Dental Hygiene Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene is a course designed to provide students with foundational knowledge and practical skills related to the promotion of oral health and the prevention of dental diseases. The curriculum covers topics such as oral anatomy, dental hygiene assessments, patient education, infection control procedures, instrumentation techniques, and community oral health programs. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical competencies for preventive care, professional ethics, effective communication, and interdisciplinary collaboration. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experience, students prepare to deliver comprehensive dental hygiene care to diverse populations within a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Dental Radiography for Dental Assistants and Hygienists 10th Edition by Evelyn Thomson
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30 Chapters
1488 Verified Questions
1488 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Dental Radiography: Historical Perspective and Future Trends
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental x-ray film available today is coated with emulsion on both sides.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the technique of choice for intraoral radiography?
Answer: The paralleling technique is the technique of choice because it is less complicated and more consistently produces better radiographs than the bisecting technique
Q3) What New Orleans dentist first made practical use of x-rays in the treatment of dental patients?
A) H. R. Raper
B) G. M. Fitzgerald
C) F. Mouyen
D) C. E. Kells
Answer: D
Q4) Pointed cones should be used to direct radiation from the x-ray tube to the patient. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Characteristics and Measurement of Radiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of these is NOT a Système International (SI) unit of measurement?
A) Sievert
B) Roentgen
C) Coulombs per kilogram
D) Gray
Answer: B
Q2) What is the term for atoms that have gained or lost electrons and electrical neutrality?
Answer: Ions. The number of protons (positive charges) in an atom normally equals the number of electrons (negative charges). When an electron is removed from a neutral atom, it loses electrical neutrality and becomes an ion.
Q3) Each of the following is a form of ionizing radiation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Cosmic rays
B) X-rays
C) Radio waves
D) Gamma rays
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Dental X-Ray Machine: Components and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermionic emission refers to the release of electrons from the target material during the process of incandescence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Direct current flows in pulses and changes direction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The intensity of the x-ray beam is affected by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Target size
B) Kilovoltage
C) Exposure time
D) Milliamperage
Answer: A
Q4) The anode is the negative electrode (terminal) in the x-ray tube.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Factors Affecting Radiographic Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penumbra is a device used in extraoral radiography to prevent scatter radiation from fogging the image receptor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The difference in densities between adjacent areas on the radiograph is termed:
A) sharpness.
B) density.
C) resolution.
D) contrast.
Q3) A radiographic film with a small crystal size
A) creates sharpness.
B) causes magnification.
C) decreases exposure time.
D) increases contrast.
Q4) What is radiographic contrast?
Q5) Thicker intensifying screens increase the sharpness of extraoral radiographs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the relationship between kVp and contrast?
Q7) What is penumbra?
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Chapter 5: Effects of Radiation Exposure
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Sample Questions
Q1) All cells in the human body have the same sensitivity to radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lethal dose (LD 50/30) of radiation for humans is estimated to be:
A) 4,500 grays.
B) 450 grays.
C) 45 grays.
D) 4.5 grays.
Q3) The latent period refers to the time between exposure to radiation and the ionization of molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What theory of radiation damage to cells results from free radicals combining to form toxins such as hydrogen peroxide?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Indirect
D) Direct
Q5) When do the effects of irradiation occur?
Q6) Can dental x-rays cause cataracts in the lens of the eye?
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Chapter 6: Radiation Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on evidence-based selection criteria for keeping radiation exposure ALARA, a child recall patient with several risk factors for caries would most likely be assessed for bitewing radiographs every 6 to 12 months.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increasing the dose of radiation is a recommended method to compensate for weak processing solutions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sum of inherent and added filtration is called .
Q4) Based on evidence-based selection criteria for keeping radiation exposure ALARA, an adult recall patient with no risk factors for caries would most likely be assessed for bitewing radiographs annually.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three categories of methods for protecting oral health care personnel from radiation exposure?
Q6) Should image receptor holding devices be recommended to reduce radiation exposure?
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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film and Processing Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental film has a polyester base for the purpose of:
A) increasing the contrast and image quality.
B) providing support for the emulsion.
