Dental Hygiene Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices of oral health maintenance and disease prevention. The curriculum covers topics such as dental anatomy, oral pathology, preventive care techniques, patient assessment, and the proper use of dental tools and materials. Students learn best practices in plaque control, fluoride application, and nutritional counseling, as well as strategies for promoting patient compliance with oral hygiene regimens. Emphasis is placed on the ethical and legal responsibilities of dental hygienists, infection control protocols, and effective communication skills within a dental healthcare team. By the end of the course, students are equipped with the knowledge and practical skills necessary to support optimal oral health in diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the four major concepts of paradigm for the dental hygiene discipline?
A) Client
B) Health and oral health
C) Environment
D) Nutrition
Answer: D
Q2) What professional organization promotes the profession of dental hygiene globally?
A) ADHA
B) NDHA
C) CDHA
D) IFDH
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the seven roles of a dental hygienist?
A) Clinician
B) Public Health
C) Interpreter
D) Researcher
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pockets greater than 4 mm, attachment loss greater than 4 mm, and bleeding on probing are all signs of a deficit in which human need?
A) Wholesome facial image
B) Protection from health risks
C) Biologically sound and functional dentition
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of head and neck
E) Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Answer: D
Q2) From the following list, select those that should be part of documentation of the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have a deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to care
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
H) All of the above
Answer: H
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of nonexperimental research include:
A) making observations between exposures and diseases.
B) ability to conduct studies prospectively.
C) ability to conduct studies retrospectively.
D) both a and c.
E) options a, b, and c.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the PubMed clinical queries options finds citations such as systematic reviews, meta-analyses, reviews of clinical trials, and consensus development conferences?
A) Clinical study categories: Therapy and Narrow scope
B) Clinical study categories: Therapy and Broad scope
C) Systemic reviews
D) Medical genetics searches
E) Both a and b
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enhancing people's capacity to cope with an ever-changing environment is a challenge of which healthcare movement?
A) Health promotion
B) Disease treatment
C) Treatment intervention
D) Disease prevention
E) Tertiary prevention
Q2) The population health approach aims to:
A) strengthen the determinants of health.
B) fund the treatment of disease.
C) establish hospital-based programs.
D) provide every person with similar care.
E) focus on the individual person.
Q3) By organizing other dental hygienists to operate a free mouth guard clinic, Karen is performing which health promotion strategy?
A) Community organization
B) Health education
C) Advocacy
D) Social marketing
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although perceptions are formed based on past experience, they are easily changed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Q3) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q4) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q5) Interpersonal communication is the process by which a person sends a message to another person with the intention of evoking a response.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q7) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q8) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q9) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn. Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stereotyping:
A) is effective in a strange environment with new people to ascertain the characteristics of a member of a particular group.
B) can be described as an inaccurate, biased assessment of another human being based on group characteristics.
C) is an essential step in analyzing cultural differences.
D) recognizes the uniqueness of the individual and allows an accurate perception of the individual.
Q2) Cultural competence starts with:
A) awareness of the client's background and cultural beliefs and values.
B) understanding the client's perspective and social context.
C) applying a variety of communication skills to appeal to the client's identity.
D) awareness of one's own cultural beliefs and practices.
Q3) An equitable, culturally sensitive environment is characterized by:
A) the care provider initiating a cultural encounter.
B) reciprocal inquiry between the client and care provider.
C) the client initiating sharing information about his or her cultural beliefs.
D) the care provider tailoring the information to the mindset of the client.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student is creating an artifact for the e-portfolio and would like to use some radiographs and intraoral images of a client. The student asks the client for and receives permission to use the images in his project. While grading the project an instructor notices the student forgot to remove the client's name from the radiographs. Which core ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Justice
B) Beneficence
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Q2) Which of the following steps should come first in creating an e-portfolio?
A) Writing reflections
B) Selecting a design template
C) Collecting the artifacts
D) Finding a portfolio web site for publishing
Q3) A portfolio required by a state licensing board would most likely be a:
A) working portfolio.
B) best work portfolio.
C) professional development portfolio.
D) curriculum vitae.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygienist has been seeing a teenage client for about 5 years. The client tells the hygienist that he is going to be playing football this year and wants a mouth guard. The hygienist takes the impressions and later enters the dental lab to pour the mouth guard. The dental hygienist should be wearing which of the following items:
A) a mask.
B) overgloves.
C) a lab coat.
D) goggles.
E) all of the above.
