Dental Assisting Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills needed for a career as a dental assistant. Throughout the course, students learn about dental terminology, anatomy, infection control procedures, patient care techniques, dental instruments, radiography, restorative dentistry, and administrative duties in a dental office setting. Emphasis is placed on hands-on training, safety protocols, effective communication, and ethical practices within the dental healthcare team, preparing students to support dentists in delivering quality oral healthcare and ensuring a positive patient experience.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Dental Assisting 11th Edition by Doni L. Bird
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Chapter 1: History of Dentistry
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Q1) What important medical discovery did Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen make in 1895?
A)Inhalation anesthesia
B)X-rays
C)Amalgam
D)Novocain
Answer: B
Q2) In some dental schools today,women represent almost _____% of dental students.
A)30
B)50
C)70
D)90
Answer: B
Q3) To maintain accreditation status,dental and dental auxiliary schools are required to be reviewed every _____ years.
A)5
B)7
C)9
D)12
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Dental Assistant
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Q1) Professionalism:
A)is an attitude that is apparent in everything you do and say, in and out of the dental office.
B)is what you say in the dental office, as distinguished from what you say on your own time.
C)is what you do in the dental office, as distinguished from what you do on your own time.
D)means that you have a job.
Answer: A
Q2) A dental assistant can become a certified dental assistant (CDA)by:
A)passing the state clinical and written board examinations.
B)passing the national Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) examination.
C)graduating from an accredited dental assisting program.
D)working for 2 years in a dental office.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Dental Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental public health dentists treat the ______ rather than the individual.
A)community
B)association
C)family
D)general dentist
Answer: A
Q2) Which team member is legally responsible for the care of the patient?
A)Dentist
B)Dental hygienist
C)Dental assistant
D)Expanded-functions dental assistant
Answer: A
Q3) The technique that uses a circulating assistant is _____-handed dentistry.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)six
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Dental Ethics
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Q1) Which of the following ethical principles are you demonstrating by returning a wallet you found to the owner?
A)Veracity
B)Autonomy
C)Nonmaleficence
D)Justice
Q2) An ethical dilemma occurs when:
A)a patient can be hurt by the decision.
B)two ethical principles are in conflict.
C)a patient files a lawsuit.
D)an employee performs an illegal act.
Q3) "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you" is derived from which of the following sources of personal ethics?
A)Parents
B)Religion
C)Teachers
D)Basic instinct
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Chapter 5: Dentistry and the Law
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Q1) ____________ is (are)not included in the patient chart.
A)Patient financial records
B)Examination records
C)Radiographs
D)Correspondence to or about a patient
Q2) Asking for a parent's consent for emergency treatment in advance is called:
A)marginalization.
B)res gestae.
C)blanket consent.
D)thinking in advance.
Q3) A patient of record is a person who has:
A)contacted the office by phone or e-mail for an appointment.
B)been examined and diagnosed by a licensed dentist.
C)spoken with the dentist.
D)completed a medical and dental history form.
Q4) Removal of the wrong tooth is an example of a tort of omission because the correct tooth was not removed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: General Anatomy
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Q1) Adult stem cells:
A)can be obtained from bone marrow.
B)are the same as embryonic stem cells.
C)are also referred to as blastocysts.
D)are grown from fertilized eggs in a test tube used for research purposes.
Q2) Which part of the cell makes,stores,and transports cell proteins?
A)Membrane
B)Cytoplasm
C)Organelles
D)Nucleus
Q3) Imaginary lines called _______ are used to divide the body into sections.
A)divisions
B)sections
C)planes
D)structural units
Q4) Which portion of the cell manufacture,store,and transport proteins?
A)Nucleus
B)Organelles
C)Membrane
D)Cytoplasm
Page 8
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Chapter 7: General Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson's disease is a disorder of the _____ system.
A)respiratory
B)nervous
C)endocrine
D)circulatory
Q2) Pneumonia is a disease usually associated with which body system?
A)Circulatory
B)Respiratory
C)Nervous
D)Skeletal
Q3) The attachment of the muscle that is more movable is the muscle: A)origin.
B)insertion.
C)contraction.
Q4) Which of the following disorders is associated with the integumentary system?
