Dental Assisting Radiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Assisting Radiology is a course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices of dental radiology within a clinical setting. The curriculum covers topics such as radiation physics, safety protocols, infection control, radiographic techniques, exposure, processing, and mounting of dental films. Students will learn to operate radiographic equipment, apply quality assurance measures, and interpret radiographic images under supervision. Emphasis is placed on minimizing patient and operator exposure while ensuring high-quality diagnostic results, aligning with current regulations and ethical standards in dental care.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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Chapter 1: Radiation History
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Q1) The variable kilovoltage x-ray machine was introduced in:
A) 1895
B) 1913
C) 1923
D) 1957
Answer: D
Q2) Radiation is defined as:
A) A form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles.
B) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.
C) A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube.
D) A branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays.
Answer: A
Q3) William Rollins:
A) Established the first college course in radiography for dental students.
B) Was the first to use film in intraoral radiography.
C) Developed the first dental x-ray unit.
D) Developed the first hot cathode x-ray tube.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Radiation Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of particulate radiation are emitted from the nucleus of radioactive atoms?
A) Alpha particles
B) Beta particles
C) Protons
D) Neutrons
Answer: B
Q2) Cathode rays are derived from which of the following types of particulate radiation?
A) Electrons
B) Alpha particles
C) Protons
D) Neutrons
Answer: A
Q3) ____ is the measurement of the number of electrons moving through a conductor.
A) Alternating current
B) Direct current
C) Amperage
D) Voltage
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Radiation Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity?
A) Decreasing the kilovoltage peak
B) Decreasing the milliamperage
C) Decreasing the exposure time
D) Decreasing the source-to-film distance
Answer: D
Q2) In regard to increasing density:
A) An increase in either kVp or mA will increase density.
B) An increase in kVp will increase density, but an increase in mA will not increase density.
C) An increase in mA will increase density, but an increase in kVp will not increase density.
D) Neither an increase in kVp nor an increase in mA will increase density.
Answer: A
Q3) Milliampere-seconds is a combination of milliamperes and:
A) Density
B) Contrast
C) Voltage
D) Exposure time
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Radiation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered to be radioresistant tissues?
A) Bone marrow
B) Salivary glands
C) Lymphoid tissue
D) Intestines
Q2) Short-term radiation effects are associated with:
A) Large amounts of radiation absorbed in a short time.
B) Small amounts of radiation absorbed over a long period.
C) Acute radiation syndrome.
D) Both a and c.
Q3) According to the dose-response curve, when dose and damage are plotted on a graph, a ____ relationship is seen.
A) nonlinear, nonthreshold
B) linear, nonthreshold
C) nonlinear, threshold
D) linear, threshold
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Chapter 5: Radiation Protection
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Q1) The lead apron:
A) Is recommended for intraoral films.
B) Is not recommended for extraoral films.
C) Is an option; use is not mandated by any state or federal law.
D) Is used to protect the thyroid gland.
Q2) Added filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead:
A) Refers to the placement of tungsten discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal.
B) Filters out shorter-wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam.
C) Results in a lower-energy beam.
D) Results in a more penetrating useful beam.
Q3) A rectangular collimator:
A) Restricts the beam more than a circular collimator.
B) Restricts the beam less than a circular collimator.
C) Significantly reduces patient exposure.
D) Both a and c
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Chapter 6: Dental X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Features of the Stabe bite-block include:
A) Disposable.
B) Slot for film retention.
C) Molded plastic that can be sterilized.
D) Both a and b.
Q2) A ____ eliminates the need for the patient to stabilize the film.
A) PID (position-indicating device)
B) film holder
C) control panel
D) beam alignment device
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?
A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.
B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.
C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.
D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.
Q4) Which of the following are beam alignment devices?
A) Stabe bite-block
B) XCP bite-block
C) EEZEE-Grip
D) Precision film holders
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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film
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Q1) The areas of the film that are ____ energized will be ____ when the film is processed. 1. more; darker
2) more; lighter
3) less; darker
4) less; lighter
A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 4
Q2) The film emulsion is composed of a homogenous mixture of:
A) Calcium tungstate and lead salt crystals.
B) Gelatin and barium salt crystals.