Q2) The intraoral camera serves many purposes in the dental setting and they include chairside client education, oral examinations, comparisons, and specialist referrals.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying Standard Precautions, the main factor to consider when selecting protective attire for a given procedure is:
A) the infectious status of the source client.
B) the infectious status of the DHCP.
C) the nature of the procedure.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Low- to intermediate-level disinfectants used to clean environmental surfaces:
A) rapidly inactivate human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis B virus on clinical contact and housekeeping surfaces.
B) must be FDA registered and appropriate to disinfect floors, depending on type of contamination.
C) do both of the above.
D) do neither of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is the first step in managing an occupational exposure?
A) Report the injury to the designated person in the practice setting.
B) Perform first aid.
C) Complete an exposure report.
D) Apply a strong disinfectant to the wound site.
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What sequence of emergency care should be provided for optimal emergency care of a nonresponsive client without a pulse?
A) AED, chest compressions, check airway, rescue breathing
B) Chest compressions, AED, check airway, rescue breathing
C) AED, check airway, rescue breathing, chest compressions
D) Check airway, rescue breathing, AED, chest compressions
E) Chest compressions, check airway, rescue breathing, AED
Q2) The head tilt-chin lift technique is the most important step in maintaining an open airway for rescue breaths because a blocked airway can be cleared with this technique.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q2) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q3) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q5) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are requirements for the legal preparation of the health history document except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Written with ink
B) Error is marked through with one line and "error" written above
C) Error should be initialed and dated
D) Form is signed by client or guardian
E) Patient aged 16 can sign personal health history
Q2) Which of the following regulations ensures confidentiality of health information?
A) Affordable Care Act
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C) Federal Personal Confidentiality Act
D) None of the above
Q3) For the client undergoing cancer chemotherapy, medical consultation can provide which of the following?
A) Need for antibiotic prophylaxis
B) Risk for complications after oral procedures
C) Prognosis for medical condition
D) All of the above
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15
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulse is usually determined by palpating which of the following?
A) Radial artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Brachial artery
D) Femoral artery
Q2) When vital signs are taken at the first office visit, the term used for these readings is:
A) baseline.
B) Korotkoff.
C) consultation.
Q3) You have taken the client's blood pressure and your readings taken 10 minutes apart are 150/116. When the client came in last week, the blood pressure was 120/80. According to blood pressure guidelines, what will the dentist recommend to the client?
A) The client should be referred for a medical consult before dental treatment.
B) The client should be referred for a medical consult after dental treatment.
C) No medical consult is needed; treat as usual.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of effect is seen in a client who experiences a response to a drug that is qualitatively different from the usual or expected response?
A) Drug toxicity
B) Hypersensitivity reaction
C) Drug idiosyncrasy
D) Pathologic influence
Q2) What is the most common etiology for angular cheilitis?
A) Vitamin deficiency
B) Fungal infection
C) Allergic reaction
D) Localized dermatitis
Q3) Which of the following is the most important factor for consideration when determining whether to proceed with dental hygiene treatment for a medicated client?
A) Presence of environmental safety hazards
B) Risk for compromising the client's health
C) Availability of supportive emergency equipment
D) Use of personal protective equipment
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be noted of a client during initial appraisal that gives an indication of deafness or stroke history?
A) Wearing long pants
B) Increased weight gain
C) Slurred speech
D) Wearing clear glasses
Q2) After a lymphadenopathy, which of the following is the specific reason that a head and neck lymph node feels tender to the client when palpated by the clinician?
A) Change in consistency
B) Mobility in tissue
C) Attachment to underlying tissues
D) Pressure on area nerves
Q3) How should the client best move his or her head to allow for the increased prominence of the large strap muscle that divides the neck into regions?
A) Moving head up and down
B) Laying supine in the chair
C) Moving head side to side
D) Pointing the chin down
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of rampant caries?
A) Sudden, rapid destruction of many teeth
B) Slow progressive decay process
C) Progress of decay process has halted
D) New decay around or under a restoration
Q2) What is the eruption period for the maxillary first permanent premolar?
A) 7 to 8 years
B) 8 to 9 years
C) 10 to 11 years
D) 12 to 13 years
Q3) Demineralization of the enamel can occur when there is a rapid drop in plaque pH after consumption of sugar containing foods. How long does it take for the pH of the saliva to return to normal?
