Dental Hygiene Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene is an essential course that introduces students to the principles and practices necessary for maintaining oral health and preventing dental diseases. The course covers topics such as oral anatomy, dental biofilm control, preventive measures, patient assessment, and the proper use of dental instruments. Emphasis is placed on the development of clinical skills, including professional cleaning techniques, patient education, and infection control protocols. Students learn to promote oral health as part of overall wellness, preparing them for roles as effective dental hygiene practitioners in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) When considering the key roles of a dental hygienist, what does the client advocate most refer to?
A) A dental hygienist who is working with the state legislature to change the dental practice act
B) Dental hygienist's role in protecting and supporting clients' rights and well-being
C) A person whose official position is to guide and direct the work of others
D) A dental hygiene educator who is employed as a full-time faculty member
Answer: B
Q2) What is the discipline of dental hygiene?
A) The study of teeth and their supporting structures
B) Brushing and flossing one's teeth and rinsing with an antimicrobial mouth rinse twice a day, morning and night
C) The study of preventive oral healthcare, including the management of behavior to prevent oral disease and promote health
D) The study of those procedures that dental hygienists provide to clients
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pockets greater than 4 mm, attachment loss greater than 4 mm, and bleeding on probing are all signs of a deficit in which human need?
A) Wholesome facial image
B) Protection from health risks
C) Biologically sound and functional dentition
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of head and neck
E) Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Answer: D
Q2) Select the four deficits in the human need for a biologically sound and functional dentition.
A) Missing teeth
B) Vital signs outside of normal limits
C) Concern about appearance of teeth
D) Teeth with signs of disease
E) Gingival inflammation
F) Ill-fitting dentures
G) Chewing difficulties
Answer: A, D, F, G
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critical analysis requires that you understand:
A) research design and level of evidence.
B) statistical and clinical significance.
C) formulating a PICO question.
D) both a and b.
E) both b and c.
Answer: D
Q2) Characteristics of secondary research include the following except:
A) filtered, preappraised research.
B) meta-analyses.
C) systematic reviews.
D) case reports.
E) research on already conducted research.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following marketing concepts is the sale of bubble gum in containers that look like chewing tobacco containers?
A) Product
B) Price
C) Purpose
D) Place
E) Promotion
Q2) Enhancing people's capacity to cope with an ever-changing environment is a challenge of which healthcare movement?
A) Health promotion
B) Disease treatment
C) Treatment intervention
D) Disease prevention
E) Tertiary prevention
Q3) Client health promotion has a perspective that:
A) singularly identifies each client's needs.
B) focuses on individual behavior.
C) considers individual behavior and the social environment.
D) attributes disease to environmental influences.
E) lessens the role of the oral health professional in healthcare.
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q2) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q3) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q4) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q6) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message. A)True B)False
Q7) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication is important in a culturally sensitive environment. The clinician should be sensitive to:
A) gestures.
B) eye contact.
C) personal space.
D) all of the above.
Q2) If a client does not speak the language of the care provider, the best strategy to interact would be to:
A) use a medical interpreter with no relationship to the client.
B) speak slowly and ask client if he or she understands the instructions.
C) ask a family member to translate.
D) use body language to communicate you care.
Q3) A client from a collectivist environment:
A) makes decisions about the proposed treatment on his or her own.
B) likes to discuss the treatment options with the healthcare provider alone.
C) prefers a "doctor-centered" approach.
D) might not display the characteristics of the group and therefore might make a decision on his or her own.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copyright is the legal protection for authors and creators of original works, including writing, composing, graphic and visual arts, and architectural and industrial designs, from others copying their work. Copyright prohibits all forms or replication or copying.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) All references cited in a dental hygiene portfolio must be formatted according to the National Library of Medicine Style Guide. It is not necessary to reference sources obtained from the Internet if they are open access.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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9
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic processors with a daylight loader require a dark room and a safelight 4 feet away.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) What type of radiography is used to produce a film or digital image of the maxillary and mandibular jaws.
A) intraoral
B) bitewing
C) panoramic
D) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following services can dental hygienists perform in a hospital setting?
A) bedside care to clients to ill to be transported to the dental clinic
B) care for person who are homebound
C) care for persons who are wheelchair bound
D) take radiographs
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathogens is most likely to be effectively transmitted in a dental health care setting, if a bloodborne occupational exposure occurs?
A) Hepatitis B virus
B) Hepatitis C virus
C) Human immunodeficiency virus
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) Which of the following is the first step in managing an occupational exposure?