A)Cystitis
B)Crohn's disease
C)Sinusitis
D)Eczema
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Chapter 8: Oral Embryology and Histology
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Q1) Fungiform papillae and their associated taste buds are considered a part of which of the following types of mucosa?
A)Specialized
B)Lining
C)Gingival
D)Masticatory
Q2) Teeth form from which of the following primordial layer(s)?
A)Ectoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Endoderm
D)Ectoderm and mesoderm
Q3) Which of the following is the name for the periodontal ligament fibers that are embedded in cementum and bone?
A)Gingival fibers
B)Sharpey's fibers
C)Interradicular fibers
D)Lamina dura
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Chapter 9: Head and Neck Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fontanelle,or soft spot,of a newborn infant is located where the parietal bones will articulate with which of the following bones?
A)Occipital
B)Frontal
C)Sphenoid
D)Temporal
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of restricted mandibular movement?
A)Crepitus
B)Bruxism
C)Clenching
D)Trismus
Q3) Which of the following bones is suspended between the mandible and the larynx?
A)Hyoid
B)mandible
C)maxilla
D)ethmoid
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11
Chapter 10: Landmarks of the Face and Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms corresponds to the "roof" of the mouth?
A)Vermilion border
B)Buccal mucosa
C)Hard palate
D)Vestibule
Q2) The isthmus of fauces between the two faucial arches contains which of the following structures?
A)Incisive papilla
B)Frenum
C)Uvula
D)Tonsil
Q3) Which state is not true of the unattached gingiva?
A)The unattached gingiva is the tissue that surrounds the necks of the teeth.
B)The unattached gingiva consists of tissues from the top of the gingival margin to the mucogingival junction.
C)The unattached gingiva is also called marginal gingiva.
D)The unattached gingiva is usually approximately 1 mm wide.
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Chapter 11: Overview of the Dentitions
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Q1) A proper contact between adjacent teeth stabilizes the dental arches by:
A)preventing food from being trapped between the teeth.
B)holding teeth in positive contact with each other.
C)protecting the interproximal gingival tissue from trauma during chewing.
D)stretching the periodontal ligament fibers.
Q2) The _____ surface is the chewing surface on anterior teeth.
A)incisal
B)occlusal
C)masticatory
D)lingual
Q3) Which of the following surfaces is closest to the tongue?
A)Incisal
B)Facial
C)Distal
D)Lingual
Q4) Which of the following is the preferred term for bicuspid?
A)Molar
B)Premolar
C)Canine
D)Incisor
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Chapter 12: Tooth Morphology
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Q1) Which of the following features of the posterior permanent dentition is associated with the termination of triangular grooves?
A)Central fossa
B)Triangular fossa
C)Central groove
D)Inclined cuspal plane
Q2) Which of the following terms is used to describe the rounded enamel extensions on the incisal edge of newly erupted central and lateral incisors?
A)Cusps
B)Mamelons
C)Diastemas
D)Fossas
Q3) Which of the following teeth are the largest and strongest maxillary teeth?
A)First molars
B)Second molars
C)Canines
D)Central incisors
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14
Chapter 13: Dental Caries
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Sample Questions
Q1) New restorative materials help reduce recurrent decay by eliminating the tiny space between the tooth and the restorative material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of dental caries?
A)It is a communicable bacterial infection.
B)It is a disease that affects older adults, but is rare in children.
C)It has been largely eliminated with the use of fluoride.
D)The emphasis in fighting caries is shifting toward restorations.
Q3) Incipient caries is the ______ stage of development of a carious lesion.
A)first
B)second
C)frank
D)overt
Q4) Chewing one stick of xylitol gum three times a day will help to do all except:
A)increase salivary flow.
B)assist in the remineralization of tooth surfaces.
C)replace interproximal plaque disruption with floss.
D)neutralize mouth acids.
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Chapter 14: Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is a type of gingival infection is characterized by necrosis of gingival papillae?
A)Juvenile periodontitis
B)Prepubertal periodontitis
C)Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D)Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
Q2) Which of the following classifications of chronic periodontitis is indicated by clinical attachment loss of up to 4 mm?
A)Gingivitis
B)Slight periodontitis
C)Moderate periodontitis
D)Severe periodontitis
Q3) Which of the following are the two basic forms of periodontal disease?
A)Gingivitis and calculus
B)Calculus and plaque.
