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Dental Assisting Radiology is an essential course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices of dental radiography. The course covers fundamental topics such as radiation physics, safety protocols, equipment operation, exposure techniques, and image processing. Students learn how to properly position patients, handle dental radiographic equipment, and produce high-quality diagnostic images while adhering to strict infection control and radiation safety standards. Emphasis is placed on understanding the interpretation of radiographs, recognizing normal and abnormal anatomical structures, and maintaining legal and ethical responsibilities in radiology. Hands-on laboratory experiences complement theoretical learning, preparing students to confidently assist dentists in various radiographic procedures within a clinical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of dental radiographs?
A) An oral examination with dental radiographs limits the practitioner to what is seen clinically.
B) All dental diseases and conditions produce clinical signs and symptoms.
C) Dental radiographs are not a necessary component of comprehensive patient care.
D) Many dental diseases are typically discovered only through the use of dental radiographs.
Answer: D
Q2) The x-ray was discovered by:
A) Heinrich Geissler
B) Wilhelm Roentgen
C) Johann Hittorf
D) William Crookes
Answer: B
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Q1) Photons are:
A) Bundles of energy with mass and weight.
B) Bundles of energy that travel at the speed of sound.
C) A component of the particle concept of electromagnetic radiation.
D) A component of the wave concept of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer: C
Q2) Particulate radiations:
A) Are tiny particles of matter.
B) Do not possess mass.
C) Travel in curved lines at low speeds.
D) Do not transmit kinetic energy.
Answer: A
Q3) The nucleus of an atom contains:
A) Protons
B) Neutrons
C) Protons and neutrons
D) Electrons
Answer: C
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Q1) In dental radiography, the term ____ is used to describe the mean energy or penetrating ability of the x-ray beam.
A) quality
B) quantity
C) intensity
D) wavelength
Answer: A
Q2) Milliamperage regulates the ____ of electrons produced at the cathode filament.
A) quality
B) quantity
C) speed
D) power
Answer: B
Q3) The kVp represents:
A) The mean x-ray tube voltage.
B) The mean filament voltage.
C) The maximum or peak voltage of an alternating current.
D) The maximum or peak voltage of a direct current.
Answer: C
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Q1) The traditional unit of dose is called:
A) The roentgen (R)
B) The radiation absorbed dose (rad)
C) The roentgen equivalent in man (rem)
D) The gray (Gy)
Q2) What specific mechanism of radiation injury may result in the formation of hydrogen peroxide when x-ray energy is absorbed by patient tissues?
A) An ejected high-speed electron may interact with other atoms within absorbing tissues.
B) Free radical formation created by the ionization of water may occur.
C) Unequal charge distribution may result in negative electrical potential.
D) Creation of a magnetic field may cause polarization.
Q3) The indirect theory proposes that:
A) Free radicals combine to form toxins.
B) Ionizing radiation directly hits critical areas within cells.
C) Direct injuries occur more frequently than indirect injuries.
D) Both a and c.
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Q1) Radiation monitoring can be used to protect the dental radiographer and includes monitoring of:
A) Equipment
B) Personnel
C) Both equipment and personnel
D) Drywall for residual radiation
Q2) The primary dictum of operator protection guidelines is that the operator must:
A) Remain in the room with the patient while the film is being exposed.
B) Avoid the primary beam.
C) Hold the film in the patient's mouth with their own finger.
D) Hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure.
Q3) A circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is ____ inch(es) in diameter.
A) less than 1
B) 1.25
C) 2.75
D) 5.0
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Q1) The Rinn XCP system includes a:
A) Beam alignment device.
B) Styrofoam bite-block.
C) Snap-on metal collimating device.
D) Both a and c.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?
A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.
B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.
C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.
D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.
Q3) Which of the following intraoral film holders is a disposable Styrofoam bite-block?
A) EEZEE-Grip
B) Stabe bite-block
C) EndoRay
D) Uni-bite
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Q1) The latent image is stored by the ____ in dental x-ray film.
