Dental Ethics and Jurisprudence
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of ethical principles and legal regulations governing the practice of dentistry. Students will examine core concepts such as patient autonomy, confidentiality, informed consent, and professional responsibility within clinical scenarios. The curriculum covers the structure and function of dental regulatory bodies, relevant legislation impacting dental practice, malpractice issues, and the dentists legal duties to patients and society. The course aims to equip future practitioners with the knowledge to navigate complex moral dilemmas and adhere to jurisprudential standards, fostering professionalism and integrity within the field of dentistry.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of these is most descriptive of licensure?
A) The process of becoming a dentist or dental hygienist
B) The process of graduating from an accredited dental hygiene program and then practicing dental hygiene
C) The process by which a government agency certifies that individuals are minimally qualified to practice within its jurisdiction
D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q2) The importance of a conceptual model is to provide philosophic and practical perspectives about dental hygiene's paradigm concepts. Dental hygiene's paradigm is operationalized via the Human Needs Conceptual Model.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23020
Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of human needs related to dental hygiene care include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Freedom from fear and stress
B) Protection from health risks
C) Freedom from head and neck pain
D) Love and belong needs
E) Wholesome facial image
Answer: D
Q2) Periodontal disease is epidemic in the United States and elsewhere. The human need for skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck is usually unmet in clients seeking dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23021
Sample Questions
Q1) Critical analysis requires that you understand:
A) research design and level of evidence.
B) statistical and clinical significance.
C) formulating a PICO question.
D) both a and b.
E) both b and c.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following components define evidence-based practice?
A) Clinical judgment and expertise
B) Client values/preferences
C) Scientific research
D) Both a and c
E) Options a, b, and c
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23022
Sample Questions
Q1) The health promotion movement calls health professionals to become involved in the following actions except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Building public policy
B) Strengthening community action
C) Empowering communities
D) Emphasizing disease treatment
E) Developing personal skills
Q2) Karen's idea to use public announcements regarding the importance of wearing mouth guards while playing sports is an example of which social marketing element?
A) Product
B) Price
C) Promotion
D) Place
E) Popularity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23023
Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q2) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Motivational interviewing is a philosophic approach to client-centered education that emphasizes__________________, ____________________, and ___________________.
Q5) Interpersonal communication is the process by which a person sends a message to another person with the intention of evoking a response.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23024
Sample Questions
Q1) Cultural competence starts with:
A) awareness of the client's background and cultural beliefs and values.
B) understanding the client's perspective and social context.
C) applying a variety of communication skills to appeal to the client's identity.
D) awareness of one's own cultural beliefs and practices.
Q2) A 42-year-old female client brought her 14-year-old son to a first appointment with an oral health professional. The oral health professional plans to obtain a medical history, but the client and the clinician do not speak the same language. The client's son offers to be the interpreter. Which answer is the most appropriate solution?
A) The clinician agrees with the proposal and is happy with this efficient solution.
B) The clinician prefers an official interpreter, which can be arranged by phone.
C) The clinician uses a medical history in the language of the client and asks the client to complete the questionnaire.
D) The clinician refers the client to a different dental office at the other side of the city, where the oral health professional speaks the language of the client.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23025
Sample Questions
Q1) When writing a Philosophy of Practice statement, the dental hygienist should consider the following topics to include except one. What is the one exception?
A) Define career goals and objectives.
B) Highlight your personal life, family, and hobbies.
C) Discuss the ethical considerations of dental hygiene practice.
D) Discuss your commitment to cultural diversity.
Q2) The primary purpose of reflection in a student portfolio is to demonstrate:
A) the student's ability to recall a clinical event or activity.
B) veracity as an admirable trait in the student hygienist.
C) critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
D) the clinical skill level of the student hygienist.
Q3) Copyright is the legal protection for authors and creators of original works, including writing, composing, graphic and visual arts, and architectural and industrial designs, from others copying their work. Copyright prohibits all forms or replication or copying.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23026
Sample Questions
Q1) With today's technology, dental offices can choose if they want to use film or digital radiographs; depending on what is decided, it has an effect on equipment needed to process the radiographs. Digital radiographs require _____ whereas film radiographs require _____.
A) an automatic processor, an automatic processor
B) computer software, computer software
C) computer software, an automatic processor
D) an automatic processor, computer software
Q2) Which of the following services can dental hygienists perform in a hospital setting?
