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Dental Hygiene Exam Review - 824 Verified Questions

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Dental Hygiene Exam Review

Course Introduction

Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for the prevention and management of oral diseases. The course covers the study of oral anatomy, dental materials, infection control, patient education, and preventive care techniques. Emphasis is placed on the development of effective communication skills for patient interaction and the application of evidence-based practices in dental care. Students will also gain hands-on experience in clinical settings, including performing dental cleanings, assessments, and the application of preventative agents. The curriculum prepares students for licensure and a successful career in dental hygiene, focusing on ethical, cultural, and professional standards in oral health care.

Recommended Textbook

The Dental Hygienists Guide to Nutritional Care 4th Edition by Cynthia A. Stegeman

Available Study Resources on Quizplus 21 Chapters

824 Verified Questions

824 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2141

Page 2

Chapter 1: Overview of Healthy Eating Habits

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42644

Sample Questions

Q1) Each of the following accurately describe aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?

A) The DRIs replace the older recommended daily allowances.

B) Current DRIs attempt to estimate required nutrients to improve long-term health.

C) DRIs specifically address individuals whose requirements are affected by a disease state.

D) The DRIs attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients. Answer: C

Q2) Each of the following is true regarding designations for professionals in the field of nutrition except one. Which one is the exception?

A) A nutritionist usually works in a public health setting.

B) A registered dietitian (RD) must pass a national registration examination.

C) An RD who works in public health can call herself a registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN).

D) A dietetic technician, registered (DTR) works under supervision of a registered nurse. Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Concepts in Biochemistry

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The biomolecules necessary for life are based on carbon because carbon has the ability to form glycosidic bonds to itself and many other atoms.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Answer: C

Q2) During the Krebs cycle complete aerobic oxidation of glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>) produces each of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A) CO<sub>2</sub>

B) H<sub>2</sub>O

C) ATP

D) Amino acids

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: The Alimentary Canal: Digestion and Absorption

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most absorption occurs in the stomach because the gastric juices secreted by the stomach effectively hydrolyze and prepare nutrients for absorption.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Answer: E

Q2) Pancreatic enzymes enter the colon through the pancreatic duct. Produced and stored in the pancreas, these enzymes hydrolyze carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Note that proteolytic enzymes, specifically designed to hydrolyze proteins, are also produced and stored in the pancreas.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Answer: D

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Carbohydrate: the Efficient Fuel

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) It is well established that removing sucrose from the diet results in significant reduction of dental caries. Although the total elimination of sweets permanently is unrealistic, the best advice includes consuming sugar in moderation and limiting the frequency of sugar exposure.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q2) Carbohydrate metabolism requires an adequate supply of B vitamins and two minerals-calcium and magnesium. Usually, adequate amounts of nutrients accompany carbohydrate intake except when refined sugars and breads are the predominant choices.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

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Chapter 5: Protein: the Cellular Foundation

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During protein deficiency, a decreased amount of protein in the blood causes an accumulation of fluids within the blood vessels because a loss of osmotic balance occurs.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Each of the following is true of secretory immunoglobulin A (sIgA) except one. Which one is the exception?

A) sIgA levels are depressed in malnourished children.

B) sIgA is present is rarely found in the oral cavity.

C) This secretion provides the first line of defense in the oral cavity.

D) sIgA is present in nasal, intestinal and other mucosal secretions.

Q3) Per kilogram of body weight, which group has the lowest RDA for protein?

A) Infants

B) Children

C) Pregnant women

D) Men

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Lipids: the Condensed Energy

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The strongest dietary determinant of blood cholesterol is dietary saturated and trans fatty acid because they reduce concentration of lipids in the blood.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Which of the following food groups in MyPyramid always contains fat?

A) Fruits

B) Vegetables

C) Milk

D) Grains

E) Meat

Q3) Which fatty acid has the most hydrogen atoms?

A) Saturated

B) Monounsaturated

C) Polyunsaturated

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Chapter 7: Use of the Energy Nutrients: Metabolism and Balance

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Each of the following accurately describes aspects of lipid metabolism except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Insulin increases fat synthesis.

B) The liver regulates fat metabolism and lipoprotein.

C) Modification of fatty acids deactivates their properties.

D) Liver metabolism results in triglycerides being transported to tissues for energy and other uses.

Q2) Each of the following is true of energy expenditure as it relates to control of weight except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Obese women have a similar or higher metabolic rate than thinner women do.

B) Activity level seems to be a principal determinant in the development of obesity.

C) Weight loss from a specific energy deficit is usually predictable.

