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Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices necessary to maintain and promote oral health. The curriculum covers topics such as oral anatomy, dental radiography, infection control, preventive dentistry, patient assessment, and the management of oral diseases. Emphasis is placed on the development of clinical skills required for dental cleanings, fluoride application, sealant placement, and patient education. Students will also explore the ethical, legal, and professional responsibilities of a dental hygienist while gaining practical experience in both laboratory settings and supervised clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy of Orofacial Structures 7th Edition by Richard W. Brand
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991 Verified Questions
991 Flashcards
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31 Verified Questions
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Q1) Although a patient presenting with painful areas throughout the oral cavity or a child presenting with gingival bleeding in the presence of excellent oral hygiene should be monitored carefully, referral to a dental specialist or physician is not indicated. A patient with a red and painful tongue does warrant such a referral as does a patient with moderate plaque on all teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: D
Q2) Lymphoid tissues located at the base of the tongue are known as foliate papillae. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Projections on the cortical plate are exostoses of bone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The function of both incisors and premolars is to cut food. The function of molars is to cut, grind, and chew food.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: D
Q2) Pulp canals
A) Are located in the crown portion
B) Have hornlike projections
C) Occupy the root portion
D) Occupy both the crown and root portion
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a line angle?
A) Mesiolabioincisal
B) Buccolingual
C) Mesiodistal
D) Labioincisal
E) Inciso-occlusal
Answer: D
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Q1) Posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of the teeth. Lingual embrasures of posterior teeth are wider than buccal embrasures.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q2) The curvature of the CEJ is generally greater on the mesial surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Each of the following is a characteristic of contact areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Stabilize teeth
B) Discourage food impaction
C) Are located in middle third of tooth
D) Protect interdental papilla
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: C
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Q1) In the deciduous dentition, tooth "K" refers to
A) Maxillary left second molar
B) Mandibular left second molar
C) Mandibular right first molar
D) Mandibular right canine
E) None of the above
Q2) In the Universal system the number 31 represents the ________________.
Q3) Tooth number 3, the permanent maxillary right first molar, is succedaneous because it replaces a primary (deciduous) molar.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) Tooth #65 is the code for the
A) Permanent mandibular right second premolar
B) Deciduous mandibular left second molar
C) Deciduous maxillary left first molar
D) Deciduous maxillary right second molar
E) None of the above

Page 6
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Q1) Third molar roots continue to calcify until about 25 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Permanent mandibular central incisors are the first succedaneous teeth to erupt. The earliest visible portion of an anterior tooth is the cusp of Carabelli, the name for the lingual lobe of mandibular central incisors.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Edentulous refers to
A) The final dentition period
B) A space maintainer
C) Absence of teeth
D) Unerupted third molars
Q4) A tooth with two cusps, such as a maxillary premolar, was formed from two lobes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Each of the following may be present in class III occlusion EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Prognathic facial profile may be present.
B) The mandible may be retruded.
C) The mandible has a mesial relationship with the maxilla.
D) The incisal margins of the mandibular incisors may lie in front of the maxillary incisors.
Q2) Protrusion of the maxillary anterior teeth can be caused by tongue thrusting because improper tongue placement during swallowing exerts powerful pressure against lingual surfaces of anterior teeth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The average overjet of primary teeth is 2.0 mm.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A patient who has had four teeth extracted for orthodontia has true partial anodontia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An anomaly common to mandibular second premolars is
A) Dwarfed roots
B) Buccal tubercles
C) Accessory roots
D) Large lingual cusps
Q3) Fusion of roots of adjacent teeth at the cementum is called concrescence and is primarily caused by dilaceration. Gemination is the deposition of excessive secondary cementum.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) A child who has congenitally missing maxillary canines will have congenitally missing permanent canines.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
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Q1) Sharpey's fibers can be found in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Alveolar bone
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Periodontal ligament
E) They are in all of the above.