C) Gelatin and silver halide crystals
D) Primer and silver halide crystals.
Q3) The two-film packet may be used:
A) For maxillary radiographs where the bone is denser than in the mandible.
B) To prevent more photons from passing through the film into patient tissue.
C) When a duplicate record of a radiographic examination is needed.
D) Routinely for adults; however, a one-film packet should be used for children and adolescents.
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Chapter 8: Dental X-Ray Image Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors would improve image sharpness?
A) Larger focal spot
B) Larger crystal size in the film
C) Smaller crystal size in the film
D) Patient movement during x-ray film exposure
Q2) A stepwedge will reveal that radiographs taken at a higher kVp will have ____ versus radiographs taken at a lower kVp.
A) Long-scale contrast
B) High contrast
C) Only two densities
D) Many areas of black and white
Q3) A stepwedge will reveal that radiographs taken at a lower kVp will have ____ than radiographs taken at a higher kVp.
A) More shades of gray
B) Higher contrast
C) Lower contrast
D) Both a and c
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Chapter 9: Dental X-Ray Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The master tank is filled with:
A) Developer.
B) Fixer.
C) Cold water.
D) Temperature-controlled water.
Q2) A timer is used to indicate time intervals during which of the following steps of manual processing?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 4 only
Q3) To maintain freshness, film processing solutions must be changed every ____.
A) Day
B) Week
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 to 4 weeks
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Chapter 10: Quality Assurance in the Dental Office
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Q1) The clearing test is used to monitor:
A) Developer strength.
B) Fixer strength.
C) Water bath temperature.
D) Processing speed.
Q2) Extraoral intensifying screens should be cleaned:
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Yearly
Q3) A calibration test for accurate kilovoltage and milliamperage readings would most likely be performed to ensure that the dental ____ is functioning properly.
A) X-ray machine
B) Film
C) Film processing
D) Darkroom
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Chapter 11: Dental Radiographs and the Dental
Radiographer
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Q1) To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always: (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.)
A) Maintain an adequate distance.
B) Have proper positioning.
C) Have proper shielding.
D) Avoid the primary beam.
Q2) An oral examination limits the practitioner to knowledge of what is seen clinically. Dental radiographs allow the practitioner to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) Radiographs are a(n) ____ comprehensive patient care.
A) Adjunct to
B) Necessary component of
C) Option for
D) Supplement to
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Chapter 12: Patient Relations and the Dental Radiographer
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Q1) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
Q2) ____ is a nonverbal communication skill associated with interest and warmth.
A) Leaning slightly away from the patient
B) A slumped posture
C) Tapping fingers
D) An attentive posture
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of the use of interpersonal skills rather than technical skills with patients?
A) Proper maintenance of processing equipment
B) Discussing the rationale for use of dental radiographs
C) Correct film positioning
D) Preventing light leaks in the darkroom
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14
Chapter 13: Patient Education and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many recorded cases are there of a patient developing cancer from diagnostic x-rays?
A) Zero
B) Less than 50
C) Between 50 and 100
D) More than 100
Q2) A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental radiographs is:
A) Less likely to realize the benefit of dental radiographs.
B) Less likely to follow prevention plans.
C) More likely to accept prescribed treatment.
D) Both a and c.
Q3) According to the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs," dental x-ray procedures ____ because of pregnancy.
A) Must be avoided
B) Should be minimized
C) Should be limited to emergency care
D) Do not need to be altered
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Chapter 14: Legal Issues and the Dental Radiographer
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Q1) The trend in dental negligence or malpractice actions has historically been to sue the supervising dentist alone. However, cases exist in which the dentist and the dental auxiliary have both been sued for the actions of the dental auxiliary.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Radiographs are the property of the dentist:
A) Unless they were paid for by the patient.
B) Unless they were paid for by the insurance company.
C) Only if the patient has signed a waiver.
D) Period.
Q3) Erroneous entries in the dental record should:
A) Be erased.
B) Be blocked out.
C) Be covered with white-out.
D) Never be erased or blocked out.
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16
Chapter 15: Infection Control and the Dental Radiographer
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Q1) ____ when using medical latex or vinyl gloves.