A) Gelatin
B) Film base
C) Adhesive layer
D) Silver halide crystals
Q2) Which size of bite-wing film is used to examine posterior teeth in very small children?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q3) The tube side of the dental film packet:
A) Has the flap used to open the dental film.
B) Is solid white.
C) Should face the patient's tongue.
D) Is color-coded.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The x-ray beam must be perpendicular to the tooth and film in order to minimize:
A) Sharpness.
B) Grain size.
C) Focal spot size.
D) Dimensional distortion.
Q2) Which of the following changes will result in a radiograph with reduced density?
A) Increasing the exposure time
B) Increasing the subject thickness
C) Increasing the milliamperage
D) Increasing the operating kilovoltage peak
Q3) A stepwedge will reveal that radiographs taken at a lower kVp will have ____ than radiographs taken at a higher kVp.
A) More shades of gray
B) Higher contrast
C) Lower contrast
D) Both a and c
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Q1) The restrainer stops the development of:
A) Unexposed crystals only.
B) Exposed crystals only.
C) Unexposed crystals more than exposed crystals.
D) Exposed crystals more than unexposed crystals.
Q2) In addition to protecting developing films from exposure to light, the light-tight lid of the processing tank protects the solutions from:
A) Oxidation and evaporation.
B) Imbibing water.
C) Raising the humidity level in the room to levels that would negatively affect processing.
D) Contaminating the water in the master tank.
Q3) Developer solution has a(n) ____ pH, and fixer solution has a(n) ____ pH.
A) acidic; acidic
B) acidic; basic
C) basic; acidic
D) basic; basic
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Q1) If the film clears in ____ minutes, the chemistry is of adequate strength.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 14
Q2) Safelighting can be checked with the ____ test.
A) Wire mesh
B) Fogging
C) Coin
D) Stepwedge
Q3) If the densities seen on the daily radiographs appear darker than those seen on the reference radiographs, the developer solution is (1) weak, (2) too concentrated, (3) cold, and/or (4) too warm.
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
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Q1) A ____ may be a dental radiographer. 1. Dental hygienist
2) Dental assistant
3) Dentist
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3 only
Q2) An oral examination limits the practitioner to knowledge of what is seen clinically. Dental radiographs allow the practitioner to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) Assigned responsibilities of dental auxiliaries in regard to dental radiography may include:
A) Mounting and identification of dental radiographs.
B) Implementation and monitoring of quality control procedures.
C) Education of patients about dental radiography.
D) a, b, and c

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Q1) When listening to a patient, the dental radiographer should:
A) Interrupt if the patient gets "off track."
B) Correct the patient if he or she is wrong.
C) Finish the patient's sentences to show that the radiographer is following the patient's train of thought.
D) Give the patient undivided attention.
Q2) When nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to:
A) Relax.
B) Trust the dental professional.
C) Respond with apprehension.
D) Both a and b.
Q3) The term facilitation means :
A) Initiating.
B) The act of making easier.
C) The act of continuing.
D) Construction of a facility.
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Q1) There is ____ interval between x-ray examinations.
A) no set time
B) a set 6-month
C) a set 12-month
D) a set 24-month
Q2) With faster F-speed film, a single intraoral film results in a surface skin exposure of ____ milliroentgens.
A) 1.25
B) 12.5
C) 125
D) 1250
Q3) For dental x-rays to produce permanent skin damage, such as skin cancer, exposures in the range of ____ roentgens are needed.
A) 10
B) Hundreds of
C) Thousands of
D) Millions of
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Q1) If informed consent is not obtained from a patient before the exposure of dental radiographs, a patient may legally claim:
A) Negligence.
B) Malpractice.
C) Malpractice or negligence.
D) Disclosure.
Q2) Lack of informed consent may be shown by the following:
A) Consent from an individual under the influence of drugs or alcohol
B) Consent from an individual with legal right to give it
C) Consent from an individual under duress
D) Both a and c
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of radiographs and the patient's dental record?