Q2) Periodontal ligament fibers that extend from the tooth to the alveolar crest are called
A) Horizontal
B) Oblique
C) Apical
D) Interradicular
E) Alveolar crest fibers
Q3) Interdental papilla is classified as attached gingiva.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A healthy gingival sulcus should not exceed 2.0 mm in depth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Sealants are most effective in preventing decay in
A) Interproximal areas
B) Uneven enamel
C) Buccal and lingual grooves
D) Occlusal pits
Q2) An ideal situation is to have all teeth occlude equally on closure of the jaw because this pattern allows dissipation of occlusal forces over all of the teeth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The walls of the pulp chamber are formed by dentin and enamel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adjusting occlusion to discourage premature contact is considered a preventive therapeutic procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Canines have a single cusp.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which incisor exhibits a slight distolingual rotation?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q3) Roots of third molars are most often dilacerated because the more posterior the molars are positioned, the more variation of anatomy is evident.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) Which molars have five (major and minor) cusps?
A) Maxillary first and second
B) Maxillary first and mandibular first
C) Mandibular first and second
D) Maxillary third and mandibular third

Page 12
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Q1) Orthodontics requires a sustained pressure to move teeth to a new location. Osteoblasts respond to the new location by forming new bone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Each of the following root characteristics provides significant resistance to displacement from traumatic forces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Root grooves
B) Root concavities
C) A short, smooth root
D) Multiple roots
Q3) Mandibular second molars often have two canals in each root. A)True
B)False
Q4) Root pain always means that dental caries is present.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Each of the following is true of the permanent central incisor EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Evidence of calcification occurs at three months.
B) This is the widest mesiodistally of any of the anterior teeth.
C) Root formation is completed by six years of age.
D) Gemination is an anomaly that sometimes occurs.
E) Development is usually normal.
Q2) Gemination is an anomaly that most commonly occurs in mandibular incisors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which anatomical landmark could make an incisor more prone to dental caries?
A) Cingulum
B) Lingual pit
C) Mamelons
D) Prominent marginal ridges
Q4) All incisors can erupt with mamelons.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The contact areas for the maxillary canine are located in the incisal third.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mandibular canines usually have a bifurcation in the apical third.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Christine has sharp, pointed cusp tips on her maxillary canines. She is 12 years old and has endured some teasing about the "fang-like" appearance of her canines. She asks her dentist if he can change the shape of her canines. The dentist agrees that reducing the cusp tips will result in a positive change in Christine's appearance. If the maxillary cusp tips are flattened, which teeth will they most resemble?
a. Maxillary central incisors
b. Maxillary lateral incisors
c. Maxillary first premolars
d. Maxillary second premolars
Q4) The cusp tip of the maxillary canine is formed by the junction of four ridges.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following are true of both maxillary first premolars and maxillary second premolars (select all that apply)?
A) Both have two cusps.
B) Both have two roots.
C) Both are formed from four developmental lobes.
D) Both have two pulp horns.
Q2) Mandibular first premolars typically have two roots, a mesial and a distal. An anomaly is formation of a third auxiliary root.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The mandibular second premolar shows evidence of calcification at \(2 {~~1 / 2}\) years. Completion of enamel formation does not occur; until 11 to 12 years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) The distal contact area of the mandibular right first molar is located on the distal cusp. This contact area centered over the distal root.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Maxillary molars have an oblique ridge. The oblique ridge is a marginal ridge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Roots of the mandibular molars are inclined mesially.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Accessional is another term for nonsuccedaneous.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements accurately describe the deciduous maxillary lateral incisor (select all that apply)?
A) The crown is smaller than a central incisor's crown.
B) The root of the lateral incisor appears much longer than its crown.
C) A common anomaly is that the maxillary lateral incisor appears peg-shaped.
D) The lateral incisor shows considerable variation in form.
E) This tooth appears similar to a deciduous central incisor.
Q2) Deciduous maxillary molars have a well-developed cusp of Carabelli.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which deciduous molar has three or four cusps, an oblique ridge, three roots, and often has no distal pit?