A) 20 to 30 minutes
B) 30 to 40 minutes
C) 1 to 2 hours
D) 2 to 3 hours
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dental index converts specific clinical observations into a numeric value (score) to measure the level of oral hygiene of an individual or population. A high numeric value or index score indicates good oral hygiene.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What is the correct order of the stages in dental biofilm formation?
1) Lag in bacterial growth with filamentous forms replaced by cocci
2) Clinically evident inflammation with activation of host immune response
3) Deposition of salivary components
4) Slime matrix produced to protect microcolonies of polysaccharides
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 1, 4
C) 3, 2, 1, 4
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding xylitol except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Xylitol enhances remineralization.
B) Xylitol inhibits the transfer of bacteria from person to person.
C) Xylitol inhibits future recolonization.
D) Xylitol use is recommended twice daily.
Q2) Select all of the caries risk factors.
A) Medium or high Streptococcus mutans count
B) Medium to high Lactobacillus count
C) Moderate plaque deposits on teeth
D) Saliva flow greater than 1 mL/min stimulated
E) Exposed roots
F) Deep pits and fissures
G) Frequent snack use greater than 3 times a day
Q3) Which caries risk case requires an acid neutralizing rinse after snacks and meals for patients 6 years and older to adult?
A) Low risk
B) Moderate risk
C) High risk
D) Extreme risk
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Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a gingival infection characterized by sudden onset, pain, necrosis at the tip of the interdental papillae, bleeding, and a pseudomembrane covering?
A) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C) Linear gingival erythematous
D) Hematologic gingival disease
Q2) When the junctional epithelium has migrated below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ), but remains above the crest of alveolar bone, what type of defect is present?
A) Furcation
B) Intrabony pocket
C) Gingival dehiscence
D) Suprabony pocket
Q3) Which gram-negative bacteria is closely associated with localized aggressive periodontitis?
A) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
B) Treponema denticola
C) Prevotella intermedia
D) Tannerella forsythia
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preterm birth and low-birthweight babies are associated with which of the following?
A) Bacterial endotoxins associated with periodontitis in the blood that stimulate production of inflammatory mediators that induce labor
B) Convulsions and coma during labor
C) Lack of appropriate periodontal therapy during pregnancy
D) All of the above
Q2) Atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels that lead to coronary heart disease are also the main cause of which of the following?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Chronic gastritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Nonhemorrhagic stroke
E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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23
Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygiene diagnosis can be based on just one sign or symptom. This is to simplify the dental hygiene diagnostic process.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The client's assessed blood pressure was 140/90 mm Hg. Given the client's race, weight, smoking behavior, and periodontal health status, what systemic disease is this client most at risk for?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Respiratory disease
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q3) Which of the following should accompany a dental hygiene diagnosis?
A) Signs noted by the dental hygienist
B) Symptoms reported by the client
C) Risk problems (cause)
D) All of the above
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Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements represents the purpose of a client-centered dental hygiene care plan except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Resolution of an oral health problem amenable to dental treatment services
B) Prevention of a problem
C) Promotion of oral health
D) Supports the dental treatment plan
Q2) From the list of components of a dental care plan, Select the two components that may be included in the dental hygiene care plan.
A) Preliminary phase-Emergency Care
B) Phase I-Nonsurgical Therapy
C) Phase II-Surgical Therapy
D) Phase III-Restorative Therapy
E) Phase IV-Maintenance Therapy
Q3) Which component of the dental hygiene care plan defines the client's desired outcome of care?
A) Dental hygiene diagnosis
B) Client-centered goals
C) Dental hygiene intervention strategies
D) Appointment schedule
25
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for recommending a power toothbrush to a client include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) They are safe when used as instructed.
B) They are effective for plaque removal.
C) They are suitable for any client.
D) They have a high level of client acceptance.
E) They are more effective than manual toothbrushes.
Q2) Dental hygienists should recommend replacement of toothbrushes at 2 to 3 month intervals because toothbrush bristles that are worn have been shown to remove less plaque than bristles that are not worn.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interproximal device that is the least effective in removing plaque biofilm is the:
A) interdental brush.
B) tufted dental floss.
C) rubber tip stimulator.
D) power flosser.
Q2) All of the following are things to consider when selecting a dental floss except one. Which one is the exception?
A) gingival attachement levels
B) the tightness of the contact area
C) the contour of the gingival tissue
D) the roughness of the interproximal surface
E) client's manual dexterity and preference
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate interdental recommendation for type I embrasures?
