the following structures would appear the most radiopaque?
A) Dental pulp
B) Metallic restoration
C) Periodontal ligament space
D) Air space
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of a mixed lucent-opaque lesion?
A) Compound odontoma
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Florid osseous dysplasia
Q4) Unilocular lesions tend to be:
A) Small and expansile.
B) Small and nonexpansile.
C) Large and expansile.
D) Large and nonexpansile.
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Chapter 32: Identification of Restorations, Dental Materials, and Foreign Objects
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Q1) Diatorics are:
A) Color sources.
B) Metal retention pins.
C) Identification dots.
D) Orthodontic brackets.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common restorative material used in dentistry?
A) Porcelain
B) Cast gold
C) Amalgam
D) Acrylic
Q3) Diatorics are found in:
A) Silver point endodontic fillings.
B) Gutta percha endodontic fillings.
C) Anterior porcelain denture teeth.
D) Anterior acrylic denture teeth.
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Chapter 33: Interpretation of Dental Caries
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Q1) Rampant caries are typically seen in children with ____ dietary habits or in adults with ____ salivary flow.
A) Poor; increased
B) Poor; decreased
C) Good; increased
D) Good; decreased
Q2) A carious lesion appears ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Radiopaque
B) Radiolucent
C) White
D) Clear
Q3) In the practice of dentistry, ____ is probably the most frequent reason for taking dental radiographs.
A) Periodontitis
B) Caries
C) Impacted teeth
D) Orthodontia
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Chapter 34: Interpretation of Periodontal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generalized bone loss occurs evenly throughout the dental arches, including greater than ____ of the sites involved.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
Q2) Moderate bone loss is defined as a loss of ____ mm.
A) 1 to 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 3 to 4
D) 4 to 5
Q3) The severity of bone loss is measured by the:
A) Pocket depth.
B) Recession.
C) Amount of inflammation.
D) Clinical attachment loss.
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Chapter 35: Interpretation of Trauma and Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulp stones ____ cause symptoms and ____ require treatment.
A) Do; do
B) Do; do not
C) Do not; do
D) Do not; do not
Q2) ____ is the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone.
A) Luxation
B) Intrusion
C) Extrusion
D) Avulsion
Q3) The treatment for condensing osteitis is:
A) Extraction.
B) Root canal therapy.
C) Osseous recontouring.
D) No treatment is necessary.
Q4) Condensing osteitis most frequently involves the ____ tooth.
A) Mandibular premolar
B) Mandibular molar
C) Maxillary premolar
D) Maxillary molar
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