Dental Hygiene
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with foundational knowledge and practical skills essential for promoting and maintaining oral health. The course covers topics such as oral anatomy, dental disease prevention, patient education, and professional ethics. Students learn techniques for thorough dental cleaning, assessment of oral health conditions, and the application of preventive agents. Emphasis is placed on infection control, periodontal therapy, and the development of effective communication strategies for interacting with diverse patient populations. Through a combination of classroom instruction and hands-on laboratory experience, students are prepared for roles as dental hygienists in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team 5th Edition by Chris
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What microbe is used to make bread dough rise?
A)Bacteria
B)Yeasts
C)Viruses
D)Protozoa
Answer: B
Q2) The disease of smallpox was involved in the discovery of immunizations in the 1790s by Edward Jenner.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) In which year were microbes first observed?
A)1667
B)1880
C)1956
D)1975
Answer: A
Q4) Louie Pasteur and John Tyndall first recognized the use of _____ to destroy bacteria and resistant spores.
Answer: heat
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Characteristics of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to:
A)kill bacteria.
B)grow viruses.
C)kill viruses.
D)culture bacteria.
Answer: D
Q2) Regular bacteria, excluding Rickettsia and Chlamydia, multiply:
A)in the absence of nutrients.
B)only when they are inside of living cells.
C)when they are outside of living cells.
D)only when the temperature is below 7°
Answer: C
Q3) Psychrophilic bacteria grow best under which of the following conditions?
A)In the human body
B)In hot water heaters
C)Anywhere the temperature is 37° C
D)In the refrigerator
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Development of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prodromal stage of a disease is defined as the:
A)appearance of early symptoms.
B)recovery phase of a disease.
C)period between infection and the development of symptoms.
D)time when the symptoms are maximal.
Answer: A
Q2) Microbes that are usually harmless but can cause disease under certain conditions are called _____ pathogens.
A)opportunistic
B)toxigenic
C)endogenous
D)exogenous
Answer: A
Q3) Aerosol particles generated from the use of a prophylaxis angle enter the body mainly through:
A)breaks in the skin and ingestion.
B)inhalation and mucous membranes.
C)only breaks in the skin.
D)mucous membranes and breaks in the skin.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Emerging Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before are referred to as _____ diseases.
A)emerging
B)opportunistic
C)endogenous
D)exogenous
Q2) In 2003 a coronavirus was discovered as the cause of:
A)monkeypox in humans.
B)hepatitis F.
C)gastric ulcers.
D)severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q3) New outbreaks of influenza emerge frequently (almost every year) because of:
A)a breakdown in public health measures.
B)ecological changes that bring humans and animals together in new ways.
C)changes in human behaviors.
D)microbial changes.
Q4) Ecological changes that result in disease emergence in humans usually involve diseases from ____________ or insect-borne diseases.
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Chapter 5: Oral Microbiology and Plaque-Associated Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral biofilm (dental plaque) is:
A)accumulated food debris that occurs in the absence of oral hygiene.
B)an accumulation of glycoproteins from saliva.
C)a microbial mass that accumulates in the absence of oral hygiene.
D)an aggregation of white blood cells that come from the gingival sulcus.
Q2) Where do periapical infections occur?
A)Around the tooth pulp
B)In the outer portion of the tooth enamel
C)In the deep part of the tooth dentin
D)In the tissue around the tooth apex
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is the most important in causing the progression of a carious lesion after the lesion has been initiated?
A)Streptococcus sanguis
B)Lactobacillus acidophilus
C)Porphyromonas gingivalis
D)Prevotella intermedia
Q4) The names of different types of caries are based upon___________.
Q5) Periodontitis occurs only in older adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Bloodborne Pathogens
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS is the acronym for __________.
Q2) HIV makes people sick by:
A)damaging the liver.
B)causing a respiratory infection.
C)causing food poisoning.
D)destroying their immune system.
Q3) The greatest occupational risks for exposure to hepatitis B virus are (1) blood and saliva contamination of cuts and cracks on the skin or ungloved hands or hands with torn gloves, (2) spraying of blood and saliva onto open lesions on the skin or onto mucous membranes.and (3):
A)by ingesting contaminated water.