A) Maxillary first
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Mandibular second
Q4) Deciduous canines erupt before first molars.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Exocrine glands are considered ductless because although they secrete glandular products, their ducts are lost after development of the gland.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) The nucleolus is a circumscribed area within the nucleus. The nucleolus controls the operation of the cell.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The amnion is formed from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cartilage is generally noncalcified.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Development of a cleft palate occurs between the 7th and the 11th week. If it occurs early, only the soft palate or uvula will be affected.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The buccopharyngeal membrane is significant to head and neck anatomy because when it breaks down at about 10 weeks, the connection between the oral cavity and the digestive tract is established.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Migration refers to
A) Early tooth bud mesial drift
B) Deepening of the nasal pits
C) Increase in connective tissue of the upper lip
D) Fusion of the medial nasal process
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Q1) The cells between the dental papilla and the outer enamel epithelium (OEE) compose the stellate reticulum. Originating from deep layers of the oral epithelium, cells of the stellate reticulum are mesenchymal in origin.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The earliest signs of tooth development are seen during the tenth week in utero. A)True
B)False
Q3) The dental sac is composed of several layers of flat mesodermal cells that partially surround the dental papilla and the enamel organ. The dental sac is another name for the dental lamina.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) The multi-pointed cells that become dental papilla cells are called
A) Inner epithelium cells
B) Preameloblasts
C) Mesenchymal cells
D) Secretory cells
Q2) For both primary and permanent teeth the process of tooth development is the same. Development occurs simultaneously in the anterior and posterior regions beginning at the cervical line and progresses toward the incisal/occlusal edges.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The dental papilla has genetic control over tooth shape. A)True
B)False
Q4) The reduced enamel epithelium secretes the primary enamel cuticle.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Root formation begins at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) and proceeds to the root apex. During this process the epithelial root sheath becomes the epithelial diaphragm.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The epithelial diaphragm is parallel to the root sheath.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The periodontal ligament develops from the mesodermal cells of the dental sac.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main fiber group for resisting occlusal stress is the
A) Interradicular
B) Apical
C) Horizontal
D) Oblique
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Q1) If a root is damaged during formation, which of the following would occur?
A) Tooth eruption ceases
B) Tooth eruption continues
C) Root decay
D) Ankylosis
Q2) Active tooth eruption refers to the emergence of a crown into the oral cavity. This eruptive process is usually divided into the pre-eruptive and posteruptive stages.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Deciduous ankylosis occurs when
A) Cementum is fused to the alveolar bone.
B) Deciduous roots are fused to the permanent tooth crown.
C) Deciduous roots are intertwined, twisted, or fused.
D) There is no permanent tooth to cause deciduous root resorption.
Q4) If Hertwig's root sheath is destroyed the tooth will not erupt.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Lack of stippling in the alveolar mucosa is due to epithelium that is not attached tightly to bone. This is initially caused by increased interdigitation between connective tissue and surface epithelium.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Masticatory mucosa is able to withstand trauma or compression during mastication because its surface lacks keratin, an especially vulnerable surface covering.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The redness of the oral mucosa is due to pigments in hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The tongue develops from a swelling that arises out of the anterior portion of the pharyngeal arches. This swelling develops from the future floor of the mouth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Redness and enlarged tissue near the midline and just behind the vallate papillae may indicate infection because this is the location of the lingual tonsil.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The area MOST likely to develop undetected oral cancer is the
A) Fungiform papillae
B) Circumvallate papilla
C) Posterior lateral borders of the tongue
D) Ventral surface of the tongue
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Q1) The primary function of excretory ducts is to carry saliva. However, the striated interlobular ducts also modify salivary content as the fluid passes through them.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Each of the following is true of the connective tissue capsule EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) A salivary gland is surrounded by a connective tissue capsule.
B) The connective tissue capsule sends partitions into the gland.
C) The connective tissue capsule has varying numbers of lobules.
D) The connective tissue capsule is a source of nerves and blood vessels.
Q3) The squid-like appearance of a myoepithelial cell is due to
A) Cellular projections
B) Vasodilation
C) Intralobular ducts
D) Interlobular ducts
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Q1) Alveolar eminences within the zygomatic process are most prominent on anterior teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The coronoid process is involved in the temporomandibular (TMJ) articulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The maxilla consists of a body and ____________ processes.
Q4) The position and size of the lingula is important to clinical dentistry because it often is associated with mandibular tori.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q5) The suture line between the sphenoid and occipital bones disappears when a child reaches puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Another name for the cheekbone is the ___________ bone.