A) bedside care to clients to ill to be transported to the dental clinic
B) care for person who are homebound
C) care for persons who are wheelchair bound
D) take radiographs
Q3) The dental laboratory is a well-ventilated are a. It is where dental work directly performed on the client takes place.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Infection Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23027
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of infection-control precautions guards against exposure, not just to blood, but to all body fluids except sweat and tears in healthcare settings?
A) Generic
B) Universal
C) Standard
D) Transmission based
E) Isolation
Q2) Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding monitoring the correct functioning of a sterilizer?
A) A chemical indicator should be placed in a visible area of the package before sterilization processing.
B) A biological indicator spore test should be processed through a sterilizer cycle at least once a week.
C) A biological indicator control test matching the same lot of the spore test should be submitted with the sterilizer spore test.
D) Mechanical assessments of a sterilizer cycle time and temperature should be monitored.
E) All of the above are true.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23028
Sample Questions
Q1) An ASA II classification indicates which of the following?
A) Normal, healthy client
B) Mild systemic disease
C) Moderate systemic disease
D) Severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating
E) Incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
Q2) A medical consultation should ask the client for very specific information regarding a client's diagnosis and health status. A facsimile machine is inadequate for legal documentation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The most important part of BLS is providing chest compressions and defibrillation. The first cycle of compressions (30 per 18 seconds) is delivered without the delay.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23029
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nerve is affected when Guyon's canal syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q2) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q3) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q4) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q5) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: The Health History
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23030
Sample Questions
Q1) The 2009 information statement from the AAOS regarding the guideline for antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent prosthetic joint infection is an evidence-based guideline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patient-centered interviewing is:
A) a technique in which clinicians seek to elicit the patient's emotions and personal health agenda to better understand the psychosocial context for disease
B) questions that require more than a yes/no response.
C) a istening technique that includes neutral, encouraging responses such as "I see" or "uh-huh," or nonverbal cues such as nodding and attentive gaze
Q3) Which of the following regulations ensures confidentiality of health information?
A) Affordable Care Act
B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
C) Federal Personal Confidentiality Act
D) None of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23031
Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormally elevated heart rate is known as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension
Q2) The four vital signs used to detect a client's cardiovascular and systemic health are:
A) height, weight, age, and race.
B) respiration, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure.
C) speed, temperature, gait, and electrocardiogram.
D) cholesterol, blood pressure, vision, and blood sugar.
Q3) The client's blood pressure is in the hypertensive range. All of the following could be attributed to the high blood pressure except:
A) anxiety.
B) recent tobacco use.
C) white coat syndrome.
D) running to the appointment.
E) presyncope.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23032
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following characteristics apply to drug side effects except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Reversible
B) Tolerable
C) Dose-related
D) Unpredictable
Q2) Which of the following is the most important factor for consideration when determining whether to proceed with dental hygiene treatment for a medicated client?
A) Presence of environmental safety hazards
B) Risk for compromising the client's health
C) Availability of supportive emergency equipment
D) Use of personal protective equipment
Q3) Where does the majority of drug metabolism occur in the human body?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Intestines
D) Blood
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23033
Sample Questions
Q1) The outer corner where the upper and lower eyelid meet is called the outer or lateral:
A) commissure.
B) canthus.
C) supraorbital ridge.
D) nasion.
Q2) If a lesion is considered a macule with the oral cavity, it is usually due to:
A) hyperplasia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) pigmentation.
D) unchanged vascularity.
Q3) What structure in the head do the maxillary sinuses drain into?
A) Nasal cavity
B) Facial sinuses
C) Lacrimal gland
D) Occipital lymph node
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23034
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of Class II mobility?
A) Barely discernible movement
B) Combined faciolingual movement totaling 2 mm, and tooth depressible in the socket
C) Combined faciolingual movement totaling between 2 and 3 mm
D) Combined faciolingual movement totaling 3 mm or more and/or tooth is depressible in the socket
Q2) What term is used to describe the occlusion when there is a deviation in the ideal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular teeth when they are in centric occlusion?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Occlusion
D) Malocclusion
Q3) What is the critical pH for enamel dissolution?
A) 6.2 to 7.0
B) 4.5 to 6.7
C) 4.5 to 5.5
D) 5.7 to 6.0
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23035
Sample Questions
Q1) Plaque biofilm is a complex community of self-sustaining microorganisms. Which of the following are characteristic of oral biofilm? Select all that apply.