D) Adjustments in energy expenditure seem to be adaptive.

Q3) During which period of life is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) the highest?

A) The neonatal period

B) Birth through 2 years of age

C) During the first 2 to 3 months of puberty

D) During the early geriatric years

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Chapter 8: Vitamins Required for Calcified Structures

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48 Verified Questions

48 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vitamin A can be stored in the liver for at least:

A) 1 month.

B) 6 months.

C) 1 year.

D) 18 months.

Q2) Hypercarotenemia may be distinguished from jaundice because the sclera of the eye retains its normal white color in hypercarotenemia.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q3) Which of the following nutrients acts most like a hormone?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin C

C) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin E

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10

Chapter 9: Minerals Essential for Calcified Structures

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mineralization of bone begins prior to collagen formation. Mineralization is the deposition of organic elements on an inorganic matrix.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q2) Milk and other dairy products are preferred sources of calcium because lactose enhances calcium absorption.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q3) Each of the following is true of the calcium-to-phosphorus ratio except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Serum (blood) calcium is relatively constant.

B) Each cell has a vital need for calcium.

C) Calcium imbalance occurs when calcium withdrawal from bones exceed deposits.

D) Decreased bone density caused by insufficient calcium occurs rapidly.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Nutrients Present in Calcified Structures

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which mineral is most closely associated with insulin metabolism?

A) Chromium

B) Copper

C) Molybdenum

D) Boron

Q2) Which element is most likely to be found in a patient with extreme nausea, menopausal symptoms, and rheumatoid arthritis?

A) Chromium

B) Molybdenum

C) Manganese

D) Copper

Q3) What is the best advice a dental hygienist can give a patient concerning ingestion of trace elements?

A) Consumption of a variety of foods and fluids help obtain trace minerals.

B) Refined foods are a good source of trace minerals.

C) Multimineral supplements safely supply adequate amounts of trace minerals to support health.

D) Deficiencies of trace minerals are common and can be prevented by taking supplements.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Vitamins Required for Oral Soft Tissues and Salivary Glands

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although milk and milk products are excellent sources of riboflavin, approximately 30% of the dietary intake is furnished by foods in the grain group. Meat, poultry, and fish also provide about one-fourth of the dietary requirement.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q2) Ensures optimal activity of white blood cells

A)Biotin

B)Vitamin C

C)Vitamin A

D)Antioxidants

E)Iron and folic acid

F)Chelated

Q3) Which of the following meats is an exceptionally good source of thiamin?

A) Chicken

B) Turkey

C) Pork

D) Beef

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Fluids and Minerals Required for Oral Soft

Tissues and Salivary

Glands

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cellular edema is present during hypernatremia because when sodium losses exceed water losses, sodium moves from the ECF to the ICF, and water enters the ICF.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Which of the following accurately describes energy drinks? (Select all that apply.)

A) Energy drinks contain stimulants.

B) Although controversial, megadoses of vitamin B provide energy bursts.

C) The use of energy drinks can increase risk for caffeine overdose.

D) The amount of caffeine within the product is listed on the label.

E) Sales have doubled in the past 5 years.

Q3) Dissolved substances that freely cross cellular membranes are:

A) osmoreceptors.

B) solutes.

C) renin.

D) cations.

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Chapter 13: Nutritional Requirements Affecting Oral Health in

Women

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Formation of red blood cells

A)Nutritional insult

B)Preeclampsia

C)Gravida

D)Erythropoiesis

E)Anencephaly

F)Lactation

G)Alcohol

H)Dysesthesia

I)Menopause

J)Hormone replacement therapy

K)Toxoplasmosis

Q2) Omega-3 fatty acids, also known as docosahexaenoic acid, should not be consumed during pregnancy because they interfere with central nervous system and visual development in infants.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

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Chapter 14: Nutritional Requirements During Growth and Development and Eating Habits Affecting Oral Health

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most powerful predictor for how much children eat is how much food is put on their plate. The MyPlate sections for kids are different from those of adults.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q2) Because of increasing cases of fluorosis, low levels of fluoride are added to commercial infant formula. Breast milk provides low levels of fluoride.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q3) What percentage of infants and young children are affected by cow's milk allergy?

A) 2% to 3%

B) 5%

C) 5% to 10%

D) 18% to 20%

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Nutritional Requirements for Older Adults and Eating Habits

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients with xerostomia benefit from lemon glycerin swabs to moisten mucosa because the glycerin contains an alcohol and the swab is flavored with lemon.

A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.

C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.