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Q1) Under normal circumstances, sinuses are filled with
A) Fluid
B) Blood
C) Air
D) Bones of the cranium
Q2) The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the inferior concha(e). The point where the ethmoid bone and the maxillae meet in the lateral wall is called the superior nasal concha.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) It is possible that a periapical infection of a tooth may involve the _______sinus.
Q4) The __________ ethmoid sinuses are located within the ethmoid bulla.
Q5) The most posterior-superior part of the nasal cavity is
A) Where the ethmoid meets the sphenoid bone
B) The choana
C) The superior nasal concha
D) The ethmoid bulla
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Q1) The muscles of mastication are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mylohyoid muscle originates from the mylohyoid line on the medial surface of each side of the maxilla. The left and right muscles fuse into what is known as a raphe.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The muscles of mastication are innervated by the fifth cranial nerve because they develop from the first (mandibular) pharyngeal arch.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) The suprahyoid and thyrohyoid muscles control laryngeal movements.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following accurately describe the area immediately surrounding the temporomandibular joint (select all that apply)?
A) The entire TMJ is surrounded by a thick fibrous capsule.
B) The lateral side of the capsule is thickened between the articular tubercle and the condyle.
C) The temporomandibular ligament is a thickening on the lateral side of the capsule.
D) The condyle is displaced medially by the temporomandibular ligament.
E) The temporomandibular ligament provides some resistance to lateral displacement.
Q2) Bruxism can wear down the teeth if it occurs over a long period of time. The more immediate result of bruxism is the inability to close the mouth when it has been opened very wide.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Q1) Fibers of the mentalis muscle cross the midline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The muscles of the scalp move the scalp in a forward but not a backward movement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are true of the buccinator muscle (select all that apply)?
A) It is probably the most important muscle of the mouth.
B) It has no role in mastication.
C) It originates from the pterygomandibular raphe.
D) It originates from the buccal alveolar bone of the maxillary molars.
E) It makes up the musculature of the cheek.
Q4) All of the muscles surrounding the oral cavity interlace with the orbicularis oris.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The soft palate consists of three pairs of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The structure that helps to open the auditory tube, if it is edematous and closed, is the
A) Palatoglossal muscle
B) Palatopharyngeal muscle
C) Levator veli palatine
D) Stylopharyngeal muscle
Q3) During speech the soft palate moves both forward and backward. The backward movement is accomplished by the levator veli palatini.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) Food moves directly from the pharynx to the stomach.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The blood supply to the tongue comes from the lingual artery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pressure point on the mandible for control of facial bleeding is located
A) Where the lingual artery and vein cross the inferior border of the mandible
B) Where the facial artery and vein cross the inferior border of the mandible
C) Between the mental artery and retromandibular vein
D) At the linguofacial trunk
Q3) The superficial temporal vein and the mandibular vein form the retromandibular vein. The retromandibular vein divides into an inferior and a superior retromandibular vein.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The lingual and the facial arteries
A) Supply the tongue
B) Travel the same path, parallel to each other
C) Often join together before branching separately
D) Supply labial gingival of mandibular teeth
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of saliva (select all that apply)?
A) Lubrication of the oral mucosa
B) Production of enamel
C) Assisting in speech
D) Breakdown of starches
E) Aids in swallowing
Q2) The submandibular gland is located below and toward the posterior part of the body of the mandible. It can be palpated in the chin beneath the mandibular molars.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The sublingual gland is lingual to the mandibular canine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The glands of von Ebner are purely serous glands.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) During times of stress incoming light is blocked to protect the eyes. This is accomplished by dilation of the pupils, a function of the sympathetic nervous system.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Each of the following cranial nerves is involved in motor or sensory eye innervation EXCEPT one? Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) VI
Q3) Which nerve supplies the muscle that moves the eye downward and laterally?
A) Oculomotor
B) Trigeminal
C) Optic
D) Trochlear
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Q1) Infections that reach the posterior mediastinum can be fatal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The distribution pattern of lymphatic vessels has been well determined by scientists. This information can be used as a diagnostic tool and as a means of slowing the spread of infection and cancer.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) When blood plasma filtrate enters the lymphatic tubules, it is called lymphatic fluid. Lymphatic fluid empties into the venous system at the junction of the carotid veins.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) Lymphadenopathy cannot be diagnosed without a biopsy.
A)True
B)False
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