A) Dental floss
B) End-tuft toothbrushes
C) Toothpicks
D) Wedge stimulators
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyrophosphates are therapeutic or medicinal agents that:
A) prevent dental caries.
B) prevent gingivitis.
C) reduce tooth sensitivity.
D) prevent tartar.
Q2) The dental hygienist encourages the client to actively take part in the implementation of his treatment plan by:
A) respecting his cultural differences.
B) having him sign the treatment plan.
C) asking him questions.
D) discussing possible choices with him.
Q3) Chlorhexidine interacts with:
A) essential oils.
B) cinnamon.
C) fluoride.
D) abrasives.
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28
Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scaling procedures must be considered to effectively scale heavy calculus deposits with periodontal pockets in the maxillary right posteriors?
A) Fulcrum placement
B) Clinician's position
C) Instrument selection
D) All of the above
Q2) Reinforcement scaling techniques provide support and lateral pressure for all of the following extended fulcrums except:
A) same arch.
B) cross arch.
C) opposite arch.
D) extraoral.
Q3) Comparing the various grasps, the palm-thumb grasp provides the most tactile sensitivity during scaling procedures. It is a very stable grasp where the thumb supplies the source of pressure.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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29
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A combination of hand and power-driven instrumentation is recommended to obtain optimal results from periodontal debridement. Advantages of mechanized instrumentation over hand-activated instrumentation include increased efficiency, water for lavage, and less pressure at times.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What is the action created by the formation and collapse of bubbles in water by high-frequency sound waves surrounding an ultrasonic tip?
A) Clinical power
B) Mechanical action
C) Cavitation
D) Acoustic microstreaming
E) Amplitude
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dentinal hypersensitivity may occur as a result of the removal of cementum during root instrumentation. The goal of root instrumentation is to remove all cementum.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) The proximal surfaces of roots that are narrower on the lingual than the facial surface are more readily approached from the lingual because there is more proximal space there for the adaptation of instruments.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of these teeth do not have a furcation on the mesial?
A) Maxillary first premolars
B) Maxillary second premolars
C) Maxillary first molars
D) Maxillary second molars
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) When rubber-cup polishing procedures are treatment planned, antibiotic premedication for clients with the highest risk of adverse outcomes for infective endocarditis is recommended because bleeding may occur during polishing.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) A fluoride polishing paste replenishes the fluoride that is lost from the enamel during mechanical polishing. It is not necessary to provide the client with a professionally applied topical fluoride treatment when a fluoride prophylaxis paste is used.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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32
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) When should an appointment for PM therapy or pretreatment occur if the objectives of NSPT are not reached as determined at the reevaluation visit?
A) 2 weeks after reevaluation
B) 4 weeks after reevaluation
C) 8 to 10 weeks after reevaluation
D) 12 to 14 weeks after reevaluation
E) 16 to 20 weeks
Q2) Which of the following describes the rationale for full-mouth disinfection?
A) It is useful in NSPT to save time and money for the client.
B) It reduces the chance of recommending antimicrobial therapy after initial therapy.
C) It has an advantage over traditional full-mouth scaling and root planing.
D) It requires less time on the part of the practitioner in NSPT.
E) It is thought to reduce reinfection of nontreated sites.
Q3) NSPT is part of what phase of periodontal care planning?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
E) Phase V
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) While many active ingredients are available within commercially available oral rinses and dentifrices very few have received the ADA seal of therapeutic efficacy because of all of the following factors except:
A) product has only demonstrated reductions in plaque and gingivitis in short-term studies.
B) product has only been demonstrated efficacious in in vitro studies.
C) insufficient number of long-term studies demonstrating efficacy of product.
D) product has demonstrated efficacy but researchers had disclosed a conflict of interest.
Q2) Which of the following agencies in North America exists to help reduce the risk of harm to clients and diminish their confusion surrounding misbranding of oral chemotherapeutics?
A) The American Dental Association Council on Scientific Affairs
B) The Canadian Dental Association
C) The Food and Drug Administration
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
Q2) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) The ulcers have red, elevated, "halolike" margin with depressed yellow or gray central area
B) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms
C) The most commonly affected teeth are incisors
D) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
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Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of caries management is maintaining and sustaining a balance between pathologic and preventive factors. Remineralizing early noncavitated carious lesions can be accomplished by enhancing salivary flow.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Vertical caries transmission is from parent-to-child. Horizontal transmission is from person-to-person.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Teeth are most susceptible to caries the first year after eruption. Young children should not use a fluoridated dentifrice until the age of 2.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?