A) Report the injury to the designated person in the practice setting.
B) Perform first aid.
C) Complete an exposure report.
D) Apply a strong disinfectant to the wound site.
Q3) Low- to intermediate-level disinfectants used to clean environmental surfaces:
A) rapidly inactivate human immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis B virus on clinical contact and housekeeping surfaces.
B) must be FDA registered and appropriate to disinfect floors, depending on type of contamination.
C) do both of the above.
D) do neither of the above.
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a person who is not responding when spoken to and shaken gently?
A) Unconscious
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Dental fear and anxious
D) Immunosuppression
Q2) Which of the following signs is the most common one associated with severe choking?
A) A person cannot talk or breathe
B) Coughing
C) Bent over position
D) Pallor
E) Perspiration
Q3) Which medication is administered for a mild allergic reaction?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine
C) Amoxicillin
D) Nitrous oxide
E) Ammonia ampule
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q2) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q3) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q4) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q6) Digital motion is an acceptable hand movement during treatment instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the medical history includes a history of myocardial infarction, which of the following assessments is used to determine when it is safe to provide oral care?
A) Six months of time have passed since the event
B) Three months of time have passed since the event
C) The client has functional capacity to run a short distance and climb stairs
D) Either a or b
Q2) The case control study completed by the Mayo Clinic concluded that:
A) antibiotic prophylaxis did not prevent infection in a prosthetic joint.
B) antibiotic prophylaxis diminishes the risk for infection in the prosthetic joint.
C) antibiotic prophylaxis is essential to prevent prosthetic joint infection.
D) dental procedures lead to prosthetic joint infection.
Q3) The risk for syncope can be reduced when an anxious client is treated with:
A) plastic instruments.
B) family or friends in the operatory.
C) sedation pharmacology.
Q4) Direct observation is a component of the medical history assessment.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Korotkoff sounds are associated with which vital sign?
A) Pulse
B) Respiration
C) Temperature
D) Blood pressure
Q2) When taking blood pressure, the systolic blood pressure measures which of the following?
A) The minimum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
B) The maximum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
Q3) If a client's blood pressure is abnormal the first time you take it, you should do which of the following?
A) Inform the dentist.
B) Re-take the blood pressure.
C) Call the client's medical doctor.
Q4) The pulse is usually determined by palpating which of the following?
A) Radial artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Brachial artery
D) Femoral artery
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following medications cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B) Nifedipine (Procardia)
C) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
D) Propranolol (Inderal)
Q2) Which variable is used to determine pediatric drug dosage?
A) Age
B) Height
C) Weight
D) Total body surface area
Q3) Which of the following is the most important factor for consideration when determining whether to proceed with dental hygiene treatment for a medicated client?
A) Presence of environmental safety hazards
B) Risk for compromising the client's health
C) Availability of supportive emergency equipment
D) Use of personal protective equipment
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to best describe structures on the same side of the body?
A) Medial
B) Ipsilateral
C) Lateral
D) Contralateral
Q2) A typical high-risk profile in America for oral cancer is:
A) chewing betel nut.
B) female.
C) under age 40.
D) excessive sun exposure.
Q3) Which is the most common malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity?
A) Verrucous carcinoma
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Malignant melanoma
Q4) The auricular region of the head is known for:
A) only large areas of the scalp.
B) presence of the external ear.
C) location of the glabella.
D) placement of the facial sinuses.
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following minerals are abundant in the saliva for remineralizing early carious lesions?
A) Calcium and phosphorus
B) Calcium and potassium
C) Phosphorus and potassium
D) Phosphorus and iron
Q2) When measuring for furcation involvement, which of the following classes is described by the probe passing completely through the furcation, but the furcation is not clinically visible?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q3) What term is used to describe the occlusion when there is a deviation in the ideal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular teeth when they are in centric occlusion?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Occlusion
D) Malocclusion
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order of the stages in dental biofilm formation?
1) Lag in bacterial growth with filamentous forms replaced by cocci
2) Clinically evident inflammation with activation of host immune response
3) Deposition of salivary components
4) Slime matrix produced to protect microcolonies of polysaccharides
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 1, 4
C) 3, 2, 1, 4
D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Q2) The best time to apply a disclosant is:
A) after the periodontal assessment.
B) after the oral prophylaxis.
C) before the oral assessment.
D) before the client sees the oral findings.
Q3) The most commonly used disclosing ingredient is:
A) methylene blue.
B) erythrosine dye.
C) formaldehyde.