A) Radiographs may be discarded when outdated.
B) It is advised to keep patient radiographs in a file separate from patient charts.
C) The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of radiographs exposed.
D) Dental radiographs are an optional rather than integral part of the dental record.
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Q1) In dental radiography, no ____ are used.
1) Critical instruments
2) Semicritical instruments
3) Noncritical instruments
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)3 only
D)1 only
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning and disinfection of the dental unit and environmental surfaces?
A) An intermediate-level disinfectant is recommended.
B) A low-level disinfectant is recommended.
C) EPA-registered chemical germicides labeled as both hospital disinfectants and tuberculocidals are classified as low-level disinfectants.
D) Both a and c.
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Q1) A total of ____ to ____ films may be included in the CMRS.
A) 4; 7
B) 7; 14
C) 14; 20
D) 19; 21
Q2) Which of the following methods is/are used for obtaining periapical radiographs?
A) Paralleling
B) Bisecting
C) Interproximal
D) Both a and b
Q3) Periapical radiographs must show the entire crowns and roots of the teeth being examined as well as ____ to ____ mm beyond the root apices.
A) 0.1; 0.5
B) 1.0; 2.0
C) 2.0; 3.0
D) 4.0; 5.0
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Q1) An increased ____ distance can compensate for image magnification.
A) Target-object
B) Object-film
C) Target-film
D) Operator-patient
Q2) If the patient has a shallow palate, a lack of parallelism of greater than ____ degrees requires a modification in technique.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 45
Q3) Which of the following film holders include aiming rings that aid in the alignment of the position-indicating device (PID) with the film?
A) Hemostat with bite-block
B) Stabe bite-block
C) EEZEE-Grip film holder
D) Rinn XCP instruments
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Q1) With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular molars is ____ degrees.
A) -5 to 0
B) + 20 to +30
C) -20 to -30
D) -10 to -15
Q2) The primary benefit of using film holders with the bisecting technique is:
A) Assisting in determining vertical angulation.
B) Helping to minimize cone cuts.
C) Reducing the patient's exposure to radiation.
D) Allowing the operator to have the film parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
Q3) With size 2 film, a total of ____ anterior film placements are used in the bisecting technique.
A) Four
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
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Q1) The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a periapical film and used to stabilize the film during exposure. The periapical film is oriented in the bite loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the following exposure sequences is recommended for the patient who requires both periapical and bite-wing radiographs?
1) Bite-wing exposures
2) Anterior periapical films
3) Posterior periapical films
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 1, 3
C)2, 3, 1
D)3, 1, 2
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Q1) When the third molar regions are not visible on a molar bite-wing film, the solution is to:
A) Decrease the vertical angulation of the tubehead.
B) Increase the vertical angulation of the tubehead.
C) Position the anterior edge of the film at the midline of the mandibular first premolar.
D) Position the anterior edge of the film at the midline of the mandibular second premolar.
Q2) To prevent a dropped film corner:
A) Change the horizontal angulation.
B) Increase the vertical angulation.
C) Decrease the vertical angulation.
D) Make certain the edge of the film is placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.
Q3) The appearance of a patient's finger on the film is called a:
A) Hemangioma
B) Phalangioma
C) Myxoma
D) Pericytoma
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Q1) When the right-angle technique is used, an occlusal film is exposed directing the central ray at ____ degrees to the film.
A) 20
B) 45
C) 65
D) 90
Q2) The dental radiograph is a ____-dimensional picture of a ____-dimensional object.
A) Two; two
B) Three; three
C) Two; three
D) Three; two
Q3) For the mandibular topographic occlusal projection, position the PID so that the central ray is directed at ____ degrees toward the center of the film.
A) +55
B) -55
C) +90
D) -90
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Q1) The vertical angulation in the tubehead of the panoramic unit:
A) Is fixed in position so that the x-ray beam is directed slightly upward.