A) Enhance the strength of enamel
B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces
C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth
D) All of the above
Q2) Which preventive aid(s) is (are) not thoroughly effective in cleaning the pit and fissures of a tooth?
A) Toothbrushing
B) Fluoride
C) Flossing
D) All of the above
Q3) When placing sealants on the maxillary teeth, the most effective device other than a rubber dam to reduce saliva contamination from the Stensen's duct is (are):
A) cotton rolls.
B) cotton rolls with a holder.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) high volume evacuation (HVE) only.
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) Nutritional counseling for dental caries prevention targets which of the following?
A) Consumption of nutrient dense foods
B) Decreased consumption of fermentable carbohydrates
C) Proper toothbrushing technique
D) Regularity of flossing
Q2) What is the risk level involved with Martha's BMI?
A) Acceptable range
B) Nutritional risk
C) At risk for obesity/health problems
D) Major health risk
Q3) Nutritional counseling is recommended before oral surgery for all of the following reasons except:
A) increase resistance to infection.
B) help meet the catabolic stresses of surgery.
C) increase wound healing.
D) instruct to eat a typical diet in the first few days after surgery.
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) Halitosis is a potential deficit of which type of human need due to tobacco use?
A) Wholesome facial image
B) Protection from health risks
C) Freedom from fear and stress
D) Responsibility for oral health
Q2) A mechanism for coping with cravings is realizing that cravings last only 3 to 5 minutes and trying to wait them out. The human need for freedom from fear and stress is usually unmet in clients seeking dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) All of the following are hallmarks of nicotine addiction except:
A) compulsive use.
B) use despite harmful effects.
C) pleasant (euphoric effects).
D) recurrent drug cravings.
E) intolerance to nicotine.
F) physical dependence.
G) tolerance.
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Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) The size, shape, and porosity of the gypsum particle determine the amount of water required to mix the product, particles that are large and vary in shape require the least amount of water when mixing.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) All of the following are techniques used to minimize the gag reflex during impression taking except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Seat the client upright.
B) Use as small a tray as possible.
C) Seat the tray from the posterior to the anterior.
D) Instruct the client to breathe through their nose.
Q3) The setting time of a mix of dental stone ends when the:
A) exothermic reaction is complete.
B) stone no longer flows.
C) model can be separated from the impression.
D) material is the consistency of sour cream.
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40
Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following polishing agents is used to polish amalgam restorations to a shiny surface?
A) Zirconium silicate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Garnet
D) Tin oxide
Q2) When placing a rubber dam, what is the definition of the anchor tooth?
A) The tooth being restored
B) The tooth being extracted
C) The distal-most tooth in the arch
D) The tooth the retainer is placed on
Q3) A retainer that has a "W" on it indicates that it is _____ retainer.
A) a wingless
B) a winged
C) both a winged and a wingless
D) neither a winged nor a wingless
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs most of the time with regard to the relationship between cementum and enamel?
A) Cementum overlaps enamel.
B) Cementum and enamel meet (no overlap).
C) Enamel overlaps cementum.
D) Enamel and cementum do not meet.
Q2) What term refers to the reduction of the dentinal tubule lumen as a result of the deposition of intratubular dentin?
A) Abfraction
B) Abrasion
C) Dentinal sclerosis
D) Attrition
Q3) Mild dentinal hypersensitivity may be managed by using a sensitivity-protection toothpaste twice daily. Severe dentinal hypersensitivity with loss of tooth structure often requires restoration to control the hypersensitivity.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 42
Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are advantages to the metallic breech loading Aspirating syringe except:
A) autoclavable.
B) weight.
C) visible cartridge.
D) long lasting with proper care.
Q2) Amide local anesthetics undergo biotransformation in the:
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) intestines.
D) nerve cell.
Q3) For each anesthetic, select short, medium, or long duration for pulpal and soft-tissue anesthesia, using each answer once only.
A) Short duration
B) Intermediate duration
C) Long duration
1) Bupivacaine HCL 0.5% epinephrine 1:200,000
2) Mepivacaine HCL 3%
3) Lidocaine HCL 2% epinephrine 1:50,000
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) Oversedation with nitrous oxide may be manifested by which of the following?
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Allergic reaction
C) Tingling sensation
D) A slight heaviness in the client's chest
E) Both a and b
Q2) Light anesthesia rather than relative analgesia may be indicated by:
1) hyperresponsiveness to stimuli.