A) Resistant to essential oils
B) Bacteria in biofilm relocate to state a new community
C) Transparent, mineralized mass of bacterial colonies
D) Composed of loosely attached and unattached, free-flowing bacteria
Q2) Retention and control of oral plaque is influenced by various contributory factors. Select all of the factors that influence oral biofilm retention and its removal.
A) Poorly contoured restorations
B) Widened periodontal ligament (PDL) spaces
C) Malpositioning of teeth
D) Intrinsic tooth stains
Q3) The most commonly used disclosing ingredient is:
A) methylene blue.
B) erythrosine dye.
C) formaldehyde.
D) fluorescein dye.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 19
Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23036
Sample Questions
Q1) For high-risk and extremely high-risk individuals, chlorhexidine is recommended because it can be more effective than fluoride when there is high bacterial challenge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) All of the following types of fluoride are included in dentifrices marketed in the United States except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Sodium fluoride
B) Sodium monofluorophosphate
C) Stannous fluoride
D) Silver diamine fluoride
Q3) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23037
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a genetic disorder linked to increased susceptibility to periodontal disease?
A) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Burkitt's disease
D) Sialadenitis
Q2) Which of the following describes a degenerative noninflammatory periodontal condition resulting from heavy forces to the teeth?
A) Fremitus
B) Occlusal traumatism
C) Mucogingival condition
D) Inadequate attached gingiva
Q3) Which mobility classification describes a tooth that can be moved more than 1 mm in any direction but is not depressible in the socket?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23038
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic periodontitis has been suggested as a risk factor for all of the following systemic problems except:
A) preterm birth.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) coronary heart disease.
E) type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Q2) The entry and presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, a common occurrence in patients with periodontitis, is called:
A) bacteriosis.
B) bacteremia.
C) bacterascites.
D) bacteroidosis.
E) bacterioclasis.
Q3) The "blood-brain barrier" refers to:
A) bacteria in the bloodstream leading to the brain.
B) the link between periodontitis and systemic conditions.
C) bacteria in periodontal pockets that enter the brain.
D) junctions between the choroids plexus and capillary endothelial cells in the brain.
Page 22
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23039
Sample Questions
Q1) If a client has clinical swelling in the area where teeth have signs of untreated caries, signs of caries, and periapical pathosis on radiographs, and the client complains of pain in the area throughout the day and night, which unmet human need(s) does this client most likely have?
A) Biologically sound and functional dentition
B) Freedom from fear and stress, and freedom from pain
C) Freedom from pain, and a biologically sound and functional dentition
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck, and a biologically sound and functional dentition
Q2) The client's apparent lack of knowledge about how smoking affects periodontal and systemic health status would fall under which unmet human need?
A) Freedom from pain
B) Conceptualization and problem solving
C) Freedom from fear and stress
D) Responsibility for oral health
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23040
Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygiene care plan is best developed by the dental hygienist in collaboration with the client because individuals that shared in the process are more likely to accept the care plan and adhere to change.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) What is the legal term that applies to client consent for assessment, diagnosis, and care planning components of the dental hygiene process of care upon voluntarily coming to the oral care setting and sitting in the dental chair?
A) Implied consent
B) Informed refusal
C) Informed consent
D) Expressed consent
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23041
Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for the importance of regular toothbrushing include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) It provides for the daily application of preventive agents.
B) No chemotherapeutic agent can totally prevent formation of oral biofilm.
C) It takes less time than flossing so compliance is better.
D) It is an important component of an overall disease prevention program.
E) It is effective in removing oral biofilm and controlling gingivitis.
Q2) Select four client-related factors to consider for toothbrushing instruction.
A) Age
B) Personal values
C) Appropriateness of a power toothbrush
D) Risk and susceptibility to disease
E) Client's ability to tolerate stress of procedures planned
F) Dexterity
G) Time available to discuss toothbrushing
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23042
Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female patient has tight contacts and several crowns. She indicates that she has difficulty flossing and that the floss often breaks during use. Which of the following is an alternative to floss for this client?
A) Interdental brushes
B) Dental water jet
C) Triangular toothpick
D) Tufted dental floss
Q2) Which of the following aids should be discarded after one use?
A) Floss threader
B) Rubber tip stimulator
C) Toothpick holder
D) Wooden wedge/triangular toothpick
Q3) The benefits of daily flossing include the reduction of plaque biofilm, bleeding, and gingivitis. Reductions in these clinical findings have led to a reduction of interproximal dental caries.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 26
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Dentifrices
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23043
Sample Questions
Q1) The level of therapeutic or medicinal agents is:
A) equal to the level of abrasives.