C) producing the latent (invisible) image.
D) preventing scatter radiation from exposing the film.
Q2) Dental film emulsion is about 90 to 99 percent silver bromide and 1 to 10 percent silver iodide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For what is the embossed dot in one corner of intraoral dental x-ray film used?
Q4) Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) During exposure, the x-rays strike and ionize all silver halide crystals on the film.
B) The invisible image on an x-ray film is called the "latent image."
C) The function of the gelatin in film emulsion is to keep the silver halide crystals evenly suspended over the base.
D) Silver halide in the emulsion is primarily silver bromide.
Q5) Intraoral film emulsion is composed of a gelatin and silver halide crystals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Digital Radiography and Image Acquisition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The darkroom door should be locked when processing film.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding developer chemistry is FALSE?
A) Sodium sulfite slows down the oxidation rate.
B) Sodium carbonate provides the alkaline medium.
C) Potassium bromide restrains development of unexposed silver halide crystals.
D) Potassium alum swells the gelatin.
Q3) Oxidation is the process during which the chemicals of the developing and fixing solutions combine with oxygen and lose their strength.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Developer solution needs replenishment more often than fixer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ideal time-temperature for manual processing archival radiographs is 85 degrees F.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which processing solution prevents further film development?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Line pairs refers to the total number of shades of gray visible in an image.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Digitization converts radiographs obtained with traditional film-based radiography to digital images.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Do digital imaging systems necessarily require a computer and monitor to capture and view an image?
Q4) CMOS and CCD are types of direct digital sensors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How many gray levels can a computer monitor display?
A) 8
B) 32
C) 256
D) 65,500
Q6) Each pixel is a single dot in a digital image.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Legal and Ethical Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are infectious diseases?
Q2) Which of the following will benefit the most from using film packets with a protective barrier?
A) Manual processing
B) Automatic processing
C) Daylight loaders
D) Rapid (chairside) processing
Q3) Protective clothing, mask, and eyewear should be in place prior to putting on patient treatment gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the following statements regarding personal protective equipment is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Protective clothing should be laundered weekly.
B) Protection from aerosols may be achieved through the use of a mask.
C) Protective eyewear protects the eye area from aerosols and spatter.
D) Hands should be washed before gloving and after removing gloves.
Q5) What is the definition of "disinfect"?
Q6) Are some patients likely to be reluctant to admit infectious conditions?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Patient Relations and Education
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Q1) Each of the following statements regarding dental radiographic equipment regulations is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Most states require registration of dental x-ray machines.
B) Inspection of dental x-ray machines is usually conducted every 2-4 years.
C) Fees are usually collected for inspection of x-ray machines.
D) The dentist can perform inspections of dental x-ray machines.
Q2) Original radiographs are the property of the dentist in whose practice they were made.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who has a legal right to request copies of a patient's radiographs?
A) Another dentist
B) The patient
C) An insurance company
D) All of the above
Q4) "Liable" means to be legally obligated to make good any loss or damage that may occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Who owns a patient's dental radiographs?
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word is least likely to be understood by the average patient?
A) Dental film
B) X-ray film
C) Radiograph
D) Periapical
Q2) If the radiographer feels the procedure is unnecessary or uncomfortable, these feelings will be conveyed to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which attitude is more likely to gain the patient's trust with respect to the radiographer's ability?
A) "I know this is an uncomfortable procedure, so I'll be as quick as possible."
B) "This is an easy procedure, but I need you to help by slowly closing."
C) "I always gag on the back ones, so I understand your apprehension."
D) "A small mouth makes it difficult, but this will only be for a few seconds."
Q4) Can intraoral and panoramic radiographs be prescribed for the same patient?
Q5) Does patient refusal to submit to dental radiographs preclude care being rendered by the dentist?
Page 14
Q6) How should the radiographer greet the patient?
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Chapter 13: The Periapical Examinationparalleling Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bitewing survey may consist of two to eight radiographs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) Negative angulation directs the central ray upward toward the ceiling.
B) Accurate vertical angulation is more important to the paralleling than the bisecting technique.
C) 0 vertical angulation directs the PID parallel to the floor.