2) relaxation.
3) exaggerated inspiration.
4) eyelids not resisting opening.
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 3 and 4
E) All of the above
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44
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) Negative attitudes toward the disabled by dental professionals may be caused by:
A) lack of education on how to treat the disabled.
B) unwillingness to accept substandard fees.
C) fear of the disabled patient.
D) lack of experience in treating the disabled.
E) all of the above.
Q2) When performing a transfer (using a sliding/transfer board) from the wheelchair to the dental chair, the dental professional must do all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Stabilize the client's legs.
B) Clear the area of any obstacles.
C) Secure a transfer belt to the client.
D) Raise the dental chair above the wheelchair height.
E) Grasp the client under the arms and around the back.
Q3) An example of someone who is classified as having a medical disability would be an individual who has:
A) anorexia.
B) cerebral palsy.
C) paralysis.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) A syndrome characterized by myocardial dysfunction that leads to diminished cardiac output or abnormal circulatory congestion is known as:
A) congestive heart failure.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) coronary heart disease.
D) patent ductus arteriosus.
Q2) Hypertension is a persistent elevation of the systolic and diastolic blood pressure levels at or above _____ mm Hg.
A) 130/85
B) 135/90
C) 140/90
D) 150/95
Q3) What is the most frequently occurring valvular heart defect that can result in cardiovascular damage?
A) Mitral valve prolapse
B) Heart murmur
C) Endocarditis
D) Rheumatic heart disease
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) What mechanism is thought to cause tissue damage in persons with diabetes?
A) Alteration of the immunoinflammatory response
B) Bacteriologic overgrowth
C) Ketoacidosis
D) Hypoglycemia
Q2) Which of the following oral conditions is considered the sixth complication of diabetes?
A) Dental caries
B) Fungal infections
C) Xerostomia
D) Periodontal disease
Q3) The six complications of diabetes are caused by which of the following?
A) Medications
B) Absence of insulin
C) Lack of glucose to the brain
D) Hyperglycemia
Q4) Which type of diabetes involves an absolute deficiency in insulin secretion?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered to be a measure to manage for radiation-induced mucositis except:
A) prescribed local anesthetics.
B) phenol-based mouth rinses.
C) baking soda and salt-based mouth rinse.
D) over-the-counter (OTC) or prescribed systemic analgesics.
Q2) All of the following are considered to be a palliative measure for radiation-induced xerostomia except:
A) chlorhexidine rinse (0.12%).
B) saliva substitute.
C) humidified room air.
D) salivary gland stimulant.
Q3) Xerostomia because of thickened, reduced, or absent salivary flow compromises speaking, chewing, and swallowing. Because damaged salivary glands from radiation are not permanently damaged; these conditions are temporary.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 48
Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is best characterized as converting:
A) RNA into DNA.
B) DNA into RNA.
C) RNA into tRNA.
D) the host cell into an HIV virion.
Q2) An HIV-positive woman presents for oral care. She has white patches on her lingual surfaces, which do not easily scrape off. This is most likely to represent:
A) poor oral hygiene.
B) esophageal candidiasis.
C) oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D) herpes simplex.
E) hairy leukoplakia.
Q3) Each year in the United States, there are approximately how many new cases of HIV?
A) 10,000
B) 20,000
C) 50,000
D) 100,000
E) 150,000
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes Bell palsy?
A) Facial paralysis caused by a cranial nerve deficit
B) Malformation resulting from an incomplete neural tube formation
C) Uncoordinated ambulation and seizures that lead to frequent falls
D) Developmental disturbance resulting in a distorted facial appearance
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Parkinson's disease?
A) Akinesia
B) Muscle rigidity
C) Blinking eyes
D) Expressionless face
E) Hand tremors
Q3) Which of the following is not a common risk factor for a cerebrovascular accident?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Chronic hypertension
D) Chronic petit-mal seizures
E) Cigarette smoking
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the options that should be part of documentation for the dental hygiene appointment with clients who have autoimmune disease.
A) Process
B) Outcomes
C) Extent to which goals are met
D) Client's response to treatment
E) Referrals needed
F) Adverse reactions
G) Future treatment
Q2) Which type of medications blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins and reduces inflammation?
A) DMARDs
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
Q2) Post-solid organ transplant recipients often experience all of the following conditions except which one?
A) Candidiasis
B) Latent herpetic infections
C) Squamous carcinomas
D) Osteonecrosis of the mandible
Q3) Clients diagnosed with renal disease have a _____ fold greater risk of cardiovascular disease.