D) fluorescein dye.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following types of fluoride are included in dentifrices marketed in the United States except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Sodium fluoride
B) Sodium monofluorophosphate
C) Stannous fluoride
D) Silver diamine fluoride
Q2) Select the factors for high caries risk in a child 0 to 4 years old.
A) Visibly adequate salivary flow
B) Sleeps with bottle filled with something other than water
C) Nurses ad lib
D) Appliances present
E) Any between meal snacks containing sugar or cooked starch
F) Recent dental restorations (<2 years)
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding xylitol except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Xylitol enhances remineralization.
B) Xylitol inhibits the transfer of bacteria from person to person.
C) Xylitol inhibits future recolonization.
D) Xylitol use is recommended twice daily.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon examination of the furca, the Nabers probe will go completely through the furcation that is covered by soft tissue. This is classified as what furcation type?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) Most periodontal infections begin in the:
A) col.
B) junctional epithelium.
C) alveolar mucosa.
D) attached gingiva.
Q3) Which gram-negative bacteria is closely associated with localized aggressive periodontitis?
A) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
B) Treponema denticola
C) Prevotella intermedia
D) Tannerella forsythia
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Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ischemic strokes are caused by a sudden:
A) blockage of the airway.
B) overstimulation of peripheral nerves.
C) interruption of the brain's blood supply.
D) interruption of the cardiac blood supply.
E) hemorrhage within and around the heart.
Q2) The entry and presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, a common occurrence in patients with periodontitis, is called:
A) bacteriosis.
B) bacteremia.
C) bacterascites.
D) bacteroidosis.
E) bacterioclasis.
Q3) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease:
A) is characterized by chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
B) has been statistically linked to periodontal infections.
C) has not been shown pathophysiologically to be influenced by the presence of periodontal infections.
D) All of the above
22
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client's assessed blood pressure was 140/90 mm Hg. Given the client's race, weight, smoking behavior, and periodontal health status, what systemic disease is this client most at risk for?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Respiratory disease
C) Renal disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) The dental hygiene diagnosis can be based on just one sign or symptom. This is to simplify the dental hygiene diagnostic process.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The dental hygiene diagnosis is written in a three-part statement that includes all of the following except:
A) unmet human need.
B) cause.
C) length of time the patient has had the problem.
D) defining characteristics (signs and symptoms).
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Client presents for Phase I Nonsurgical Therapy to address the following dental hygiene diagnosis: unmet human need for skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck due to generalized subgingival biofilm, gingival pockets of 4 mm as evidenced by generalized spontaneous bleeding upon probing. Following implementation of dental hygiene intervention strategies, in which phase of care is the client scheduled to measure the outcome of the dental hygiene care plan?
A) Phase I: Evaluation of Response to Nonsurgical Therapy
B) Phase II: Surgical Therapy
C) Phase III: Restorative Therapy
D) Phase IV: Maintenance Therapy
Q2) Which component of the dental hygiene care plan defines the client's desired outcome of care?
A) Dental hygiene diagnosis
B) Client-centered goals
C) Dental hygiene intervention strategies
D) Appointment schedule
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24
Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for recommending a power toothbrush to a client include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) They are safe when used as instructed.
B) They are effective for plaque removal.
C) They are suitable for any client.
D) They have a high level of client acceptance.
E) They are more effective than manual toothbrushes.
Q2) Which ethical principle is represented by a dental hygienist's allocation of time for instruction, repetition, reinforcement, and continual assessment of each client's oral health practices?
A) Beneficence
B) Nonmaleficence
C) Society trust
D) Veracity
E) Autonomy
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25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices is not recommended for use with dental implants?
A) Braided floss
B) Brush with foam tip
C) Clasp brush
D) Dental water jet
Q2) Which of the following devices is designed to clean slightly below the gingival margin?
A) Interproximal brush
B) Interproximal swab tip
C) Toothpick holder
D) Wooden wedge
Q3) Tongue cleaners are most useful in improving which of the following oral conditions?
A) Caries
B) Gingivitis
C) Malodor
D) Bleeding
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client suffering from dental hypersensitivity must use dentifrice containing:
A) SnF2.
B) NaF.
C) sodium hexametaphosphate.
D) potassium nitrate.
Q2) A patient suffering from allergies may react to the ingredients in toothpaste. Some ingredients in toothpastes can trigger an allergic reaction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following therapeutic agents is considered to be an antitartar product?
A) Potassium nitrate
B) Zinc citrate
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Peroxide
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When selecting an instrument to scale heavy calculus deposits, which of the following must be considered?