A) Gloves may be rewashed between patients and reused until damaged
B) Nonsterile gloves are recommended for examinations and nonsurgical procedures
C) Hands should not be washed before gloving
D) Hands should not be washed between patients
Q2) Exposed films should ____ dried and then placed in a ____ for transport to the darkroom for processing.
A) not be; gloved hand
B) be; gloved hand
C) not be; disposable container
D) be; disposable container
Q3) Recommendations concerning gloves would fall under which of the following categories of infection control practices that directly relate to dental radiography procedures?
A) Protective attire and barrier techniques
B) Hand washing and care of hands
C) Sterilization or disinfection of instruments
D) Cleaning and disinfection of dental unit and environmental surfaces
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations
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Q1) There are ____ methods for obtaining periapical radiographs.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Ten
Q2) In a patient without teeth, ____ periapical films are usually sufficient to cover the edentulous areas.
A) 4
B) 7
C) 14
D) 18
Q3) CMRS stands for:
A) Complete mouth restorative series.
B) Complete mouth radiographic series.
C) Complete mouth restorative service.
D) Complete mouth radiographic service.
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18
Chapter 17: Paralleling Technique
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Q1) The lingual cusp of the first premolar usually obscures the distal contact of the canine on the ____ exposure.
A) Maxillary canine
B) Maxillary incisor
C) Mandibular canine
D) Mandibular incisor
Q2) The authors recommend using size ____ film for anterior teeth and size ____ film for posterior teeth.
A) 1; 1
B) 2; 2
C) 1; 2
D) 2; 1
Q3) When the patient has a shallow palate requiring a modification in technique:
A) Two cotton rolls can be placed, one on each side of the bite-block.
B) The patient can be asked to tilt the head to one side.
C) The vertical angulation can be increased by 5 to 15 degrees more than the XCP instrument indicates.
D) Both a and c.
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Chapter 18: Bisecting Technique
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Q1) Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear ____. Foreshortening of images results from ____ vertical angulation.
A) Shortened; insufficient
B) Shortened; excessive
C) Too long; insufficient
D) Too long; excessive
Q2) The primary disadvantage of the bisecting technique when contrasted with the paralleling technique is:
A) Longer exposure times.
B) Dimensional distortion.
C) Requirement of a film holder.
D) Greater magnification.
Q3) When the bisecting technique is used, which of the following angles is bisected?
A) The angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth
B) The angle formed by the central ray and the tooth
C) The angle formed by the central ray and the film
D) The angle that is perpendicular to the film
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Chapter 19: Bite-Wing Technique
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Q1) The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a periapical film and used to stabilize the film during exposure. The periapical film is oriented in the bite loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Vertical bite-wings are often used for patients with:
A) Mixed dentition.
B) Extensive decay.
C) Bone loss.
D) Sealants.
Q3) According to the text, the identification dot in bite-wing film placement:
A) Should be oriented "dot down."
B) Should be oriented "dot distal."
C) Should be oriented "dot up."
D) Has no significance.
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Chapter 20: Exposure and Technique Errors
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Q1) Short teeth with blunted roots appear on the film when:
A) The vertical angulation is excessive.
B) The vertical angulation is insufficient.
C) The horizontal angulation is incorrect.
D) There is a cone-cut.
Q2) With ____, images appear stretched and distorted.
A) Film creasing
B) Film bending
C) Double exposure
D) Patient movement
Q3) To avoid a double exposure:
A) Only expose and process one half of the patient's mouth at one time.
B) Mark exposed films with indelible ink.
C) Always separate exposed and unexposed films.
D) Ask the patient to hold the unexposed films.
Q4) An underexposed film results from:
A) Insufficient exposure time.
B) Inadequate tissue density.
C) Excessive milliamperage.
D) Excessive kilovoltage.
22
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Chapter 21: Occlusal and Localization Techniques
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Q1) For the maxillary topographic occlusal projection, the central ray is directed at ____ degrees.
A) +30
B) +45
C) +65
D) -30
Q2) The buccal object rule depends on a ____ image shift when trying to locate vertically aligned images. With the buccal object rule, an object to the buccal of the reference object will move in the ____ direction as the shift.