D) Vertical angulation refers to directing the PID up and down.
Q3) Periapical radiographs can image only one tooth on each radiograph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) The two basic techniques employed in intraoral radiography are bisecting and paralleling.
B) The paralleling technique arose through application of the rule of isometry.
C) Both the paralleling and the bisecting techniques can be modified to meet special conditions.
D) The paralleling technique is newer than the bisecting technique.
Q5) Have film holders always been used in dental radiography?
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Chapter 14: The Periapical Examinationbisecting Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are three image receptor holders designed for use with the paralleling technique?
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) A sterile cotton roll may be placed on the opposite side of the bite block for stabilization of the image receptor holder.
B) The external indicator ring attachment must be as close to the patient's skin as possible without touching.
C) The patient must bite down on the bite block firmly enough to hold the image receptor in place.
D) The bite block back plate must be at a 105-degree angle for use with the paralleling technique
Q3) The use of the paralleling technique is ideal with adult patients with a small mouth or shallow palatal vault.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most likely reason that overlapping occurs even if the image receptor is correctly positioned parallel to the teeth of interest and the central ray is accurately directed through the appropriate embrasure?
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Bitewing Examination
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Q1) The patient must be seated correctly to use predetermined vertical angulations when employing the bisecting technique.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The seating position of the patient is not important in using predetermined anatomical landmarks to direct the central ray of the x-ray beam toward the point of entry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Using the bisecting technique, the image receptor is placed parallel to the long axes of the teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The recommended vertical angulation for exposing a maxillary canine periapical radiograph using the bisecting technique is:
A) +20 degrees
B) +30 degrees
C) +40 degrees
D) +45 degrees
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Chapter 16: The Occlusal Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditionally, the image receptor for a bitewing radiograph has been placed with the longer dimension vertically in the posterior region.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following image receptor sizes would necessitate that only two bitewing radiographs be exposed?
A) Size #0
B) Size #1
C) Size #2
D) Size #3
Q3) Using an image receptor holder with an external aiming device will most likely eliminate what error?
A) Overlapping
B) Unequal distribution of arches recorded
C) Cone cutting
D) Incorrect placement of the image receptor
Q4) What is the name of the location the central ray is directed toward on the patient's face?
Q5) Which two angulations are critical to producing quality bitewing radiographs?
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Chapter 17: The Panoramic Examination
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Q1) If the image receptor is not placed in the mouth with at least 1/4 inch (1/2 cm) protruding outside, the result will be cone cutting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List reasons for assessing a patient for occlusal radiographs.
Q3) The identification dot on an occlusal film should be placed toward the posterior to the oral cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding managing occlusal radiograph exposures is FALSE?
A) Exposure factors are the same as those used for periapical and bitewing radiographs in the same region.
B) The open end of the PID should be positioned as close to the patient's skin as possible, without touching.
C) A modification of the paralleling technique is used to determine the vertical angulation.
D) A shorter PID minimizes distortion.
Q5) What are the recommended exposure settings for occlusal radiographs?
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Chapter 18: Identifying and Correcting Undiagnostic
Radiographs
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Q1) Failing to record the apical region of the teeth on a periapical radiograph most likely results from an error made in which of the following steps?
A) Placement of the image receptor
B) Horizontal angulation
C) Vertical angulation
D) Centering the x-ray beam
Q2) Misuse of a cotton roll to stabilize the image receptor may result in root tips being cut off from the image.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Improper or insufficient washing of radiographic films will result in:
A) brown films.
B) green films.
C) black films.
D) white/clear films.
Q4) What produces thin black lines or smudges often in a pattern on the radiograph?
Q5) What conditions permit white-light film fog?
Page 20
Q6) What causes an iridescent stain on the radiograph?
Q7) Does radiographic film have an expiration date?
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Chapter 19: Quality Control and Environmental Safety in Dental Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a reference film?
Q2) Establishing a quality control program for radiographic procedures helps to increase the quality of radiographs produced and decrease the incidence of retake radiographs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Quality control testing of the automatic processing system should be performed monthly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In automatic processing, the most likely cause of damp films is that:
A) the water level too high.