B) less than the level of detergents.
C) superior to the level of abrasives.
D) equal to the level of flavors.
Q2) Combined with a low pH level, insoluble materials such as abrasives are:
A) more harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
B) less harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
C) more harmful for the gums.
D) less harmful for the gums.
Q3) The use of a fluoride dentifrice is important for:
A) children and adolescents.
B) people at risk of developing dental caries.
C) everybody.
D) people who have sensitive teeth.
Q4) Dentifrice can be a risk factor when:
A) it causes dentinal hypersensitivity.
B) its level of abrasiveness is low.
C) its pH level is high.
D) it is bactericidal.
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23044
Sample Questions
Q1) Comparing the various grasps, the palm-thumb grasp provides the most tactile sensitivity during scaling procedures. It is a very stable grasp where the thumb supplies the source of pressure.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Reinforcement scaling techniques provide support and lateral pressure for all of the following extended fulcrums except:
A) same arch.
B) cross arch.
C) opposite arch.
D) extraoral.
Q3) The objective of instrument sharpening is to restore blade sharpness. Which clinical outcome is true as a result of a sharp instrument blade?
A) Client safety and comfort is not a factor.
B) Lateral pressure must be increased.
C) Control is increased.
D) Probability of burnished calculus is increased.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 28
Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23045
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are disadvantages of mechanized instrumentation when compared with hand-activated instrumentation?
A) Increased efficiency, no need to sharpen, reduced lateral pressure
B) Less tissue distention, lavage, acoustic microstreaming
C) Water, increased efficiency, and increased lateral pressure
D) More precautions and limitations, aerosol production, possible temporary hearing shifts
E) Efficacy, time involved and cost
Q2) Excessive cementum removal during periodontal debridement could result in which of the following?
A) Caries
B) Root surface damage
C) Pulpitis
D) Loss of enamel
E) Dentinal sensitivity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23046
Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygienist completes the instrumentation of the Class I furcation on the mesial of No. 14 from the lingual approach. What anatomic feature allows for this lingual access?
A) The divergence of the mesial proximal surface toward the lingual allows for this access.
B) The short mesial root trunk and the lingual location of the furcation allow for this access.
C) The proximal and furcal concavities on the mesial root allow for this access.
D) The long root trunk, close root proximity and distal orientation of the roots allow for this access.
Q2) Which of these teeth have two roots?
A) Maxillary and mandibular first molars
B) Maxillary premolars and maxillary molars
C) Maxillary premolars and mandibular molars
D) Mandibular first and mandibular second molars
Q3) Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a furcal concavity?
A) Maxillary first molar
B) Mandibular first molar
C) Maxillary second molar
D) Mandibular second molar
Page 30
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23047
Sample Questions
Q1) The reason for using intermittent pressure when polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Allow proper adaptation of the rubber cup.
B) Increase extrinsic stain removal potential.
C) Enhance polishability of the paste.
D) Reduce frictional heat.
E) Reduce operator fatigue.
Q2) The primary objective of tooth polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Prepare teeth for the maximum uptake of fluoride.
B) Eliminate oral biofilm so the client can experience smooth enamel.
C) Loosen all soft calculus remaining after scaling.
D) Remove the extrinsic stain remaining after scaling.
E) Help the patient maintain good oral biofilm control.
Q3) All of the following oral conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing with aluminum trihydroxide air-polishing powder except:
A) composites.
B) recession.
C) glass ionomer restorations.
D) porcelain veneers.
E) intact enamel.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Challenges facing the dental hygienist in mechanical therapy adjacent to furcation involvement include all of the following except:
A) furcal anatomy.
B) difficulty in accessing area.
C) persistence of pathogenic microflora in the area.
D) location of the gingival margin in relation to the fulcra.
E) no instruments that adapt to the furca.
Q2) A client has just completed therapy for the control of chronic periodontitis. The client is compliant with recommendations and has responded well to therapy. What is the recommended continued-care (periodontal maintenance, re-care) interval?
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
E) 9 months
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) The literature surrounding the therapeutic efficacy of professional subgingival irrigation is equivocal because adequate concentrations of the active ingredient are unable to be maintained for sufficient periods of time.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which of the following products is not an antibiotic-based controlled-release drug?
A) Actisite
B) Periowave
C) Elyzol
D) Arestin
Q3) Which of the following is not a condition associated with systemic antibiotic therapy?