A) Vertical; same
B) Vertical; opposite
C) Horizontal; same
D) Horizontal; opposite
Q3) The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB stands for:
A) Shift
B) Similar
C) Same
D) Some
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23
Chapter 22: Panoramic Imaging
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Q1) The tubehead of the panoramic unit always rotates ____ the patient's head as the film rotates ____ the patient.
A) behind; behind
B) in front of; in front of
C) behind; in front of
D) in front of; behind
Q2) Green-sensitive film must be paired with intensifying screens that produce ____ light.
A) Yellow
B) Blue
C) Red
D) Green
Q3) In panoramic radiography, the ____ rotate(s) around the patient.
A) Film
B) Tubehead
C) Tubehead and film
D) Dental chair
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Extraoral Imaging
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Q1) An extraoral radiograph is placed ____ the mouth during x-ray exposure. Extraoral radiography is used to image ____ areas of the skull or jaws.
A) Outside; small
B) Outside; large
C) Inside; small
D) Inside; large
Q2) The purpose of the transcranial projection is to evaluate the articular eminence and ____ surface of the condyle.
A) Anterior
B) Posterior
C) Superior
D) Inferior
Q3) For the ____ projection, the patient faces the cassette with the head tipped down and the mouth open as wide as possible.
A) Waters
B) Posteroanterior
C) Reverse Towne
D) Submentovertex
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25
Chapter 24: Imaging of Patients With Special Needs
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Q1) A person with a physical disability may have problems with:
1) Vision
2) Hearing
3) Mobility
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 3
Q2) To help reduce the gag reflex:
A) Tell the patient to hold his or her breath.
B) Do not try to distract the patient.
C) Use the term gagging when talking with the patient.
D) Try to reduce tactile stimuli.
Q3) The gag reflex is a(n) ____ effort, preceded by ____ of respiration.
A) voluntary; an increased rate
B) involuntary; cessation
C) voluntary; cessation
D) involuntary; an increased rate
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26
Chapter 25: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Storage phosphor imaging:
A) Is a form of direct digital imaging.
B) Is a wired digital radiography system.
C) Uses a sensor with a fiber-optic cable.
D) Uses a reusable imaging plate.
Q2) With the feature of ____, the gray-scale of the diagnostic image is reversed so that radiolucent images appear white and radiopaque images appear black.
A) Pseudocolor alteration
B) Digital subtraction
C) Contrast
D) Image orientation
Q3) Advantages of the use of digital imaging include which of the following?
A) Image storage and communication are easier with digital networking.
B) The digital image cannot be incorporated into the electronic record.
C) Images can be electronically transmitted to other dental professionals.
D) Some combination of the above.
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 26: Three-Dimensional Digital Imaging
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Q1) With CBCT, the divergent rays exit the machine and some of the radiation is attenuated by the patient. In this statement, attenuated means :
A) To dilute.
B) To make thin or weak.
C) To reduce the strength of.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Metallic restorations may eliminate or hide the surrounding anatomy with the appearance of:
A) High density.
B) Fogged film.
C) Streak artifacts.
D) Blank images.
Q3) The number of gray scale colors available to be chosen for each pixel in the image is called:
A) Two-dimensional volume rendering
B) Three-dimensional volume rendering
C) Spatial resolution
D) Contrast resolution
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Chapter 27: Normal Anatomy: Intraoral Images
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Q1) On a radiograph, the lateral fossa appears as a ____ area of ____ appearance, depending on the anatomy of the individual.
A) Radiopaque; consistent
B) Radiolucent; consistent
C) Radiopaque; variable
D) Radiolucent; variable
Q2) The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear ____ dense and ____ radiopaque than the alveolar crest seen in the anterior region.
A) Less; less
B) More; more
C) Less; more
D) More; less
Q3) The ____ is the wall of the tooth socket that surrounds the root of a tooth.
A) Alveolar crest
B) Residual ridge
C) Periodontal ligament space
D) Lamina dura
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Chapter 28: Film Mounting and Viewing
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Q1) Radiographs are intended to be placed in a film holder in:
A) The order in which they were exposed.
B) The order in which they were processed.
C) Anatomic order.
D) The order prescribed by the ADA nomenclature.