C)Plaque and periodontitis
D)Gingivitis and periodontitis
Q4) A patient complaining of discomfort is one of the first signs of gingivitis.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Preventive Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) For patient education to be effective,it should be:
A)done properly a single time.
B)delivered by the dentist.
C)reinforced and repeated.
D)done on a separate visit from a treatment appointment.
Q2) Dental professionals generally recommend that patients use _____ toothbrushes.
A)soft-bristled nylon
B)soft-bristled natural
C)hard-bristled nylon
D)hard-bristled natural
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to identify a food that causes dental caries?
A)Cariogenic
B)Anticariogenic
C)Xylitol
D)Aspartame
Q4) The major effects of water fluoridation have been proven to be:
A)systemic.
B)topical.
C)irrelevant.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding required daily amount (RDA)of water in the diet?
A)The RDA for water is 16 ounces.
B)Foods and fruits satisfy most of the RDA.
C)Some foods do not contain water.
D)Vegetables are about 20% water.
Q2) Many times low-fat or reduced-fat foods have replaced fat with sugars,meaning the calorie count may be the same or higher than the original food.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following choices will support life and normal growth if it the sole source of protein in the diet?
A)Complete protein
B)Partially complete protein
C)Incomplete protein
D)Vitamin
Q4) Including sufficient calcium in your diet is important for keeping bones strong.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Oral Pathology
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Q1) Which of the following is a general term that means "white patch"?
A)Candidiasis
B)Hyperplastic
C)Leukoplakia
D)Aphthous
Q2) Which of the following is a broad term used to describe abnormal tissues in the oral cavity?
A)Tumor
B)Lesion
C)Cancer
D)Abscess
Q3) _______ is a condition characterized by abnormally small jaws.
A)Micrognathia
B)Macrognathia
C)Torus palatinus
D)Macrodontia
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Chapter 18: Microbiology
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Q1) Bacteria that do require oxygen in order to grow are called:
A)anaerobes.
B)aerobes.
C)spores.
D)gram-negative.
Q2) Which of the following types of viruses causes chickenpox?
A)Herpes zoster
B)Spores
C)Herpes type 1
D)Epstein-Barr virus
Q3) It is important for the dental assistant to have a foundation in microbiology to understand the nature of pathogens and to:
A)treat viral diseases, such as human immunodeficiency virus.
B)treat bacterial diseases, such as tuberculosis.
C)know how to prevent disease transmission in the dental office.
D)cure diseases.
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Chapter 19: Disease Transmission and Infection Prevention
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Q1) Protective Clothing Requirement Standards do not include:
A)clothing made of fluid-resistant material.
B)disposable jackets or gowns with long sleeves and high neckline.
C)minimizing the amount of uncovered skin.
D)requiring disposable gowns.
Q2) All of the following are descriptions of a sharps disposal container except:
A)puncture-resistant.
B)closeable and leakproof.
C)manufactured to be shredded in a paper shredder.
D)color-coded or labeled with a biohazard symbol.
Q3) Which of the following is recommended by the CDC after administration of the HBV vaccine?
A)Routine booster doses
B)Routine blood testing to monitor the HBV antibody level
C)Routine blood testing to monitor the HBV antigen level
D)A blood test to ensure that the individual has developed immunity
Q4) Which of the following is the most common type of latex allergy?
A)Type I allergic reaction
B)Type IV allergic reaction
C)Irritant dermatitis
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Chapter 20: Principles and Techniques of Disinfection
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Q1) Disinfectants used in dentistry must be:
A)registered with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B)registered as hospital disinfectants with tuberculocidal claims.
C)able to kill all spores.
D)both a and b
Q2) To effectively clean and disinfect dental treatment rooms:
A)latex examination gloves should be used.
B)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for fungicidal action, usually a minute.
C)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for fungicidal action, usually 10 minutes.
D)the surface should remain moist for the manufacturer's recommended time for tuberculocidal action, usually 10 minutes.
Q3) For sterilization to occur using an immersion disinfectant,items must be immersed for a minimum of _____ hours. A)2
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Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument
Processing and Sterilization
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Q1) Microorganisms in a steam sterilizer are killed by:
A)heat.
B)pressure.
C)both heat and pressure.