A) Increase in photosensitivity
B) Decreased effectiveness of oral contraceptives
C) Depressed prothrombin activity
D) Intrinsic staining in erupted permanent teeth
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) The ulcers have red, elevated, "halolike" margin with depressed yellow or gray central area
B) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms
C) The most commonly affected teeth are incisors
D) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of necrotizing periodontal diseases?
A) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae, pain, and spontaneous gingival bleeding
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in the palate
D) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) Many home water filtration devices remove fluoride from community water. Well water may contain water from multiple sources with various fluoride concentrations.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false regarding neutral fluoride gels, foams, and varnishes?
A) It should be used for patients with gold restorations because acidulated fluoride (APF) can corrode metal.
B) Neutral fluoride products include foams and gels for tray application.
C) Research has not yet demonstrated that it is as effective as APF or acidulated fluoride.
D) It should be used for patients with sealants.
E) Neutral fluorides are preferred for porcelain restorations because APF can cause pitting.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
35
Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) When applying a sealant material, use a small amount of material on the brush _____ the pits and fissures.
A) and dab into
B) and drag the material across C) using a scrubbing motion apply to D) using a sweeping motion apply to
Q2) Pit and fissure sealants:
1) render pits and fissures more cleansable.
2) arrest incipient caries.
3) mechanically fill the pits and fissures.
4) prevent caries in newly erupted teeth.
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 4
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Q3) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?
A) Enhance the strength of enamel
B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces
C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth
D) All of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) If a liquid form of supplemental nutrition is indicated for clients after dental surgery, he or she should be educated on which of the following?
A) High protein content
B) High sugar content
C) High fat content
D) Increased risk of GI disturbances
Q2) Which of the following are considered to be a good source of vitamin A?
A) Milk
B) Carrots
C) Spinach
D) Sweet potatoes
Q3) Nutritional counseling for dental caries prevention targets which of the following?
A) Consumption of nutrient dense foods
B) Decreased consumption of fermentable carbohydrates
C) Proper toothbrushing technique
D) Regularity of flossing
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 37
Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) Nicotine withdrawal symptoms can be hunger or weight gain. Behavioral coping strategies to address these symptoms are aerobic exercise, healthy eating, drinking water, chewing xylitol gum, and/or eating xylitol hard candy.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The first statement is correct, but the second is not.
D) The first statement is not correct, but the second is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) All of the following are OTC pharmacotherapies except nicotine:
A) gum.
B) lozenge.
C) patch.
D) inhaler.
Q3) All of the following are nonnicotine replacement products except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Chantix
B) Zyban
C) Sustained-release bupropion
D) Varenicline
E) Nicotine patch
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) Orthodontic aligners were recommended to remedy her:
A) parafunctional occlusal forces.
B) orthodontic relapse.
C) moderate BOP.
D) recession.
Q2) All of the following are techniques used to minimize the gag reflex during impression taking except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Seat the client upright.
B) Use as small a tray as possible.
C) Seat the tray from the posterior to the anterior.
D) Instruct the client to breathe through their nose.
Q3) The size, shape, and porosity of the gypsum particle determine the amount of water required to mix the product, particles that are large and vary in shape require the least amount of water when mixing.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of matrix bands?
A) Prevents overhangs
B) Provides a framework for reconstruction of missing anatomy
C) Supports establishment of proximal contacts
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following polishing agents is used to polish amalgam restorations to a shiny surface?
A) Zirconium silicate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Garnet
D) Tin oxide
Q3) Burrs incorporated with abrasives are commonly used to finish and polish composite restorations. It is recommended to start with a fine-grit abrasive and progress to course-grit abrasives.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) What age range is considered the peak for dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) 10 to 20 years of age
B) 20 to 40 years of age
C) 40 to 60 years of age
D) 60 to 80 years of age
E) none of the above
Q2) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
Q3) Which one of the following is the best self-applied home product to help decrease dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) Fluoride mouth rinse or gel
B) Nonfluoride antibacterial mouth rinse
C) Oral irrigation system
D) Medium- to hard-bristled toothbrush
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) Topical anesthetic agents, such as benzocaine are applied before needle insertion to anesthetize the terminal nerve endings and thus promote client comfort. Thus a significant amount is needed to facilitate diffusion of the drug through the mucous membrane and can be reapplied numerous times due to the low toxicity of a topical medication.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) What two branches of nerves descend from the infraorbital nerve?