B)through injuries with contaminated sharps.
C)through inhalation.
D)by shaking hands with patients.
Q4) Which antibody is formed after a person responds to the hepatitis B vaccine?
A)Anti-HBc
B)Anti-HBe
C)Anti-HAV
D)Anti-HBs
Q5) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by the ____________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Oral and Respiratory Diseases
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Q1) A report has shown that two cancer-weakened patients acquired oral infection with the bacterium _____ that originated from dental unit water.
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Candida albicans
Q2) Which of the following human herpesviruses causes hairy leukoplakia, an infection of the tongue?
A)Type 1
B)Type 2
C)Type 3
D)Type 4
Q3) In untreated _____, a secondary oral phase (infectious mucous patches) of the disease may appear 2 to 10 weeks after the initial non-oral lesion occurs and has subsided.
A)tuberculosis
B)chickenpox
C)syphilis
D)infectious mononucleosis
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infection Control Rationale and Regulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will reduce the chances for cross-contamination from patient to dental team?
A)Using good quality treatment water
B)Using a preprocedure mouth rinse
C)Using disposable items
D)Heat sterilizing high- and low-speed hand pieces
Q2) How can we best prevent disease, considering the dose of the microbe and body resistance?
A)Increase the dose and decrease body resistance.
B)Decrease the dose and increase body resistance.
C)Increase the dose and increase body resistance.
D)Decrease the dose and decrease body resistance.
Q3) According to OSHA, employers of health care workers must offer their employees the hepatitis B vaccination series (1) free of charge, (2) within 10 days of their employment, and (3) after they have:
A)been prescreened for immunity to hepatitis B.
B)received the required training on bloodborne pathogens.
C)agreed to practice universal precautions.
D)been fitted for protective clothing and gloves.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often should one receive a "flu" shot?
A)Once every 20 years
B)Once every 10 years
C)Once every 5 years
D)Once every year
Q2) According to OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, if a dental office staff person who is susceptible to hepatitis B refuses the offer to be vaccinated against hepatitis B, what must happen?
A)The staff person must not be hired or must be fired.
B)The staff person must see a physician.
C)The staff person must sign a vaccine declination form.
D)The staff person can work in the office but can only work with children under age 12.
Q3) There is no vaccine for which of the following diseases?
A)Hepatitis C
B)Measles
C)Mumps
D)Influenza
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Chapter 10: Hand Hygiene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of hand lotion will not have detrimental effects on latex gloves?
A)Glycerin
B)Lanolin
C)Palm oil
D)Petrolatum
Q2) Which of the following is too toxic to use as an antimicrobial hand washing agent?
A)Triclosan
B)Chlorhexidine
C)Iodophor
D)Glutaraldehyde
Q3) Which of the following best describes the transient skin flora on the hands?
A)Microbes that live on the skin all the time
B)Microbes that are never completely killed or removed by handwashing
C)Microbes that are usually involved in the spread of disease from the hands
D)Microbes that are nonpathogenic
Q4) Hands should be washed before gloving and after removing gloves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Personal Protective Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is proper handling of reusable protective clothing?
A)It can be taken home and laundered by the employee.
B)It needs to be removed before leaving the office for lunch.
C)It can be worn in the office lunch room as long as it does not come into direct contact with food or utensils.
D)It can be worn in the office restrooms as long as it does not come into direct contact with the hand washing sink, faucets, or towel dispenser.
Q2) Heavy latex utility gloves are used:
A)during an oral examination.
B)to clean the unit after dental treatment.
C)to set up the clean unit.
D)as an overglove.
Q3) The use of powder-free latex gloves helps to:
A)limit the spread of airborne latex protein allergens.
B)prevent all three types of skin reactions to gloves.
C)eliminate the need for hand hygiene after removing the gloves.
D)allow the use of alcohol hand rubs while wearing gloves.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Instrument Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should instrument packages or cassettes be placed into the sterilizer chamber?