D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

Q2) Loss of sense of smell

A)Obesity

B)Hypogeusia

C)Anosmia

D)Xerostomia

E)Edentulism

F)Atrophic gastritis

Q3) Dehydration can cause: (Select all that apply.)

A) loose-fitting dentures.

B) increased dental caries.

C) decreased efficiency of homeostatic mechanisms.

D) edema.

E) confusion.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Food Factors Affecting Health

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41 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Guidelines published in the New England Journal of Medicine to help prevent misinterpretation of scientific studies include each of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A) An association between two events is not the same as a cause and effect relationship.

B) Demonstrating one link in a postulated chain of events does not mean that the whole chain has been proved.

C) A single study can prove a theory if it is reviewed by peers.

D) Probabilities are not the same as certainties.

E) The way a scientific result is framed can greatly affect its impact.

Q2) Consumers state each of the following reasons for choosing organic foods except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Environmental reasons

B) Better taste

C) Fresher food

D) More humane treatment of animals

E) Decomposition of topsoil

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18

Chapter 17: Effects of Systemic Disease on Nutritional

Status and Oral Health

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50 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a patient with megaloblastic anemia caused by folic acid deficiency, which of the following suggestions are appropriate for a dental hygienist to provide? (Select all that apply.)

A) Daily intake of folate is necessary.

B) Take oral vitamin B<sub>12</sub> or iron supplements without food.

C) Patients with permanent gastric or ileal damage need vitamin B<sub>12</sub> supplementation for several months.

D) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>shots are always indicated for "tired blood."

E) Raw vegetables are a better source of folate than cooked vegetables.

Q2) Oral manifestations of renal (kidney) disease include each of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Delayed eruption

B) Enamel hypoplasia

C) Pulp calcifications

D) Dysphagia

E) Tooth mobility

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Chapter 18: Nutritional Aspects of Dental Caries: Causes,

Prevention, and Treatment

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) As the frequency of fermentable carbohydrate intake increases, which event occurs?

A) The pH increases.

B) The pH decreases.

C) Salivary protective buffering capacity increases.

D) Salivary immunoglobulin A increases.

E) Salivary buffering capacity remains active if the carbohydrate is a natural sugar, such as honey or molasses.

Q2) The timing of an acidic food within a meal has little effect on cariogenicity. Cariogenic foods create less risk of enamel demineralization if followed by a noncariogenic or cariostatic food.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Both statements are false.

C) The first statement is true; the second is false.

D) The first statement is false; the second is true.

Q3) Salivary flow is stimulated the most by foods rich in:

A) calcium.

B) vitamin D.

C) protein.

D) fiber.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Nutritional Aspects of Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following correctly describe necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis? (Select all that apply.)

A) An acute periodontal disease

B) Prevalent in the elderly

C) Characterized by red and shiny gingiva

D) Sweet smelling breath

E) Common complaints include a burning mouth

Q2) Which of the following combination of situations is most likely to increase risk of severity of periodontal disease?

A) Local irritating factors in combination with systemic factors

B) Local irritating factors alone

C) Systemic factors

D) Systemic factors in combination with medications

Q3) Each of the following is true of a full liquid diet except one. Which one is the exception?

A) May be required for the first 1 to 3 days

B) Provides food in a liquid form for patients unable to chew

C) Kilocalorie value is usually adequate

D) Contains high-protein, high-kilocalorie fluids

E) Contains semi-solid foods

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Nutritional Aspects of Alterations in the Oral

Cavity

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33 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following do patients with xerostomia frequently experience? (Select all that apply.)

A) Burning sensation of the tongue or oral mucous membranes

B) Inadequate intake of vitamins A and C

C) Excessive intake of fiber, fluid, and vitamin B<sub>6</sub>

D) Poor appetite

E) Increased hunger

Q2) Each of the following is a potential effect of gingival recession except one. Which one is the exception?

A) Abrasion of enamel and cementum

B) Erosion of enamel and cementum

C) Root caries

D) Xerostomia

E) Increased calculus and biofilm

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Chapter 21: Nutritional Assessment and Education for Dental Patients

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ameloblast atrophy

A)Folic acid

B)Vitamin C

C)Vitamin A

D)Vitamin K

E)Iron

F)Zinc

G)Cobalamin

Q2) Which of the following accurately depict aspects of the 24-hour recall diet history?

(Select all that apply.)

A) Allows the dental professional to collect data on food consumed during a single day

B) Quick, easy, and presents a representative sample of dietary intake

C) Determines how often a patient consumes foods from groupings containing similar nutrient content

D) Involves weighing and measuring quantities of food consumed

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