A) The posterior superior alveolar (PSA) and the middle superior alveolar (MSA)
B) The middle superior alveolar (MSA) and the anterior superior alveolar (ASA)
C) The anterior superior alveolar (ASA) and the nasopalatine nerve (NP)
D) The nasopalatine nerve (NA) and the greater anterior palatine nerve (GP)
Q3) The bevel of the needle should:
A) be turned toward the bone.
B) be turned away from the bone.
C) never touch the bone.
D) be turned in either direction as long as it fits snugly on the syringe.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) When the proportions of nitrous oxide and oxygen are adjusted to achieve the desired level of analgesia, each adjustment should be at the rate of which of the following?
A) 0.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
B) 0.5 to 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
C) 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
D) 1 to 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
E) 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
Q2) Objective signs of a desirable level of sedation are:
1) normal eye reaction and pupil size.
2) normal blood pressure and pulse.
3) no loss of gag reflex.
4) ability to answer questions.
5) relaxed hands, fingers, and mandible.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) All of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 43
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Americans with Disability Act, the term disability is associated with a limitation in a major life activity. Major life activities can include learning, thinking, interacting with others, and the operation of major bodily functions.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Behavioral guidance techniques that use numerous short appointments or visits to the dental office to instill familiarity with the dental environment is termed:
A) modeling.
B) desensitization.
C) distraction.
D) guided imagery.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) An irregularity of the auditory heartbeat caused by a turbulent flow of blood through a valve that has failed to close is known as:
A) rheumatic heart disease.
B) heart murmur.
C) endocarditis.
D) mitral valve prolapse.
Q2) All of the following medications may be prescribed as an anticoagulant to persons with valvular heart defects except:
A) heparin.
B) ibuprofen.
C) warfarin.
D) indanedione derivatives.
Q3) A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute indicates:
A) normal pulse rate.
B) tachycardia.
C) bradycardia.
D) atrial fibrillation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) What is responsible for the increasing incidence of diabetes in the U.S. population?
A) Obesity
B) Heredity
C) Sugar in the diet
D) Hypertension
Q2) What percentage of people with diabetes has severe periodontal disease?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) The safe blood glucose level necessary for unaltered dental hygiene care is _____ mg/dL.
A) less than 70
B) 80 to 149
C) 150 to 240
D) greater than 200
Q4) Dental hygiene care should not begin until the diabetic condition is controlled.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 46
Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an early sign of oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Unrelenting pain
B) Nonhealing ulcer
C) Lump or mass
D) White or red patch
Q2) All of the following are considered to be a palliative measure for radiation-induced xerostomia except:
A) chlorhexidine rinse (0.12%).
B) saliva substitute.
C) humidified room air.
D) salivary gland stimulant.
Q3) Which of the following is not a possible cause of cancer as stated by the American Cancer Society?
A) Fluoride in the water
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Poor nutrition and inactivity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Since 1992, the number of documented cases of HIV following occupational exposure in the dental or dental hygiene care setting is:
A) 0.
B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 4.
Q2) An HIV-positive woman presents for oral care. She has white patches on her lingual surfaces, which do not easily scrape off. This is most likely to represent:
A) poor oral hygiene.
B) esophageal candidiasis.
C) oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D) herpes simplex.
E) hairy leukoplakia.
Q3) Most patients with HIV are unmotivated to preserve their oral health.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48
Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms of AD include all of the following except which one?
A) Forgetfulness
B) Headaches
C) Personality changes
D) Impairment of judgment
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a common risk factor for a cerebrovascular accident?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Chronic hypertension
D) Chronic petit-mal seizures
E) Cigarette smoking
Q3) Oral self-care instructions for the client with Bell palsy should include which of the following?
A) Using a brushing pattern so no areas are missed
B) Rinsing with water after eating
C) Using an oral irrigator
D) All of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Methotrexate is the drug of choice for clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis, because it has a fast onset providing relief within 1 week after initiating treatment.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Which type of medications blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins and reduces inflammation?
A) DMARDs
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23067
Sample Questions
Q1) Signs of secondary hyperparathyroidism may be evident on dental radiographs as which of the following?
A) Dense trabeculations of bone
B) Moth-eaten patterns in bone
C) Radiopaque lesions in soft tissue
D) Artifacts on the film
Q2) In post-solid organ transplant recipients, immunosuppression:
A) is greatest immediately after transplant surgery.
B) is greatest 1 year after transplant surgery.
C) is greatest 6 months after transplant surgery.
D) never changes; it must always be high.