B) the dryer was not operating correctly.
C) distilled water was not used.
D) the rinse spray was too forceful.
Q5) What is the name of the device made of layered metal steps of varying thickness used to determine film density and contrast?
Q6) How long after closing the darkroom door and turning off the lights would light leaks become visible?
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Chapter 20: Image Orientation and Introduction to Interpretation
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Q1) All intra- and extraoral film should be stored in:
A) a lead-lined storage box.
B) a disinfected drawer in the operatory.
C) the original packaging until ready for use.
D) the darkroom.
Q2) What information is listed on a product's MSDS?
Q3) An emergency eyewash station must be within 25 feet of where processing chemicals are handled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The water flow of a properly functioning emergency eyewash station must be at least 1 gallon per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Who is responsible for reviewing the MSDS?
A) The dentist
B) The dental assistant
C) The dental hygienist
D) All of the above
Page 22
Q6) What happens if fixer chemicals are accidentally mixed with developer?
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy
Intraoral Radiographs
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Q1) Which of these statements is FALSE?
A) Once exposed and processed, heat can no longer affect dental film.
B) Misplaced radiographs can result in risk-management problems.
C) Radiographs should be retained indefinitely.
D) Radiographs should be handled with care to avoid smudging or scratching.
Q2) Each of the following statements regarding film mounting is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Mounted films are easy to store.
B) Mounting decreases the chance of error caused by confusing the patient's right and left sides.
C) Lingually mounted radiographs allow for easy transfer of findings to the patient's record.
D) Patient communication is enhanced when films are mounted.
Q3) A single intraoral radiograph should be placed in a coin envelope and attached to the patient's chart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lingual method of film mounting is the preferred method.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Recognizing Normal Radiographic Anatomy
Panoramic Radiographs
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Q1) Examples of anatomic landmarks that may appear on a maxillary anterior radiograph include the nasal septum, anterior nasal spine, and soft tissue shadow of the nose.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each of the following is a structure of the mandible EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) The ramus
B) The condyle
C) The coronoid process
D) The hamulus
Q3) A thin radiopaque line delineates the midline of the palate and the junction of the right and left maxilla.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the round radiolucency often observed near the apices of the mandibular premolars called?
Q5) What is the vertical radiopaque line separating the paired radiolucencies of the nasal cavity called?
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Chapter 3: Radiographic Appearance of Dental Materials and Foreign Objects
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Q1) The term "idiopathic resorption" can apply to either external or internal resorption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these statements regarding the radiographic appearance of dental materials is FALSE?
A) A full metal crown may be distinguished from amalgam by its smooth margins.
B) A stainless steel crown has a see-through appearance.
C) A porcelain jacket appears more radiopaque than a full metal crown.
D) Porcelain appears about the same density as dentin.
Q3) What is the most commonly encountered form of benign tumor in the arches?
Q4) A taurodont tooth is a single tooth bud that divides and forms two teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of malignant tumor arises from an epithelial origin?
Q6) Hypercementosis is distinguished from other radiopacities in bone by the absence of the periodontal ligament space.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
Q7) What is the most common odontogenic tumor?
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Chapter 24: The Use of Radiographs in the Detection of Dental Caries
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Q1) Buccal and lingual caries are best detected radiographically.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Early occlusal, buccal, lingual, and cemental caries are not likely to be recorded on radiographs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is the superimposition of the buccal and lingual cusps of the posterior teeth that hinders recording incipient occlusal caries on a radiograph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The detection of caries is one of the most common reasons for exposing dental radiographs.
B) The carious process is one of remineralization of tooth structure.
C) Caries appears radiolucent on the radiograph.
D) The presence of caries allows more x-rays to pass through the tooth and darken the image receptor.
Q5) How do caries appear radiographically compared to radiopaque enamel?
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Chapter 25: The Use of Radiographs in the Evaluation of Periodontal Diseases
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Q1) What is the radiographic appearance of the lamina dura when gingivitis is present?