Q2) Some ultrasonic cleaning solutions have:
A)disinfectant properties.
B)enzymatic activity.
C)antimicrobial activity.
D)both b and c
Q3) All of the following will cause a sterilization failure except:
A)excessive packaging.
B)using correct packaging material.
C)overloading of sterilizer.
D)inadequate instrument cleaning.
Q4) An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning _____ instruments.
A)critical, semicritical, and noncritical
B)critical and semicritical
C)semicritical and noncritical
D)noncritical
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Chapter 22: Regulatory and Advisory Agencies
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Q1) The governmental regulatory agency that ensures the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants associated with dentistry is the:
A)Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C)Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
D)Centers for Disease Control (CDC).
Q2) The OSHA standards related to dentistry includes:
A)the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.
B)the Hazard Communication Standard.
C)the Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Healthcare Settings.
D)both a and b
Q3) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)is responsible for:
A)reviewing the manufacturers' antimicrobial claims to ensure that they are supported by scientific evidence.
B)regulating the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices.
C)publishing guidelines on preventing transmission of tuberculosis in healthcare settings including dental offices.
D)reviewing claims on the labels of products to be certain that those claims are true.
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Chapter 23: Chemical and Waste Management
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Q1) In the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)labeling system the color yellow indicates:
A)health hazard.
B)reactivity.
C)flammability.
D)special health hazards.
Q2) OSHA requires a sharps container to be all of the following except:
A)leak-proof.
B)puncture-resistant.
C)labeled with the dental practice name.
D)closable.
Q3) Toxicity resulting from high levels of exposure over a short period is defined as:
A)chronic chemical toxicity.
B)acute chemical toxicity.
C)chemical exposure toxicity.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
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Q1) Biofilm can contain many types of bacteria,including _____ protozoa.
A)fungi, algae, and
B)fungi, and algae, but not C)and fungi, but neither algae nor D)but not fungi, algae, or
Q2) Planktonic bacteria are:
A)unable to survive in DUWLs.
B)prevented from entering DUWLs by use of anti-retraction valves.
C)free floating in the water.
D)in the biofilm attached to DUWL walls.
Q3) Methods of reducing the level of bacterial contamination in waterlines include all of the following except:
A)yearly replacement of all water lines.
B)chemical treatment regimens.
C)self-contained water reservoirs.
D)microfiltration.
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Chapter 25: Ergonomics
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Q1) Prevention of carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)can be accomplished by:
A)warming the muscles and joints of hands by slowly opening and closing hands.
B)frequently resting the hands.
C)holding one arm out in front of body with hand extended, then pulling back gently with fingers of other hand.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Optimal operator positioning includes:
A)working from a neutral position.
B)repositioning the patient as necessary.
C)both a and b
D)none of the above.
Q3) The use of ambidextrous gloves can place excessive tension on the:
A)median nerve.
B)carpal bones.
C)synovial sheath.
D)thenar eminence.
Q4) Eyestrain is caused by not focusing for long enough periods during dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Patient Record
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Q1) The most graphic and detailed form in the patient record is the:
A)patient registration form.
B)clinical examination form.
C)treatment plan.
D)progress notes.
Q2) The written policy that must be provided to all patients regarding patient right to privacy is called:
A)PHI.
B)HIPAA.
C)medical alert information.
D)none of the above.
Q3) The written medical-dental health history form:
A)eliminates the need for a face-to-face conversation with the patient.
B)should be regarded as minimal information.
C)does not need to be signed and dated by the patient to certify that the information is correct.
D)is considered to be part of the treatment plan.
Q4) The patient record is not considered a legal document.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 27: Vital Signs
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Q1) The most common anatomic site for taking a patient's pulse is the _____ artery.
A)brachial
B)carotid
C)radial
D)femoral
Q2) The equipment necessary for taking a patient's blood pressure includes:
A)a stethoscope.
B)a Korotkoff cuff.
C)a sphygmomanometer.
D)both a and C
Q3) The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is _____ beats per minute.
A)10 to 20
B)30 to 40
C)50 to 60
D)5 to 12
Q4) What device is used to measure the arterial oxygen saturation of the blood?
A)Stethoscope
B)Electrocardiogram
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Sphygmomanometer
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Chapter 28: Oral Diagnosis and Treatment Planning
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Q1) A characteristic of healthy soft tissue is:
A)a light pink color.