A) Length of the shank
B) Angle of the shank
C) Strength of the shank
D) Texture and shape of the shank
Q2) In managing an instrument tip breakage, the dental hygienist must immediately stop instrumentation if a small metal fragment breaks off and inform the client. Low-speed or high-speed aspiration (suction) should be continued to prevent the client from swallowing the metal foreign object.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) A "basketweave" of strokes can be defined as which of the following?
A) A series of wavy pattern pull strokes
B) Combination of multidirectional strokes
C) Alternating push and pull strokes
D) Nonoverlapping strokes
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the correct adaptation of an ultrasonic working end to the tooth surface?
A) The working end is angulated at more than 45 degrees and less than 60 degrees.
B) The working end should be angulated at 15 degrees or almost parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
C) The working end is angulated at 60 degrees to 80 degrees to the tooth surface.
D) The working end is angulated at zero degrees to the tooth surface.
E) The working end is adapted at a different angle depending on if it is a piezoelectric tip or a magnetostrictive insert.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions provides a visual cue to the clinician to correct the tuning of a standard ultrasonic insert?
A) A narrow steady stream of water
B) Very fine droplets of water covering a large area
C) Large drops of water covering a large area
D) Fine droplets of water and a narrow stream of water covering a large area
E) A steady stream of water
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cervical enamel projections (CEPs) are "droplets" of enamel that form on the surface of the roots of multirooted teeth, generally near the area of a furcation. CEPs are most frequently observed on mandibular molars.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of these teeth have two roots?
A) Maxillary and mandibular first molars
B) Maxillary premolars and maxillary molars
C) Maxillary premolars and mandibular molars
D) Mandibular first and mandibular second molars
Q3) Which of these teeth do not have a furcation on the mesial?
A) Maxillary first premolars
B) Maxillary second premolars
C) Maxillary first molars
D) Maxillary second molars
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary objective of tooth polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Prepare teeth for the maximum uptake of fluoride.
B) Eliminate oral biofilm so the client can experience smooth enamel.
C) Loosen all soft calculus remaining after scaling.
D) Remove the extrinsic stain remaining after scaling.
E) Help the patient maintain good oral biofilm control.
Q2) Restorative procedures, such as veneers or composite bonding, achieve a better aesthetic result for clients with tetracycline-stained teeth because gray-blue stains are resistant to tooth bleaching.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) All of the following bleaching agents are contraindicated for use in home-bleaching trays except:
A) 8.6% sodium perborate.
B) 10.0% carbamide peroxide.
C) 35.0% hydrogen peroxide.
D) 25.0% sodium hypochlorite.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the objective of therapeutic scaling and root planing?
A) To remove as little root structure as possible while returning adjacent tissues to health
B) To remove cementum or surface dentin that is rough or impregnated with calculus until it is glossy, smooth, and hard
C) To remove cementum contaminated with toxins or microorganisms
D) To remove all subgingival plaque biofilm and its byproducts
E) To initiate the healing process
Q2) Characteristics of aggressive periodontal disease include all of the following except:
A) familiar aggregation.
B) disease that progresses rapidly.
C) disease that progresses slowly.
D) a healthy client.
E) vertical bone loss.
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32
Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Subantimicrobial systemic dose of antibiotics refers most closely to which of the following statements?
A) Antibacterial with shifts in normal periodontal flora
B) Used for relatively short periods of time
C) Administration of a reduced quantity of drug for alternative purposes
D) Used in clients normally sensitive to antibiotics
Q2) While many active ingredients are available within commercially available oral rinses and dentifrices very few have received the ADA seal of therapeutic efficacy because of all of the following factors except:
A) product has only demonstrated reductions in plaque and gingivitis in short-term studies.
B) product has only been demonstrated efficacious in in vitro studies.
C) insufficient number of long-term studies demonstrating efficacy of product.
D) product has demonstrated efficacy but researchers had disclosed a conflict of interest.
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33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
Q2) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of chronic periodontal abscess?
A) Overgrowth of pathogenic organisms in a periodontal pocket that drains inflammatory exudates.
B) An abscess that is confined to the marginal gingiva and often occurs in previously Healthy gingival areas
C) No tooth mobility
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about xerostomia clients and treatment except:
A) clients with xerostomia should not use dentifrices containing potassium nitrate.
B) clients with xerostomia are usually higher caries risk.
C) several hundred medications can cause xerostomia.
D) mineral availability is reduced in clients with xerostomia.
E) salivary pH is decreased and is often lower in clients with xerostomia.