A) 50 to 60
B) 10 to 100
C) 2
D) 5 to 6
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best defines difficulty in breathing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cavitation
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Xerostomia
Q2) Which of the following classifications of medications is taken on a daily basis to achieve and maintain control of asthma?
A) Short-acting inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonists
B) Inhaled synthetic corticosteroids
C) Systemic corticosteroids
D) Inhaled antiasthmatics (mast cell stabilizers)
Q3) Which of the following is the most common risk factor for COPD?
A) Air pollutants
B) Occupational irritants
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Underdeveloped lungs
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53
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caregivers are encouraged to be present during treatment for clients with autism spectrum disorders, because a familiar face may be necessary and particularly if immobilization is needed for behavior control.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) The dental hygienist must determine the need for prophylactic antibiotic premedication based on current guidelines in persons with Down syndrome, because congenital heart disease is common in this population.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dental hygienist who suspects the client is under the influence of cocaine or methamphetamine should:
A) refuse to treat client.
B) alert police.
C) call primary care physician for premedication.
D) delay professional oral care for 24 hours after last reported substance use.
Q2) The legitimate medical use for methamphetamine is:
A) option for weight loss.
B) none; there is no known medical use.
C) treatment for insomnia.
D) used for attention deficit disorder.
Q3) Use of local anesthetic is contraindicated when treating:
A) recovering alcoholics.
B) a cocaine user.
C) a marijuana user.
D) an anabolic steroid user.
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55
Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists enhance care for clients with eating disorders through interprofessional collaboration. Eating disorders as complex mental health illnesses require many health professionals' expertise to help the client recover from the illness.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Binge eating disorder is characterized by which of following?
A) Restriction following a purge
B) Binging without purging
C) Restricting eating to nighttime only
D) Excessive exercise before a purge
E) Laxative use following a binge
Q3) Parotid gland enlargement may be a sign of regular vomiting. Diminished taste acuity is a sign of binging behavior.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 56
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) Menopause and postmenopausal oral changes may include all of the following except:
A) pyogenic granuloma.
B) xerostomia.
C) burning mouth syndrome (BMS).
D) dysgeusia.
Q2) Menopause may begin 10 years before the cessation of the menses and may continue for 10 years after. _____ consists of the years preceding menopause, while _____ consists of the years after menopause.
A) Pregnancy; puberty
B) Puberty; postmenopause
C) Perimenopause; postmenopause
D) Postmenopause; perimenopause
Q3) Few anxiolytics are safe during pregnancy; however, a single exposure to N O-O analgesia for no more than 30 minutes is considered to be safe.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 57
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a cranial nerve evaluation with an older patient, the clinician notices that the patient has difficulty with motor movements during facial expression. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely affected?
A) CN 5
B) CN 7
C) CN 9
D) CN 12
Q2) All of the following increase the risk for dental decay in older adults except one. Which is the one exception?
A) May perform less effective oral hygiene
B) May have more exposed root surfaces due to past disease
C) Have diminished chewing function
D) Consume fewer vitamins and minerals, specifically Vitamins A and D
Q3) The presence and degree of dysplasia is the most reliable standard for predicting the malignant potential of a lesion in the elderly.
A)True
B)False
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Page 58
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two components of a fixed partial dental prosthesis are a(n) _____ and a(n)
A) bridge; pontic
B) pontic; clasp
C) clasp; abutment
D) abutment; pontic
Q2) A fixed partial dental prosthesis:
A) replaces all the teeth in one arch.
B) can be removed by the client.
C) is commonly called a bridge.
D) has clasps that help to secure it to remaining teeth.
Q3) Angular cheilitis is often present in persons who experience:
A) broken denture teeth.
B) a poor fitting prosthesis.
C) a vitamin C deficiency.
D) overclosure from reduced vertical dimension.
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caries incidence is more evident in the primary dentition. Which of the following is least likely to be affected?
A) Mandibular incisors
B) Maxillary incisors
C) Teeth adjacent to the cleft
D) Maxillary and mandibular molars
Q2) A multidisciplinary team works together to manage an orofacial cleft. Which specialist is the exception?
A) Periodontist
B) Pedodontist
C) Pediatrician
D) Prosthodontist
Q3) Embryologic development of the upper lip occurs during week:
A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 5.
E) 6.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23076
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the need for periodontal probing around dental implants?