B) Is fixed in position so that the x-ray beam is directed slightly downward.
C) Can be adjusted according to the size of the patient.
D) Can be adjusted for maxillary or mandibular films.
Q2) A ghost image appears ____ than its actual counterpart.
A) Smaller
B) Lower
C) More indistinct
D) More distinct
Q3) The panoramic film is typically used to evaluate and diagnose:
A) Caries.
B) Periodontal disease.
C) Impacted teeth.
D) Periapical lesions.
Q4) An "exaggerated smile line" is seen on the radiograph if the patient's:
A) Chin is tipped down.
B) Chin is tipped up.
C) Teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block.
D) Teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block.
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Q1) A grid is composed of a series of:
A) Wire mesh that is similar to the screen in a window or door.
B) Copper wires around an armature.
C) Thin lead strips.
D) Thick lead strips.
Q2) Which of the following choices is a lateral jaw projection?
A) Lateral cephalometric projection
B) Reverse Towne projection
C) Waters projection
D) Body of the mandible projection
Q3) To compensate for the strips found in the grid, ____ must be used to expose a film.
A) Increased kilovoltage
B) Increased milliamperage
C) Increased exposure time
D) Decreased exposure time
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Q1) When intraoral films are impossible to obtain, the radiographer should:
A) Skip radiographs.
B) Use an injection of local anesthetic on the patient's throat and try again.
C) Use extraoral films to obtain diagnostic information.
D) Use an intraoral digital film sensor rather than conventional film.
Q2) The gag reflex is a(n) ____ effort, preceded by ____ of respiration.
A) voluntary; an increased rate
B) involuntary; cessation
C) voluntary; cessation
D) involuntary; an increased rate
Q3) To help reduce the gag reflex:
A) Tell the patient to hold his or her breath.
B) Do not try to distract the patient.
C) Use the term gagging when talking with the patient.
D) Try to reduce tactile stimuli.
Q4) ____ periapical films can be used to examine the edentulous arches.
A) Eight
B) Twelve
C) Fourteen
D) Eighteen
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Q1) Storage phosphor imaging:
A) Is a form of direct digital imaging.
B) Is a wired digital radiography system.
C) Uses a sensor with a fiber-optic cable.
D) Uses a reusable imaging plate.
Q2) The electrons that compose the silicon charge-coupled device (CCD) can be visualized as being divided into an arrangement of blocks or picture elements known as:
A) A field arrangement.
B) Pixels.
C) Phosphors.
D) A grid.
Q3) Advantages of digital imaging include:
A) All sensors can be autoclaved.
B) Increased speed of image viewing.
C) Color radiography rather than black and white.
D) Low initial setup costs.
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Q1) The information that the receptor receives is termed the:
A) Computer analysis.
B) Image.
C) Raw data.
D) DICOM data.
Q2) The universal format for handling, storing, and transmitting three-dimensional images is called:
A) Cone-beam Computer Tomography.
B) Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine.
C) Voxel.
D) Spatial Resolution.
Q3) The purpose of three-dimensional imaging includes which of the following?
A) Eliminates deficiencies that could hinder accurate interpretation of images.
B) Used to enhance the evaluation of pathology.
C) Used to determine distances to critical anatomic landmarks.
D) All of the above.
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Q1) A ____ is a tubelike passageway through bone that contains nerves and blood vessels.
A) Canal
B) Foramen
C) Fossa
D) Sinus
Q2) On a periapical radiograph, the median palatal suture appears as a thin ____ line between the ____.
A) Radiopaque; maxillary lateral incisor and cuspid
B) Radiolucent; maxillary lateral incisor and cuspid
C) Radiopaque; maxillary central incisors
D) Radiolucent; maxillary central incisors
Q3) Which of the following tooth structures is most radiopaque?
A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Pulp
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Q1) Although all members of the dental team may interpret dental radiographs, it is the responsibility of the ____ to establish a final or definitive interpretation and diagnosis.