Q2) Radiographs can distinguish treated versus untreated disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An amalgam overhang is a local contributing factor for periodontal disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the following periodontal case types will reveal bony changes radiographically EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q5) Radiographs may be used to evaluate crestal bone and interdental septal changes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Changes in soft tissue can be demonstrated radiographically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Describing Radiographic Anomalies, Lesions, and Opportunistic Screening
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Q1) What size intraoral image receptor should be used to image a child with a transitional dentition?
Q2) How many radiographs should be included in a full mouth survey of a child with transitional dentition?
Q3) A full mouth survey for a 15-year-old should consist of:
A) 12 periapicals and 2 bitewings.
B) 12 periapicals and 4 bitewings.
C) 14 periapicals and 2 bitewings.
D) 14 periapicals and 4 bitewings.
Q4) The evidence-based guidelines for prescribing dental radiographs pertain to adults and not to children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each of the following may assist with placement of the image receptor for a child patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Placing the image receptor parallel to the long axes of the teeth of interest
B) Using a smaller-sized image receptor
C) Switching to a smaller, lighter image receptor holder
D) Using the bisecting technique
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Chapter 27: Pediatric Radiographic Techniques
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Q1) Placing the image receptor to expose the anterior regions first can help avoid exciting a gag reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the gag reflex is correct?
A) Tactile stimuli result from the suggestion of gagging.
B) Psychogenic stimuli are a physical reaction to a feeling of the airway being blocked.
C) The radiographer should ask the patient, "Are you a gagger?"
D) Unless the patient brings up the problem of gagging, the radiographer should not mention it.
Q3) Which of the following would be most likely to assist in controlling a tactile stimulated gag response?
A) Place a commercial edge-covering product over the image receptor.
B) Direct the patient to press the back of the head against the headrest.
C) Ask the patient to breath deeply through the nose.
D) Project confidence while maintaining an empathetic attitude.
Q4) What should the radiographer do to help communicate with a hearing-impaired patient prior to putting on a protective mask?
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Radiographic Techniques for Patients With Special Needs
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Q1) To avoid overlap of contact areas on a molar bitewing radiograph, the image receptor should be positioned perpendicularly to the midpoint of the maxillary first molar.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Disto-oblique periapical radiographs are indicated for each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Suspected pathology located in the tuberosity area
B) Imaging impacted third molars
C) A patient who cannot tolerate posterior placement of the image receptor
D) Detection of interproximal caries
Q3) Radiographs are a two-dimensional representation of three-dimensional objects. A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the principle behind the tubeshift method of localization?
Q5) The exposure settings for the maxillary molar region should be higher than those used in the mandibular anterior region.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Radiographic Techniques for Specific Oral Conditions
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Q1) Each of the following statements regarding extraoral film is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is individually packaged in the same manner as intraoral films.
B) It should not be handled with latex or vinyl treatment gloves.
C) It is more sensitive than intraoral film.
D) It is used in conjunction with a pair of intensifying screens.
Q2) How many intensifying screens are inside a cassette?
Q3) Of what is the back cover of a rigid extraoral film cassette constructed?
Q4) A transcranial radiograph evaluates the maxillary, frontal, and ethmoid sinuses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of these extraoral radiographs is most often used to show the base of the skull?
A) Lateral cephalometric
B) Transcranial
C) Submentovertex
D) Posteroanterior
Q6) Extraoral film should be loaded in the cassette just prior to use.
A)True
B)False Page 32
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Chapter 30: Radiographic Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following describes the collimator of the panoramic x-ray beam?
A) It is circular (round).
B) It is concentric (cone-shaped).
C) It is rectangular
D) It is a narrow slit
Q2) What is the name of the anatomic landmark that appears on a panoramic image as a radiolucent ovoid or round opening in the center of the ramus of the mandible?
Q3) Which of the following would correct an exaggerated smile appearance of a panoramic radiograph?
A) Instruct the patient to straighten his or her posture.
B) Instruct the patient to close his or her lips around the bite block.
C) Reposition the midsaggital plane perpendicular to the floor.
D) Reposition the ala-tragus line at 5 degrees positive.
Q4) The bite block is used to position the arches correctly in the forward-backward dimension of the focal trough.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happens to the radiographic image if intensifying screens and film are not in tight contact?
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