A)On their edges or in a single layer
B)Layered flat and stacked upon one another
C)Packed tight to reduce any air space between the packages or cassettes
D)One cassette or package at a time regardless of its size
Q2) According to the CDC, how should critical instruments be prepared for use?
A)Thoroughly wiped down with alcohol
B)Processed with high-level disinfection
C)Sterilized in an ultrasonic cleaner
D)Heat sterilized
Q3) Paper bags for steam sterilization are best used to package:
A)metal impression trays.
B)hand mirrors and napkin chains.
C)explorers and periodontal probes.
D)lightweight nonsharp items.
Q4) Proper steam sterilization involves placing the instruments in a completely closed container before processing them through the sterilizer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Surface and Equipment Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the strongest (most potent) disinfectant?
A)A tuberculocidal disinfectant
B)A hospital-level disinfectant
C)A low-level disinfectant
D)An antiseptic
Q2) Which of the following is used to kill microbes on the skin just before an injection?
A)Sterilant
B)Antiseptic
C)Antibiotic
D)Disinfectant
Q3) What should be done before disinfecting a contaminated operatory surface?
A)Pre-clean the surface.
B)Cover the surface with a plastic surface cover for 10 minutes.
C)Wipe the surface with a sterilant/high-level disinfectant.
D)Make sure it has been uncovered and open to the air for at least 10 minutes.
Q4) When using surface disinfectants in the office, one cannot verify whether the microbes on the surface have been removed or killed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Dental Unit Water Asepsis and Air Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you attach a separate water bottle containing sterile water to a previously untreated dental unit with biofilm in its waterlines, what will the water quality be when it enters the patient's mouth?
A)The water will be sterile.
B)The water will contain microorganisms.
C)The water will contain mercury.
D)The water will be fluoride-free.
Q2) The level of microbes in dental unit water is expressed as:
A)mg/L.
B)CFU/mL.
C)ppm.
D)µg/gal.
Q3) Most, if not all, unmodified dental units produce water that is below the standard for drinking water.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Aseptic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carpeting should not be used in dental operatories because it:
A)is not easy to walk on.
B)may fade.
C)is difficult to clean.
D)will show wear patterns.
Q2) One should not use bleach (sodium hypochlorite) to flush or clean out the vacuum line.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a rubber dam and high-volume evacuator is used during a restorative procedure on a child patient, the chairside assistant need not wear a mask or eye protection.
A)True B)False
Q4) You can use a plastic disposable high-volume evacuator tip on how many patients?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)10
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Chapter 16: Laboratory and Radiographic Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best way to manage contamination of a daylight loader?
A)Disinfect the insides of the sleeves after every use.
B)Remove the sleeves after every use and sterilize them in a steam autoclave.
C)Never contaminate the sleeves.
D)Always wear the same gloves used with the patient when you enter the sleeves of the loader, because this prevents wasting gloves.
Q2) What is the main infection control tenet concerning laboratory receiving areas?
A)Always wear fresh heavy utility gloves when entering the laboratory.
B)Never wear contaminated clothing into the laboratory.
C)All items coming from patients' mouths must be sterilized or disinfected before being taken into the laboratory.
D)Place prostheses and impressions in sterile containers before taking them into the laboratory.
Q3) Disinfection of dental impressions should last _____ minutes.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Waste Management
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Q1) Which of the following is regulated waste in a dental office?
A)A used patient bib
B)A 2- x 2-inch gauze pad with a few spots of blood on it
C)Used exam gloves
D)A double-ended scaler with a broken tip
Q2) OSHA requires sharps containers to be:
A)made of glass.
B)securely attached to a wall.
C)leak proof.
D)reusable.
Q3) The CDC recommends that sharps containers should be located:
A)just outside the restrooms.
B)next to the registration window in the waiting room.
C)in the laboratory.
D)as close as possible to the work area.
Q4) Which of the following is regulated waste?
A)Used plastic surface barriers
B)Used scalpel blade
C)Used sterilization wrap
D)A cotton roll damp with saliva
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Chapter 18: Preventing Sharps Injuries
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Q1) What is the safest approach to cleaning and managing contaminated hand instruments?