B)uniform color.
C)no swelling.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The most common tooth-numbering systems used are the:
A)Universal System, the Palmer Notation System, and the International Standards Organization/Fédération Dentaire Internationale System.
B)Global Numbering System, the Bracket Numbering System, and the Palm Beach System.
C)Federal Numbering System, the Global Numbering System, and the Palmer Notation System.
D)World Numbering System, the Palmer Notation System, and the Bracket Numbering System.
Q3) In the Universal Numbering System,tooth #28 would be the _____ premolar.
A)mandibular left first
B)mandibular right first
C)maxillary right first
D)mandibular right second
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Chapter 29: The Special Needs and Medically
Compromised Patient
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Q1) Depression is:
A)a feeling that "all is not well."
B)a disturbance in thinking and perception.
C)hallucinations.
D)an emotional feeling of rejection and withdrawal.
Q2) When an assistant is asked to work with a medically and physically compromised patient and family in developing and implementing a preventive program:
A)it should be tailored to the needs of the patient.
B)it should be the standard preventive program presented to all patients.
C)he or she should respond that this is not a delegable function for an assistant.
D)he or she should transfer the patient to the dental hygienist for instructions.
Q3) Treatment modifications for hearing-impaired patients include:
A)leaning toward the patient's ears while speaking directly into them.
B)talking with a family member rather than the patient.
C)using written information to supplement communication.
D)shouting when they do not respond.
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Chapter 30: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) A drug applied directly to the site of use is considered:
A)a local-action drug.
B)a systemic-action drug.
C)a drug that affects the whole body.
D)both a and B
Q2) Tylenol,another name for acetaminophen,is a _____ name.
A)chemical
B)generic
C)brand or trade
D)primary or true
Q3) Tylenol with codeine,a common drug prescribed in dentistry for analgesic (pain-relief)purposes,is a Schedule _____ drug.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Chapter 31: Assisting in a Medical Emergency
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Sample Questions
Q1) When defibrillation is provided within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest,there is about a _____ chance that you can save the victim's life.
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Q2) A reduction of blood flow to the brain that causes the patient to lose consciousness is called:
A)syncope.
B)fainting.
C)hypertension.
D)both a and b
Q3) During a medical emergency,the dentist and staff are responsible for providing emergency care until:
A)the emergency situation is resolved and the patient recovers.
B)more qualified personnel arrive.
C)someone calls 9-1-1 and emergency care is dispatched.
D)a physician is contacted by telephone.
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Chapter 32: The Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two work zones in a centralized sterilization area are:
A)storage and clean.
B)contaminated and clean.
C)sterilized and clean.
D)dirty and storage.
Q2) The goal of morning and evening routines for clinical areas in a dental practice are:
A)performed with the goal of leaving the office as soon as patient treatment is completed for the day.
B)performed with the goal of leaving the office ready for patient care in the morning.
C)the responsibility of the dentist to perform, in most practices.
D)the responsibility of the business office staff members to perform, in most practices.
Q3) When the dental chair is in the supine position,the:
A)back of the chair is positioned at a vertical 90-degree angle.
B)patient is positioned as if lying down.
C)patient's head is lower than the feet.
D)patient is in the correct position for exposure of radiographs and for taking impressions.
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Chapter 33: Delivering Dental Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct positioning of the operator's stool should include:
A)feet on base.
B)thighs elevated higher than hips.
C)backrest positioned to support the upper portion of the back.
D)none of the above.
Q2) The ideal fulcrum position should be:
A)on the same arch that is being worked on.
B)in the same quadrant that is being worked on.
C)as close to the working area as possible.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The dentist and the dental assistant try to eliminate or reduce class _____ movements to reduce stress and body fatigue.
A)IV and V
B)III and IV
C)II and III
D)I and II
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Chapter 34: Dental Hand Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hand cutting instrument used to cut enamel and bevel the gingival margins of a cavity preparation is a(n):
A)hatchet.
B)excavator.
C)hoe.
D)gingival margin trimmer.
Q2) Dental hand instruments:
A)are always referred to by number and never by name.
B)are made from stainless steel to withstand sterilization; disposable instruments can be made from carbon steel, plastic, or specialized metal.