F) clients often have difficulty speaking because of less lubricated oral soft tissues.
Q2) Many home water filtration devices remove fluoride from community water. Well water may contain water from multiple sources with various fluoride concentrations.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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35
Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) Safety concerns of curing lights are:
A) the shield should be surface disinfected after use.
B) the operator and patient should never look directly at a curing light when in use.
C) a plastic barrier should be used on the tip.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Pit and fissure sealants:
1) render pits and fissures more cleansable.
2) arrest incipient caries.
3) mechanically fill the pits and fissures.
4) prevent caries in newly erupted teeth.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q3) Which population should have sealants placed on their teeth?
A) Children with newly erupted molars
B) Adolescents with deep pit and fissures on their posterior teeth
C) Adults with noncavitated lesions
D) All of the above
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy, a woman's caloric needs increase by approximately how many calories per day?
A) 0
B) 150
C) 350
D) 550
Q2) During the oral assessment of a 46-year-old male client, the dental hygienist notes that the client's gums are swollen, spongy, and bleeding. Which of the following nutrients might be deficient in the client's diet?
A) Vitamin B
B) Folacin
C) Vitamin C
D) Riboflavin
Q3) Which of the following would be wise food choices for the dental hygienist to recommend as snacks for young children because of their noncariogenicity?
A) Low-fat yogurt, apples, carrots, string cheese, and skim milk
B) Popcorn, oranges, saltine crackers, sports drinks, and dry unsweetened cereal
C) Peanut butter crackers and noncarbonated fruit drink
D) Fruit flavored tea and tortilla chips
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine withdrawal symptoms can be hunger or weight gain. Behavioral coping strategies to address these symptoms are aerobic exercise, healthy eating, drinking water, chewing xylitol gum, and/or eating xylitol hard candy.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The first statement is correct, but the second is not.
D) The first statement is not correct, but the second is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) When assessing a client for tobacco use, all these questions can be asked of current tobacco users except one. Which is the one exception?
A) If you smoke, what type and how many times per day
B) If you chew/use snuff, what type? How much?
C) How long do you keep chew in your mouth? ____minutes
D) How many days of the week do you use tobacco?
E) How interested are you in stopping your use of tobacco?
F) Do you have ill-fitting dentures?
G) Have you tried to stop using tobacco before?
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the amount of water used to mix stone will result in:
A) decreases in setting time.
B) dies that can be used in constructing crowns.
C) a weaker model.
D) a grainy cast.
Q2) Alginate impression materials may be separated from the stone casts after:
A) the material no longer flows.
B) 45 to 60 minutes.
C) the material is in a semihard mass.
D) the initial set.
Q3) A nightguard was recommended to mediate her:
A) parafunctional occlusal forces.
B) orthodontic relapse.
C) moderate BOP.
D) recession.
Q4) The setting time of a mix of dental stone ends when the:
A) exothermic reaction is complete.
B) stone no longer flows.
C) model can be separated from the impression.
D) material is the consistency of sour cream.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) A properly mixed amalgam has what characteristic in appearance?
A) Crumbly
B) Dry
C) Grainy
D) Shiny
Q2) Burrs incorporated with abrasives are commonly used to finish and polish composite restorations. It is recommended to start with a fine-grit abrasive and progress to course-grit abrasives.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Amalgam has what element as the largest amount?
A) Aluminum
B) Tin
C) Copper
D) Mercury
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is the best self-applied home product to help decrease dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) Fluoride mouth rinse or gel
B) Nonfluoride antibacterial mouth rinse
C) Oral irrigation system
D) Medium- to hard-bristled toothbrush
Q2) Mild dentinal hypersensitivity may be managed by using a sensitivity-protection toothpaste twice daily. Severe dentinal hypersensitivity with loss of tooth structure often requires restoration to control the hypersensitivity.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) What term refers to the reduction of the dentinal tubule lumen as a result of the deposition of intratubular dentin?
A) Abfraction
B) Abrasion
C) Dentinal sclerosis
D) Attrition
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) Amide local anesthetics undergo biotransformation in the:
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) intestines.
D) nerve cell.
Q2) The client is scheduled for scaling and root planing of the upper right quadrant. You have administered the ASA, MSA, GP, and NP using a short 27-gauge needle and now are preparing to do the PS a. Before administering the PSA, you draw the needle across a piece of sterile gauze and it becomes caught on the gauze. You should clear the needle from the gauze and:
A) proceed with the injection.
B) take the opportunity to change to a long 27-gauge needle.