A)Hand-scrubbing the instruments with a long-handled brush, then placing them on the bottom of an ultrasonic cleaner tank and ultrasonically cleaning them
B)Ultrasonic cleaning the instruments placed on the bottom of the cleaner tank, then hand scrubbing them with a long-handled brush
C)Ultrasonic cleaning in a cleaning basket
D)Ultrasonic cleaning in instrument cassettes
Q2) Sharps containers should be:
A)occasionally drained to remove any contaminated liquid.
B)filled only three-quarters full before disposing.
C)kept in the sterilizing room.
D)periodically emptied and reused.
Q3) When could a sharps injury most likely occur?
A)When operating the dry heat sterilizer
B)When inserting a bur into the hand piece
C)When cleaning and disinfecting a countertop
D)When using a biological indicator
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Chapter 19: A Clinical Asepsis Protocol
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Q1) What personal protective equipment should be worn when preparing the operatory for a patient?
A)Gloves and protective clothing
B)Protective eyewear, mask, and protective clothing
C)Gloves, protective eyewear, and protective clothing
D)Protective clothing, protective eyewear, mask, and gloves
Q2) The fit of a lower denture is being adjusted at chairside.After adjustment what should be done to the denture before taking it into the laboratory for final polishing?
A)Rinse it off with warm water.
B)Heat sterilize it.
C)Soak it in soapy water for 10 minutes.
D)Disinfect it.
Q3) Environmental surface covers on clinical touch surfaces should be replaced:
A)after every 2 or 3 patients.
B)just before lunch and at the end of the day.
C)at the end of the day.
D)after every patient.
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Chapter 20: General Office Safety and Asepsis
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Q1) Fans should not be used in clinical areas or sterilizing rooms because they:
A)draw in air contaminants and dust and widely redistribute them throughout the area.
B)are too noisy.
C)use excessive electricity.
D)are distracting to the staff.
Q2) The CDC guidelines for environmental infection control that relate to the dental office reception area include suggestions on:
A)disinfecting all surfaces twice a day.
B)preventing patients with respiratory diseases from entering the office.
C)properly managing flowers and potted plants so they will not adversely affect patients.
D)installing UV lights to sanitize the air.
Q3) A "boil water notice" usually occurs when:
A)there is a break in a nearby water main.
B)the sterilizer malfunctions.
C)a staff person has to use the eyewash station because of a disinfectant splash in the eyes.
D)the high-volume evacuator vacuum line becomes clogged.
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22
Chapter 21: Greener Infection Control
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Q1) Biodegradation is best defined as the:
A)breakdown of materials by microbes in the environment.
B)formation of smog.
C)depletion of ozone in the upper atmosphere.
D)degradation of greenhouse gases.
Q2) Which of the following refers to a third-party certification program in the United States for products that meet specific standards?
A)LEEDS
B)DfE Certified
C)Green Seal
D)EPP
Q3) "Going green" is best defined as:
A)changing office procedures to reduce sharps injuries and blood and saliva exposures to the eyes, mouth, and skin.
B)using products and procedures that have lower adverse impacts on health and the environment than regular products and procedures.
C)saving money by looking for less expensive infection control products.
D)updating the entire infection control program in the office.
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23
Chapter 22: Cross-Contamination Between Work and Home
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Q1) Do not prepare your lunch the night before taking it into the office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What shouldn't be done if you have a respiratory infection (e.g., the common cold) to reduce the spread of disease agents?
A)Touch only drawer knobs and door pulls in the kitchen and not the silverware.
B)Don't share hand or bath towels with others in the family.
C)Don't use bar soaps.
D)Cover your mouth and nose when sneezing.
Q3) What disease was spread to 51 people by the household cook Mary Mallon?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Influenza
C)Measles
D)Typhoid
Q4) A reasonable solution to deal with contaminated work shoes is to:
A)wash the shoes at the end of each day.
B)disinfect the shoes at the end of each day.
C)leave your work shoes at work.
D)sterilize the shoes at the end of each day.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: About the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
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Q1) OSHA-approved state job safety and health plans cover what types of employees?