A) Dentist or dental hygienist
B) Dentist or dental assistant
C) Dental hygienist or dental assistant
D) Dentist
Q2) When viewing radiographs, it is easier to detect subtle changes in density and contrast if:
A) The treatment room lights are left on.
B) Extraneous light is eliminated.
C) The viewbox light is turned off.
D) Films are held up by the operator and viewed through ceiling lights.
Q3) Radiographs are intended to be placed in a film holder in:
A) The order in which they were exposed.
B) The order in which they were processed.
C) Anatomic order.
D) The order prescribed by the ADA nomenclature.
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Q1) Which of the following structures is part of the sphenoid bone?
A) Glenoid fossa
B) Articular eminence
C) Lateral pterygoid plate
D) Styloid process
Q2) On a panoramic radiograph, the ____ air space appears as a diagonal radiolucency located superior to the radiopaque shadow of the soft palate and uvulA.
A) Palatoglossal
B) Nasopharyngeal
C) Glossopharyngeal
D) Both a and b
Q3) On a panoramic radiograph, the coronoid notch appears as a ____ to the coronoid process.
A) Concavity located mesial
B) Concavity located distal
C) Convexity located mesial
D) Convexity located distal
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Q1) Radiographic interpretation enables the dental professional to play a vital role in the detection of ____ of the teeth and jaws that cannot be identified clinically.
1) Lesions
2) Diseases
3) Conditions
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)1 only
Q2) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
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Q1) The term ____ refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo.
A) Focal opacity
B) Target lesion
C) Multifocal confluent
D) Ground glass
Q2) A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a ____ process.
A) Benign slow-growing
B) Benign rapidly growing
C) Malignant slow-growing
D) Malignant rapidly growing
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to classify a radiolucent lesion?
A) Target lesion
B) Multifocal confluent
C) Ground glass
D) Moth-eaten pattern
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Q1) Post and core restorations can be seen in ____ treated teeth.
A) Periodontally
B) Orthodontically
C) Endodontically
D) Nonendodontically
Q2) Some manufacturers of composite materials add radiopaque particles to their products to help the viewer differentiate a composite restoration from:
A) An amalgam restoration.
B) Dental caries.
C) A cast gold restoration.
D) A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown.
Q3) Porcelain restoration are:
A) Radiolucent.
B) Slightly radiolucent.
C) Slightly radiopaque.
D) Radiopaque.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of root surface caries?
A) Root surface caries involve the loss of enamel.
B) Root surface caries are clinically difficult to detect on exposed root surfaces.
C) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
D) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just above the CEJ.
Q2) A carious lesion appears ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Radiopaque
B) Radiolucent
C) White
D) Clear
Q3) ____ caries are found between two teeth.
A) Occlusal
B) Buccal
C) Lingual
D) Interproximal
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35

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/49449
Sample Questions
Q1) Moderate bone loss is defined as a loss of ____ mm.
A) 1 to 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 3 to 4
D) 4 to 5
Q2) The periodontal ligament space is located between the root of the tooth and the:
A) Crest of alveolar bone.
B) Lamina dura.
C) Cementum.
D) Spongy bone.
Q3) The ____ radiograph using the ____ technique is the film of choice for the evaluation of periodontal disease.
A) Bite-wing; paralleling
B) Bite-wing; bisecting
C) Periapical; paralleling
D) Periapical; bisecting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ radiograph is the film of choice for the evaluation of mandibular fractures.
A) Occlusal
B) Periapical
C) Bite-wing
D) Panoramic
Q2) The periapical abscess:
A) Refers to a tooth with an infection in the pulp.
B) Is a purulent inflammation within the periodontal tissues.
C) Is treated with deep scaling and debridement.
D) Both b and c.
Q3) Condensing osteitis is seen ____ the apex of a ____ tooth.
A) Below; vital
B) Below; nonvital
C) Above; vital
D) Above; nonvital
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