C) replace it with a new short 30-gauge needle so that the larger lumen decreases the difficulty for aspiration.
D) replace it with a new short 25-gauge needle because of the high risk of aspiration in this area of the mouth.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) The flowmeters indicate that a client is receiving 4 L of nitrous oxide and 6 L of oxygen. What is the client's tidal volume?
A) 4 L
B) 6 L
C) 10 L
D) 2 L
E) 7 L
Q2) Oversedation with nitrous oxide may be manifested by which of the following?
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Allergic reaction
C) Tingling sensation
D) A slight heaviness in the client's chest
E) Both a and b
Q3) Nausea after nitrous oxide exposure may occur as a result of which of the following?
A) Titrating the levels of nitrous oxide delivered
B) Overoxygenating at the end of the appointment
C) Seesawing the nitrous oxide delivery
D) Turning off the nitrous oxide too quickly
E) All of the above
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43
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of someone who is classified as having a medical disability would be an individual who has:
A) anorexia.
B) cerebral palsy.
C) paralysis.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q2) All of the following should be taken into consideration when treating a patient who is totally blind except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Greet the client by grasping their hand.
B) Allow the client to smell and feel materials that are to be used.
C) Instruct the client to leave the guide dog in the waiting area.
D) Explain to the client the location of the dental operatory.
Q3) All of the following client risks except one are associated with persons who are paralyzed from the waist down and who require wheelchair transfers into the dental chair. Which is the one exception?
A) Aspiration
B) Muscle spasms
C) Decubitus ulcers
D) Disruption of bladder and bowel elimination
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) The medication of choice to alleviate angina pectoris is:
A) Procardia.
B) nitroglycerin.
C) Vasotec.
D) digitalis.
Q2) What is the most frequent form of heart disease leading to death?
A) Congenital heart disease
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Coronary heart disease
D) Valvular heart disease
Q3) The following are risk factors for cardiovascular disease. One of the risk factors is nonmodifiable; the remaining risk factors are modifiable. Which risk factor is nonmodifiable?
A) Professional stresses
B) Gender
C) Tobacco use
D) Obesity
E) Diet high in saturated fats
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) The African American person who is over 40 years old, overweight, has abdominal body fat, physical inactivity, and no symptoms of diabetes should be tested for:
A) beta cell destruction.
B) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
C) hypertension.
D) neuropathy.
E) impaired glucose tolerance.
Q2) Glucose intolerance that can occur during pregnancy is termed:
A) impaired fasting glucose.
B) gestational diabetes mellitus.
C) prediabetes.
D) autoimmune diabetes.
Q3) What is responsible for the increasing incidence of diabetes in the U.S. population?
A) Obesity
B) Heredity
C) Sugar in the diet
D) Hypertension
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Salivary gland function returns to normal following radiation therapy to the head and neck. Individuals may stop daily applications of fluoride to the teeth when they perceive that the saliva has returned following radiation therapy.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following oral infections is not caused by a decrease in immune response (immunosuppression) because of chemotherapy?
A) Dysphagial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Viral infection
D) Bacterial infection
Q3) Dietary recommendations for patients with salivary gland dysfunction include less frequent eating/drinking of:
A) high-carbohydrate snacks.
B) diet sodas.
C) caffeinated beverages.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) refers to:
A) using three or more antiviral drugs to prevent HIV viral replication and improve disease prognosis.
B) using a single "highly active" agent against HIV.
C) ensuring that the agent is "active" against a particular strain of HIV.
D) prescribing a cocktail of various medications against HIV that have not yet expired and are therefore active.
Q2) Kaposi's sarcoma lesions frequently regress after initiation of an effective HAART regimen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since 1992, the number of documented cases of HIV following occupational exposure in the dental or dental hygiene care setting is:
A) 0.
B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 4.
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygiene care is extremely important for clients with epilepsy because:
A) they are unable to perform their own oral hygiene.
B) it minimizes the effect of phenytoin on the gingiva.
C) good oral hygiene can prevent seizures.
D) of all of the above.
Q2) When treating a client with a hearing aid the operator should decrease extraneous noise, because loud noises may elicit seizure activity.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of spinal cord dysfunction?
A) Bone cancer
B) Diving accidents
C) Polio
D) Spina bifida
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Select three primary factors that are necessary for the development of autoimmunity.