Q3) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 51
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is associated with tuberculosis?
A) Blue bloater
B) Barrel chest
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Cavitation
Q2) If asthma symptoms persist after administering a client's bronchodilator, what action should be taken?
A) Administer oxygen and epinephrine, monitor vital signs, and call for assistance.
B) Lay the client supine, administer epinephrine, and release the client to travel to the hospital.
C) Check the client's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs); monitor vital signs; and call for assistance.
D) Ask the client to lean over the back of a chair, monitor vital signs, and call for assistance.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069
Sample Questions
Q1) When formulating a care plan for clients with profound ID, the dental hygienist must educate the caregiver about the daily oral care regime and his or her own oral self-care, because a caregiver is usually responsible for the client's daily general and oral care.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) All of the following are strategies for establishing a trusting relationship with ID clients except:
A) keep the first appointment short and nonthreatening.
B) explain instructions quickly.
C) reward positive behavior.
D) familiarize client with surroundings.
Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
Page 53
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) Substance abuse can best be defined as:
A) chronic compulsive use of a substance.
B) unlawful and improper use of a substance.
C) the use of any substance that deviated from approved medical uses.
D) the use of natural and synthetic substances as well as psychoactive drugs.
Q2) Use of local anesthetic is contraindicated when treating:
A) recovering alcoholics.
B) a cocaine user.
C) a marijuana user.
D) an anabolic steroid user.
Q3) A dental hygienist who suspects the client is under the influence of cocaine or methamphetamine should:
A) refuse to treat client.
B) alert police.
C) call primary care physician for premedication.
D) delay professional oral care for 24 hours after last reported substance use.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23071
Sample Questions
Q1) The use of study models for a client with an eating disorder serves the assessment and evaluation of which of the following oral concerns related to bulimia nervosa?
A) Temporomandibular joint positioning
B) Perimylolysis or dental erosion
C) Clinical attachment loss
D) Palatal tissue trauma
E) Abfraction
Q2) All of the following management strategies should be considered when planning treatment care and education for the client with bulimia nervosa except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Provide palliative care for dentinal hypersensitivity.
B) Discuss stain-inducing food products.
C) Apply acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) gel.
D) Rinse with sodium bicarbonate following an oral purge.
E) Avoid diet carbonated beverages.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) What antiresorptive therapy is given orally or parenterally to clients who exhibit increased bone resorption?
A) Antibiotics
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Bisphosphonates
Q2) Encourage the child to discuss any fears about oral health visits, and ease and distract anxiety by saying all of the following except:
A) "You are such a big girl/boy!"
B) "Isn't this fun!"
C) "It won't hurt!"
D) "It sure is sunny out today!"
Q3) The most common site for ARONJ, exposed necrotic bone, in patients who have taken antiresorptive therapy, appears most in the:
A) maxillary posterior buccal region close to the parotid gland.
B) maxillary anterior lingual region close to the incisive papilla.
C) mandibular posterior lingual region close to the mylohyoid ridge.
D) mandibular anterior lingual region close to the genial tubercles.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23073
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common age-related changes seen in teeth?
A) Occlusal surface wear as a result of long-term use
B) Increased enamel sensitivity due to tooth wear
C) Increase in reparative dentin that reduces tooth fracture
D) Increase in opacity and whiteness of teeth
Q2) Chronic conditions most commonly seen in the elderly include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Arthritis
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes
D) Scurvy
E) Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F) Hepatitis A
G) HIV disease
Q3) Which of the following preventive products is most appropriately recommended for an older patient with moderate risk for dental decay, especially root decay?
A) 1.1% stannous fluoride paste
B) Oral irrigation with water
C) Essential oil mouthrinse
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 57
Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23074
Sample Questions
Q1) Alkaline peroxides are a type of _____ cleanser.
A) chemical
B) mechanical
C) ultrasonic
D) irradiation
Q2) Successful nutritional counseling with older adults can be accomplished if:
A) no major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
B) major changes are made in food habits and preferences.
C) food habits are broken.
D) preferences are ignored and only healthy foods are promoted.
Q3) The two components of a fixed partial dental prosthesis are a(n) _____ and a(n)
A) bridge; pontic
B) pontic; clasp
C) clasp; abutment
D) abutment; pontic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23075
Sample Questions
Q1) A multidisciplinary team works together to manage an orofacial cleft. Which specialist is the exception?