Q2) In dental radiography, film mounting is the placement of radiographs:
A) On a viewbox.
B) In a supporting structure or holder.
C) In the patient's mouth.
D) In the processor.
Q3) The text recommends viewing radiographs ____ in a room with ____ lighting.
A) as many times as necessary; bright
B) as many times as necessary; dimmed
C) A single time; bright
D) A single time; dimmed
Q4) The dental radiographer should always mount films ____ after processing.
A) Immediately
B) 24 hours
C) 3 days
D) 1 week
30
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Chapter 29: Normal Anatomy: Panoramic Images
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Q1) On a panoramic radiograph, the infraorbital foramen may be superimposed over the
A) Mental foramen
B) Maxillary sinus
C) Frontal sinus
D) External auditory meatus
Q2) On a panoramic radiograph, the zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a ____-shaped radiopacity.
A) J
B) Y
C) U
D) Both a and c
Q3) The ____ foramen is a tiny hole or opening in bone located on the internal surface of the mandible near the midline.
A) Lingual
B) Mental
C) Incisive
D) Mandibular
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Chapter 30: Introduction to Image Interpretation
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Q1) In the dental setting, most films are examined in the:
A) Business office.
B) Darkroom.
C) Operatory.
D) Reception room.
Q2) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
Q3) The definition of interpret is to:
A) Establish a diagnosis.
B) Offer an explanation.
C) Process radiographs.
D) Mount radiographs.
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Chapter 31: Descriptive Terminology
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Q1) The term ____ refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo.
A) Focal opacity
B) Target lesion
C) Multifocal confluent
D) Ground glass
Q2) Which of the following would be an example of a mixed lucent-opaque lesion?
A) Compound odontoma
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Florid osseous dysplasia
Q3) A radiograph appears ____ where the tissues are soft or thin.
A) Radiopaque
B) White
C) Light
D) Black or dark
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33
Chapter 32: Identification of Restorations, Dental Materials, and Foreign Objects
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Q1) Porcelain restoration are:
A) Radiolucent.
B) Slightly radiolucent.
C) Slightly radiopaque.
D) Radiopaque.
Q2) Diatorics are found in:
A) Silver point endodontic fillings.
B) Gutta percha endodontic fillings.
C) Anterior porcelain denture teeth.
D) Anterior acrylic denture teeth.
Q3) Because metallic restorations absorb x-rays, the area of the film that corresponds to their location remains unexposed, and the metallic restorations appear completely ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Radiosensitive
B) Radioresistant
C) Radiopaque
D) Radiolucent
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Interpretation of Dental Caries
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Q1) A carious lesion appears ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Radiopaque
B) Radiolucent
C) White
D) Clear
Q2) ____ interproximal caries extend less than halfway through the thickness of enamel.
A) Incipient
B) Moderate
C) Advanced
D) Severe
Q3) The ____ radiograph is the radiograph of choice for the evaluation of caries.
A) Periapical
B) Bite-wing
C) Panoramic
D) Occlusal
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Chapter 34: Interpretation of Periodontal Disease
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Q1) ADA Case Type II is:
A) Gingivitis.
B) Mild or slight periodontitis.
C) Moderate periodontitis.
D) Advanced or severe periodontitis.
Q2) Moderate bone loss is defined as a loss of ____ mm.
A) 1 to 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 3 to 4
D) 4 to 5
Q3) The normal periodontal ligament space appears as a ____ line.
A) Thin radiopaque
B) Thin radiolucent
C) Thick radiopaque
D) Thick radiolucent
Q4) The periodontal ligament space is located between the root of the tooth and the:
A) Crest of alveolar bone.
B) Lamina dura.
C) Cementum.
D) Spongy bone.
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Chapter 35: Interpretation of Trauma and Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Root fractures occur most often in the ____ region.
A) Maxillary central incisor
B) Mandibular central incisor
C) Maxillary molar
D) Mandibular molar
Q2) Condensing osteitis ____ vary in size and shape and ____ appear to be attached to the tooth root.
A) May; does
B) May; does not
C) May not; does
D) May not; does not
Q3) A chronic periapical abscess is:
A) Painful.
B) Usually asymptomatic.
C) Sensitive to percussion.
D) Sensitive to heat.
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