A) Genetic mutations
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Cytokinetic response
D) Infection
E) Trauma
F) Hemorrhage
G) Immunohistoincompatibility
Q2) Local anesthesia and nitrous oxide-oxygen sedation are recommended for patients taking long-term corticosteroid therapy, because these modalities help to eliminate the need for steroid supplementation during dental hygiene treatment.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23067
Sample Questions
Q1) Peritoneal dialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the client's:
A) peritoneum is cleansed.
B) blood is cleansed through the peritoneal cavity.
C) blood is cleansed a few ounces at a time through a special filter.
D) blood is replaced with transfused donated blood.
Q2) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a serious complication affecting the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) kidneys.
C) nephrons.
D) parathyroid gland.
Q3) In post-solid organ transplant recipients, immunosuppression:
A) is greatest immediately after transplant surgery.
B) is greatest 1 year after transplant surgery.
C) is greatest 6 months after transplant surgery.
D) never changes; it must always be high.
Q4) Oral manifestations of anemia include all of the following except which one?
A) Pallor of the oral mucosa
B) Calcifications in veins and arteries
C) Glossitis
D) Angular stomatitis
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best defines difficulty in breathing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cavitation
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Xerostomia
Q2) Which of the following terms has been associated with chronic bronchitis?
A) Blue bloater
B) Barrel chest
C) Mantoux skin screening
D) Cavitation
Q3) Use of a rubber dam during dental procedures is contraindicated with COPD patients, because it may cause more breathing problems.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069
Sample Questions
Q1) The American Dental Hygienists Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics states that clients should be treated without discrimination. Dental hygienists who are ill-prepared to treat these clients should seek continuing education opportunities and/or refer the client so that high-quality care can be rendered.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) A severe gag reflex may be managed by eliminating the use of toothpaste to reduce gagging and provide better vision for the caregiver. Water, an ADA-accepted antimicrobial mouth rinse, or an ingestible or low-foaming dentifrice can be used in place of toothpaste.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:
A) 12 to 14.
B) 18 to 25.
C) 20 to 35.
D) 40 to 55.
E) 50 to 59.
Q2) The dental hygienist should modify treatment to include all of the following for clients recovering from substance abuse except:
A) use of nonalcoholic preprocedural rinse.
B) consult with primary care physician on pain control choices.
C) schedule short, multiple appointments.
D) use of nitrous oxide for pain control.
Q3) Use of local anesthetic is contraindicated when treating:
A) recovering alcoholics.
B) a cocaine user.
C) a marijuana user.
D) an anabolic steroid user.
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54
Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23071
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists enhance care for clients with eating disorders through interprofessional collaboration. Eating disorders as complex mental health illnesses require many health professionals' expertise to help the client recover from the illness.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Anorexia nervosa may be comorbid with which one of the following conditions?
A) Sociopathology
B) Substance abuse
C) Autism
D) Alcoholism
E) Brain injury
Q3) Parotid gland enlargement may be a sign of regular vomiting. Diminished taste acuity is a sign of binging behavior.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) Encourage the child to discuss any fears about oral health visits, and ease and distract anxiety by saying all of the following except:
A) "You are such a big girl/boy!"
B) "Isn't this fun!"
C) "It won't hurt!"
D) "It sure is sunny out today!"
Q2) BMS is clearly understood and once the diagnostic symptoms have been recognized it is easy to treat.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q3) Osteoporosis includes significant loss of bone mass and may be detected:
A) with a patient history.
B) during a patient's physical.
C) while undergoing ovulation induction.
D) with the use of DEXA, QCT, or RA, or after fractures occur.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23073
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a cause of dry mouth in the elderly?
A) Anticholinergic properties of many common medications
B) Result of normal aging
C) Decreased bioavailability of vitamins, specifically vitamin C and B complex vitamins
D) Loss of integrity of parotid gland tissue
Q2) Which of the following are common age-related changes seen in the oral tissues?
A) Oral epithelium becomes thicker and fuller.
B) Osteoarthritis often affects TMJ function and occlusion.
C) Increased immune response masks any oral diseases.
D) Sense of taste becomes more acute due to increase of fungiform and filiform papilla.
Q3) Demographic projections for elderly in the United States from 2010 to 2030 indicate that the elderly will comprise 19% of the population because of increases in life span, as well as an increase in life expectancy.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23074
Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium hypochlorite cleansers should be avoided with dentures that have:
A) acrylic components.
B) metal components.
C) porcelain components.
D) staining.
Q2) What can contribute to a person's edentulous status?
A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal diseases
C) Low socioeconomic status
D) Inadequate access to professional oral care
E) All of the above
Q3) Angular cheilitis is considered a _____ infection.