A) Bleeding of the peri-implant tissue
B) Determination of the depth of severe marginal bone loss or peri-implant problems
C) Weak gingival attachment to the bony crest
D) Infection
E) Depression of dental implant within the socket
Q2) How often should the client see the dentist after the placement of the dental implant?
A) Every month for the first year, then every six months
B) Every two months
C) Every three months for the first year; thereafter evaluate for 4-month continued-care appointments
D) Every six months
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of dental implants?
A) poor diet
B) obesity
C) a history of head and neck radiation therapy
D) pregnancy
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Page 61
Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Q1) A dental hygienist can play a large role in evaluating and documenting the oral health status of a client at the initiation of the orthodontic evaluation. Which of the following may be completed by the dental hygienist?
A) Periodontal assessment including measurement of pocket depths, bleeding, furcation involvement, and width of attached gingiva
B) Exposure of radiographs including full-mouth x-ray films and bitewing, panographic, and/or lateral cephalometric radiographs
C) Exposure of intraoral and extraoral photographs to document the client's status at the initiation of treatment
D) All of the above
Q2) A prolonged (more than 6 hours per day) thumbsucking habit may cause the development of which of the following?
A) An anterior open bite from incomplete eruption of the incisors and overeruption of the posterior teeth
B) A constricted maxillary arch, resulting in a posterior crossbite
C) Protrusion of the maxillary incisors
D) All of the above
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding child maltreatment?
A) The majority of physical abuse involves injuries to the head and neck.
B) Abusers often avoid visiting the same physician office and emergency department with the victim, but more often than not return with the victim to the same dental office.
C) Dental offices have special equipment available that help dental professionals investigate suspected cases of abuse and neglect.
D) Very few reports of child abuse or neglect files are from dental professionals.
Q2) Which of the following may be an indicator of human trafficking?
A) The victim is accompanied by someone who does not allow them to come alone.
B) The victim discloses or appears to be under control of another person.
C) The trafficker wants the best dental work for the victim and cost is no object.
D) The victim does not have any identification cards or papers.
E) All of the above are indicators.
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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) Which risk factor(s) for the onset of xerostomia is most important?
A) Anxiety
B) Dehydration
C) Salivary gland disease
D) Medications and drug therapies
Q2) Oral problems are not common among patients receiving palliative care, because most patients can perform oral hygiene on themselves regularly.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) A mouth free of discomfort and bad odors helps with all of the following except:
A) ensuring self-esteem.
B) aiding in social communication.
C) maintaining nutritional status.
D) preventing further decline in overall health.
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Electronic client records have allowed multiple clinicians to view the same record simultaneously, which has led to:
A) increased communication between providers.
B) decreased quality care.
C) over prescribed medications.
D) conflicting treatment options.
Q2) Client nonadherence is a lack of cooperation with recommended oral healthcare. Nonadherence should only be documented when the client refuses recommended treatments.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Positive client motivation is achieved when the provider:
A) builds upon the client's already existing knowledge.
B) uses criticism to gain treatment acceptance.
C) educates clients using scare tactics.
D) fails to recommend preventive treatment.
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65
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) What type of employment is it for an employee that works solely in one office, or for one employer in multiple offices, for a customary number of hours, normally, 30 to 40 hours per week?
A) Temporary
B) Full-time
C) Probationary
D) Job sharing
E) Part-time
Q2) Which of the following would be the best way to learn about a dental office's daily schedule and routine?
A) Complete an online search.
B) Read online reviews about the office.
C) Complete an office observation and interview.
D) Ask clients about the practice.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Personal testimonies to a job candidate's competence and character is a(n):
A) mentor.
B) character witness.
C) reference.
D) advisor.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) During dental hygiene care, the client consistently makes inappropriate comments of a personal and sexual nature to the dental hygienist. The dental hygienist has repeatedly asked the client to stop the behaviors because they make the dental hygienist feel very uncomfortable. The dental hygienist reports the incident to her employer. Which of the following types of sexual harassment may be occurring in this situation?
A) Quid pro quo
B) Hostile environment
C) Gender inequity
D) None of the above
Q2) The dental office protocol is for the dentist and dental hygienist to meet with the client and review the written treatment plan, which includes the procedures to be performed and the costs of the procedures outlined. The client agrees to the written plan. Based on the actions of the patients and the oral healthcare providers, which of the following exists?
A) A tort
B) An implied contract
C) An expressed contract
D) No special relationship exists
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