C)must be able to withstand sterilization procedures.
D)are also referred to as rotary equipment.
Q3) According to G.V.Black's instrument formula,which number represents the angle of the blade on a hand cutting instrument?
A)First
B)Third
C)Second
D)None of the above
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Chapter 35: Dental Handpieces and Accessories
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type (#)of bur helps to provide angles to the walls of the cavity preparation with retention grooves?
A)699
B)4
C)56
D)330
Q2) The low-speed handpiece operates at _____ rotations per minute (rpm).
A)100 to 500
B)1000 to 5000
C)10,000 to 30,000
D)10,000 to 100,000
Q3) The most varied category of rotary instruments is:
A)diamond rotary instruments.
B)laboratory burs.
C)carbide burs.
D)abrasive rotary instruments.
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Chapter 36: Moisture Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plastic,U-shaped frame is placed _____ the dam; the metal Young frame and the Ostby frame are placed _____ the dam.
A)under; outside B)under; under C)outside; under D)outside; outside
Q2) The isolation of anterior teeth is usually:
A)only on the tooth being restored.
B)on the tooth being restored and one tooth on each side.
C)from canine to canine.
D)on the quadrant in which the tooth to be restored is located.
Q3) The high-volume evacuator (HVE)is able to take up water and debris because a _____ volume of air is moved into the vacuum hose at _____ pressure to create a strong suction.
A)high; high
B)high; low
C)low; high
D)low; low
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Chapter 37: Anesthesia and Pain Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) General anesthesia is most safely administered in the:
A)general dentist's office.
B)oral surgeon's office.
C)hospital.
D)periodontist's office.
Q2) Intravenous sedation:
A)may be performed by any dentist, without a requirement for additional training.
B)may be monitored by a certified dental assistant in some states after completion of a board-certified course.
C)is not permitted for children as a part of the scope of dental practice.
D)requires measurement of the patient's height for dose determination.
Q3) The dental assistant is preparing anesthesia for tooth #13.What length needle would be selected?
A)1 5/8 inches
B)5/8 inch
C)1 inch
D)2 inches
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Chapter 38:
Foundations of Radiography, Radiographic Equipment, and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is a minute bundle of energy that has no weight or mass.
A)ion
B)atom
C)photon
D)electron
Q2) A lead apron and a thyroid collar:
A)are used for a full-mouth series of films but are not necessary for single periapical films.
B)must be used on all patients for all exposures.
C)are required for pediatric patients but is optional for adults.
D)are mandated only for pregnant women.
Q3) If the operator's film badge indicates an exposure to small amounts of radiation,what should be done?
A)Consult a physician.
B)Ignore the report.
C)Evaluate the x-ray equipment and techniques.
D)Change the mA and kVp.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Digital Imaging, Dental Film, and Processing
Radiographs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used film size for adult intraoral dentistry is size:
A)#0.
B)#2.
C)#3.
D)#4.
Q2) The radiographic image is located within the _____ of the radiographic film.
A)acetate film base
B)adhesive layer that attaches the emulsion to the film base
C)gelatin that suspends the emulsion
D)protective layer that protects the emulsion surface
Q3) When developer solution in an automatic processor is warmer than 83° F,the processed film will appear:
A)dark or black.
B)gray.
C)clear.
D)light.
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Chapter 40: Legal Issues, Quality Assurance, and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality assurance is a way of ensuring that everything possible is being done to produce high-quality diagnostic images and includes quality:
A)administration procedures.
B)control of dental staff credentials.
C)control tests.
D)Both a and c are correct.
Q2) A good protocol to follow for decreasing the contamination of dental imaging equipment and supplies is to:
A)gather all supplies needed before beginning the procedure.
B)use overgloves if additional supplies are needed during a procedure.
C)ask for help.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) According to the test for x-ray film freshness,the film is fresh and has been properly stored and handled when the processed film appears:
A)solid black.
B)clean with a slight green tint.
C)clean with a slight blue tint.
D)fogged.
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Chapter 41: Intraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the paralleling technique,the central ray of the x-ray beam must be _____ to the film sensor and the long axis of the tooth.