A) Periodontist
B) Pedodontist
C) Pediatrician
D) Prosthodontist
Q2) Fractures described as greenstick, multiple, or comminuted relate to soft-tissue injury. Fractures described as simple, compound, or complex relate to the severity of the break.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which orofacial cleft is the most severe?
A) Complete unilateral cleft palate
B) Complete unilateral cleft lip and palate
C) Complete bilateral cleft palate
D) Complete bilateral cleft lip and palate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23076
Sample Questions
Q1) Periodontal probing should not be used as a routine procedure with dental implant clients because there is a possibility of disturbing the biologic seal that attaches the healthy peri-implant tissue to the titanium abutment. Periodontal probing can cause a local infection within the unattached sulci and lead to implant failure.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) All of the following are benefits of dental implants except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Improved ability to masticate and speak adequately
B) Improvement in temporomandibular joint function
C) Increased retention of the prosthetic appliance
D) Preservation of remaining bone structure
Q3) All of the following are components of the final dental implant except:
A) anchor.
B) abutment.
C) prosthetic tooth.
D) titanium metal device.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 60
Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23077
Sample Questions
Q1) Two types of spacing that are desirable in the primary dentition are:
A) posterior and distal spacing.
B) anterior and eruptive spacing.
C) primate and developmental spacing.
D) none of the above.
Q2) A malocclusion may occur in any of three planes of space. A posterior crossbite is a malocclusion occurring in which of the following?
A) Transverse plane
B) Vertical plane
C) Anteroposterior plane
D) Superior-inferior plane
Q3) Pain during orthodontic tooth movement is the result of which of the following?
A) Undermining resorption
B) Ischemic necrosis of the periodontal ligament (PDL)
C) Frontal resorption
D) Damage to the pulps of the teeth
Q4) The age of eruption is more important than the sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth.
A) True
B) False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23078
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygienists should automatically assume dental neglect has occurred when the child presents with:
A) rampant caries.
B) pain.
C) infection.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q2) Dentists and dental hygienists are:
A) responsible for investigating suspected cases of elder abuse.
B) responsible for investigating suspected cases of domestic violence.
C) responsible for counseling the suspected perpetrator regarding healthy relationship practices to give them a second chance to change their abusive behavior toward the victim.
D) legally mandated to report cases of domestic violence even when the victim denies abuse has occurred and they are suspicious of the spouse who brought them in for the dental visit.
E) not mandated reporters of suspected cases of domestic violence in all states.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23079
Sample Questions
Q1) During which part of the oral health assessment are patients and caregivers asked questions about the patient's oral health?
A) Oral health screening examination
B) Interview
C) Clients chart review
D) Extraoral examination
Q2) What is the main goal when planning treatment for patients in palliative care?
A) Reduce pocket depths.
B) Restore incipient carious lesions.
C) Maintain oral comfort.
D) Tooth whitening to improve client's self-esteem.
Q3) Toothbrushing techniques differ depending on the patients' ability to swallow or spit.
For those who have no difficulty swallowing or spitting, a small smear of fluoride toothpaste can be used.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 62: Practice Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23080
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following items below are needed to develop an effective communication outline for morning huddles?
A) Key motivating issues that need to be reinforced in the office
B) Priority topics that are established as a group each week
C) Problem solving strategies
D) Both a and b
E) Options a, b, and c
Q2) Office policies should be reviewed on a _____ basis.
A) daily
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) yearly
Q3) Morning huddles are great for identifying all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Daily client needs
B) Scheduling concerns
C) Client management
D) Team development
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 64
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23081
Sample Questions
Q1) Stress and burnout may be caused by:
1) intense interpersonal relations with clients and staff members.
2) dental hygiene job tasks that are repetitive and monotonous.
3) lack of intellectual stimulation at the workplace.
4) lack of feeling appreciated, which leads to reduced self-esteem.
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 4
E) All of the above
Q2) As of 2012, how many states allowed dental hygienists to administer local anesthesia?
A) 25
B) 35
C) 50
D) 30
E) 44
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
65
Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23082
Sample Questions
Q1) A child-behavior management technique used by the dental hygienist in a pediatric dental practice includes allowing the dental assistant to hold the child-client's hands and arms firmly during care. If permission from the parent is not appropriately obtained, the dental providers could be accused of which of the following?
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Technical assault or technical battery
D) Misrepresentation
E) Negligence
Q2) Which of the following topics are unlawful to ask of a job applicant as part of an employment application or employment interview?
A) Maiden name
B) Marital status
C) National origin
D) Both a and c
E) Options a, b, and c
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.