A) bacterial infection
B) fungal infection
C) mixed bacterial and fungal
D) mixed bacterial and viral
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23075
Sample Questions
Q1) Embryologic development of the palate is complete by week:
A) 9.
B) 10.
C) 11.
D) 12.
E) 13.
Q2) Each of the following has a strong association with the occurrence of a nonsyndromic orofacial cleft except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Maternal smoking
B) Maternal alcohol consumption
C) Lack of folic acid intake
D) Lack of maternal nutrition
E) Familial history
Q3) Which of the following enamel disturbances is associated with orofacial clefts?
A) Enamel hyperplasia
B) Enamel hypoplasia
C) Fluorosis
D) Amelogenesis imperfecta
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59
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23076
Sample Questions
Q1) On the mobility evaluation scale, 2 corresponds to which of the following clinical impressions?
A) absence of clinical mobility with 500 g in any direction
B) slight detectable horizontal movement
C) severe horizontal movement >0.5 mm
D) moderate visible horizontal mobility
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobial agents will help in the maintenance of the implant?
A) Combination of 1% chlorhexidine and 1% thymol
B) Solution of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate
C) Arestin
D) Fluoride varnish
Q3) All of the following are roles of the dental hygienist in implant maintenance except one. Which one is the exception?
A) identification of potential implant clients
B) fitting of the implant
C) education and motivation through treatment
D) probing when necessary
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23077
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the equilibrium theory, the position of the teeth is determined by forces applied by which of the following?
A) Lips and cheeks
B) Tongue
C) Gingival and periodontal fibers
D) All of the above
Q2) The pubertal growth spurt is important to consider when orthodontic treatment is planned. The pubertal growth spurt begins at an earlier age in _____ and lasts for a _____ period of time than in _____.
A) boys; longer; girls
B) boys; shorter; girls
C) girls; longer; boys
D) girls; shorter; boys
Q3) Pain during orthodontic tooth movement is the result of which of the following?
A) Undermining resorption
B) Ischemic necrosis of the periodontal ligament (PDL)
C) Frontal resorption
D) Damage to the pulps of the teeth
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23078
Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the typical sites for inflicted injuries of abuse are:
A) cheeks.
B) neck.
C) genitals.
D) lower back.
E) all of the above.
Q2) Indicators of abuse may include:
A) victims wearing inappropriate seasonal clothing to cover injuries to the arms and legs.
B) victims or perpetrators stating hard to believe stories about how the injuries occurred.
C) victims presenting with multiple bruises or injuries in various stages of healing.
D) victims demonstrating unusual fear or anxiety in the presence of the perpetrator.
E) all of the above.
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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23079
Sample Questions
Q1) Which risk factor(s) for the onset of xerostomia is most important?
A) Anxiety
B) Dehydration
C) Salivary gland disease
D) Medications and drug therapies
Q2) Select the four clinical classifications of oral candidiasis.
A) Pseudomembranous
B) Erythematous
C) Gingivitis
D) Hyperplastic
E) Periodontitis
F) Angular cheilitis
Q3) What organism is a natural inhabitant of the oral cavity and responsible for most cases of candidiasis?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
C) Candida albicans
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
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63
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23080
Sample Questions
Q1) Practice management includes all the following except:
A) facilitating high quality care.
B) efficient use of time.
C) reduced stress of employees and clients.
D) increased supervision of employees.
E) enhanced professional satisfaction.
Q2) Offices should have a standard format with the same topics for each office meeting so the employees are prepared for the conversation. Meetings should not be planned in advance; instead meetings should be off the cuff topics.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) A practice's philosophies and objectives can be defined as the practice: A) management.
B) product.
C) promotion.
D) marketing strategy.
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64
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23081
Sample Questions
Q1) Self-awareness may impact one's desires for career choices and job selection, because this knowledge enables one to discover particular interests, abilities, and environments conducive for success.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which statement is not true regarding performance evaluation?
A) May be used as an evaluation tool
B) May assist the dental hygienist in improving his or her skills
C) May determine if a raise is awarded
D) Should be performed regularly
E) Should be performed by clients
Q3) A cover letter:
A) should be emailed to a potential employer 1 day before the interview.
B) should be submitted to a potential employer along with a résumé.
C) is an optional tool that may be used to market your job potential.
D) is a dated protocol and is no longer necessary.
E) includes social, personal, and work history.
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23082
Sample Questions
Q1) Obtaining a client's informed consent for a dental hygiene procedure is most related to which one of the following ethical principles?
A) Autonomy
B) Fidelity
C) Justice
D) Veracity
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
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