A)intersecting
B)interproximal
C)parallel
D)perpendicular
Q2) If the patient is in a wheelchair,does not have the use of his or her upper limbs,and a film sensor holder cannot be used to stabilize the film sensor,you should:
A)ask the patient's caregiver to assist in holding the film sensor.
B)hold the film sensor in the patient's mouth while you press the exposure button.
C)hold the film sensor in the patient's mouth and ask the caregiver to press the exposure button.
D)do none of the above.
Q3) When taking periapical images,it is best to start with anterior images because:
A)they are easier on the operator to take.
B)patients are less likely to gag with anterior film sensor placement.
C)patients can tolerate the film sensor size easier.
D)of both b and c
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Chapter 42: Extraoral Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements about the panoramic tubehead are true except the A)tubehead rotates the film behind the patient's head.
B)tubehead rotates behind the patient's head.
C)vertical angulation of the tubehead is not adjustable.
D)tubehead houses the filament that produces electrons and target that produces radiographs.
Q2) Advantages of panoramic imaging,when contrasted with intraoral imaging,include:
A)less radiation exposure.
B)no focal trough limitations.
C)lower equipment cost.
D)both a and c
Q3) A radiopaque,cone-shaped artifact on a panoramic image that interferes with the diagnostic information is caused by the:
A)patient's chin was too high during the procedure.
B)patient's lead apron was incorrectly placed or a lead apron with a thyroid collar was used.
C)patient's head was posterior to the focal trough.
D)patient moved during the procedure.
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Chapter 43: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage to using glass ionomer as a restorative material?
A)Glass ionomer has the ability to bind to teeth mechanically, rather than chemically.
B)Glass ionomer releases fluoride after their final setting.
C)Loss of gloss indicates a proper mix of glass ionomer material.
D)There is no need to avoid contact with water during the mixing procedure for glass ionomer.
Q2) Composite resin materials are supplied in all of the following ways except they:
A)are supplied in a lightproof syringe.
B)require mixing.
C)are supplied in various shades.
D)do not require mixing.
Q3) To adjust the occlusion on a recently place amalgam,the patient should be instructed to bite ______ on the articulating paper.
A)firmly
B)and rotate repeatedly
C)lightly
D)and open and close again
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Chapter 44: Dental Liners, Bases, and Bonding Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulating base material should cover the entire _______ to a thickness of _____ mm.
A)cavity preparation; 1 to 2
B)pulpal floor; 1 to 2
C)cavity preparation; 2 to 3
D)pulpal floor; 3 to 4
Q2) A necessary step in preparation for dentin bonding is:
A)application of an etchant.
B)addition of the smear layer.
C)removal of the smear layer.
D)both a and c
Q3) Dental varnish is used in the cavity preparation to:
A)seal dentinal tubules.
B)reduce leakage around a restoration.
C)stimulate growth of reparative dentin.
D)do both a and b
Q4) When a varnish is used,it is always used before other materials.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Dental Cements
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should dental cements be dispensed for mixing?
A)Dispense the liquid into the powder.
B)Dispense the powder first and then the liquid.
C)Dispense the material prior to beginning the procedure.
D)Dispense by hold the bottle of liquid at a 45-degree angle to ensure accurate drop size.
Q2) Which method would not be used to remove excess cement from an indirect restoration?
A)Use an explorer.
B)Use a firm fulcrum.
C)Move instruments in a horizontal direction.
D)Pull excess cement down away from the casting.
Q3) Which cement inhibits recurrent decay?
A)Zinc phosphate
B)Glass ionomer
C)Zinc oxide-eugenol
D)Composite resin
Q4) If used as a base,zinc phosphate requires the use of a liner first.
A)True
B)False
47
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Chapter 46: Impression Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the four types of elastomeric materials has the best dimensional stability?
A)Polysulfide
B)Polyether
C)Condensation silicone
D)Polysiloxane
Q2) Which irreversible hydrocolloid material is used most widely for preliminary impressions?
A)Light-bodied
B)Alginate
C)Polysulfide
D)Polyether
Q3) What percent relative humidity is preferred for storing impressions?
A)10
B)35
C)70
D)100
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the patient bite when positioning the bite-fork during a face-bow registration?
A)Quickly
B)Firmly
C)Slowly
D)Slide
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes the pouring methods used to create the base portion of a dental model?
A)The art portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used.