A)All employees in the state
B)Only the federal employees who work in the state
C)Just the state and local government employees
D)Most private-sector employees and state and local government employees
Q2) OSHA standards do not apply to:
A)dental assistants or dental hygienists in a private practice.
B)employers with 11 or more employees.
C)self-employed persons.
D)workers in state-supported universities.
Q3) The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health is a division of what governmental agency?
A)OSHA
B)FDA
C)CDC
D)EPA
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Chapter 24: Osha Inspections
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Q1) OSHA's system of inspection priorities starts with Imminent Danger, and Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents followed in order by:
A)Complaints and Referrals; Programmed Inspections; Follow-up Inspections.
B)Follow-up Inspections; Programmed Inspections; Complaints and Referrals.
C)Programmed Inspections; Follow-up Inspections; Complaints and Referrals.
D)Complaints and Referrals; Follow-up Inspections; Programmed Inspections.
Q2) How do you file a hazard-related complaint with OSHA?
A)Describe the complaint in an email, and OSHA will perform an onsite inspection.
B)Request an official complaint form from OSHA, complete it, send it in, and OSHA will follow up.
C)Describe the complaint over the phone, and OSHA will perform an onsite inspection.
D)Fax OSHA a letter describing the complaint, and OSHA will perform an onsite inspection.
Q3) Which of the following will be the most helpful in preventing a visit from OSHA?
A)Making sure all patient records are complete and properly protected
B)Periodically sending OSHA the office's spore-testing records
C)Keeping a list of all medications prescribed
D)Designating an office safety coordinator
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26
Chapter 25: Management of the Office Safety Program
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of infection control overkill?
A)Cleaning surfaces before disinfecting them
B)Cleaning and disinfecting surfaces after removing contaminated surface barriers
C)Packaging instruments before sterilizing them
D)Placing used anesthetic carpules in sharps containers for disposal
Q2) Which of the following tasks should be performed by a member of the dental team other than the office safety coordinator?
A)Manage disposal of regulated medical waste.
B)Decontaminate equipment before shipping for repair.
C)Organize and maintain MSDSs.
D)Make appointment reminder calls to patients.
Q3) The safety coordinator should periodically review publications about disease spread and infection control, including __________, where the OSHA publishes its infection control rules.
A)Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
B)Federal Register
C)Journal of the American Dental Association
D)Dental Products Report
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Chapter 26: Managing Chemicals Safely
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Q1) According to the Hazard Communication Standard, a list of all chemicals in the office should be prepared and cross-referenced to:
A) the SDSs.
B) the patient appointment schedule for each work day.
C) the sterilizer spore-testing record.
D) sections of the written exposure control plan.
Q2) A chemical hygiene plan requires workers to use purified chemicals in all preparations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When was the most recent federal update of OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard?
A)1991
B)1999
C)2005
D)2012
Q4) Development of a chemical hygiene plan is part of which OSHA standard?
A) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
B) Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals in the Laboratory Standard
C) Hazard Communication Standard
D) Personal Protective Equipment Standard
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Chapter 27: Employee Fire Prevention and Emergency Action Plans
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Q1) A written emergency action plan (EAP) needs to be present in the workplace.However, the EAP may be communicated orally if the work site has fewer than _____ employees.
A)40
B)30
C)20 D)10
Q2) Each workplace must have at least ________ means of escape. A)2 B)3
C)4 D)5
Q3) Which of the following statements is one of the nine required elements of a written fire safety plan?
A)Proper use, storage, and disposal of potential ignition sources
B)Eyewash stations
C)SDSs for all chemicals in the office
D)An exposure control plan
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Chapter 28: Infection Control Concerns During Remodeling or
Construction
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Q1) Which of the following would be the least helpful in a construction plan sensitive to infection control?
A)Assessing the impact of disrupting essential services
B)Positioning of important physical barriers
C)Organization and updating of all SDSs
D)Isolating some areas to create a safer environment
Q2) What fungus has been involved in construction-related outbreaks?
A)Legionella
B)Pseudomonas
C)Aspergillus
D)Streptococcus
Q3) The key element central to construction and renovation is preventing transmission of infectious agents to potentially at-risk construction personnel.
A)True
B)False
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