B)The completed box should extend at least 1 inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used.
C)The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large mixture of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step.
D)The "box" used in the box-and-pour method is made of baseplate wax.
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Chapter 48: General Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What responsibility does the dental assistant provide during a permanent restorative procedure?
A)Determine the types of materials to be used for the restoration.
B)Provide moisture control by using the high-velocity suction.
C)Check occlusion of the restoration.
D)Administer local anesthetic.
Q2) Tooth whitening,or vital bleaching,is not indicated for a dental patient with which condition?
A)Enamel hyperplasia
B)Extrinsic stains from foods, cigarette smoking, coffee, or tea
C)Aged teeth
D)Intrinsic stains, such as mild tetracycline stains or mild fluorosis
Q3) Which restorative material is selected for the permanent restoration of a class I lesion?
A)Composite
B)Amalgam
C)Glass ionomer
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 49: Matrix Systems for Restorative Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is correct concerning the purpose of the anterior matrix systems?
(Select all that apply.)
A)The matrix protects the adjacent tooth during preparation.
B)The clear plastic allows the curing light to penetrate the material, completing the curing process.
C)The matrix protects the adjacent teeth from the materials.
D)The matrix helps in reconstructing the natural contour of the tooth.
E)The height of the band signifies the height of the marginal ridge.
Q2) The Tofflemire retainer that has been designed with a slight bend in the body to accommodate positioning from the lingual surface is known by what name?
A)AutoMatrix
B)Palodent-type matrix band
C)Contra-angle
D)Spot-welded band
Q3) Which matrix system that is used with posterior composite restorations?
A)AutoMatrix
B)Tofflemire
C)T-band
D)Palodent
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Fixed Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs at the final appointment in the crown and bridge process?
A)Cementation of a permanent crown
B)Casting try-in
C)Choose a shade
D)Writing the laboratory prescription
Q2) Which type of crown does not cover the entire anatomic portion of the tooth?
A)Full
B)Three-quarter
C)Porcelain-fused-to-metal
D)Gold
Q3) Which statement best describes an indirect restoration?
A)It is a cast restoration.
B)It is permanent.
C)It can be an inlay, onlay, crown, or bridge.
D)It can be all of the above.
Q4) What is (are)the indication(s)for prescribing fixed prosthodontics?
A)The patient wants it.
B)One or two adjacent teeth are missing in the mouth.
C)Supportive teeth are healthy.
D)All of the above are indications.
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Chapter 51: Provisional Coverage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is incorrect about prefabricated crowns?
A)The crowns are supplied in many types of materials, depending on the location of the provisional.
B)Prefabricated crowns can be used for posterior and anterior preparations.
C)The crowns are available for bridges as well as for single units.
D)Prefabricated crowns can be shaped to match adjacent teeth.
Q2) The two types of provisional coverage include _____ and _____.
A)direct; indirect
B)functional; esthetical
C)custom; prefabricated
D)polymer; monomer
Q3) What instructions are given regarding home care instructions for a patient with provisional coverage?
A)Avoid chewing on the provisional.
B)Brush carefully and avoid flossing, because it could pop the provisional off.
C)If the provisional comes off, contact the office immediately so it can be put back on.
D)No special home care instructions are required.
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Chapter 52: Removable Prosthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one advantage of a lingual rest?
A)It minimizes trauma to the tooth by transmitting stress along the long axis of the tooth.
B)It is placed on the lingual surface of the tooth so that it is not visible from the front.
C)It is easier to reach when cleaning the partial denture.
D)It extends onto the occlusal surface of the tooth.
Q2) Festooning is completed during which appointment?
A)Records
B)Final impression
C)Try-in of baseplates and occlusal rim
D)Try-in
Q3) What is the metal device that is designed to protect the abutment teeth from excessive occlusal loads and stress during mastication?
A)Minor connector
B)Rest
C)Clasp
D)Stress breaker
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Chapter 53: Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is placed into the implant during the second stage of surgery?
A)Hydroxyapatite
B)Abutment post
C)Titanium abutment
D)A stent
Q2) Which statement is correct about dental implants?
A)They require modification of adjacent teeth.
B)They are far less expensive than a conventional bridge.
C)They can prevent the bone loss and gum recession that often accompany bridgework and dentures.
D)They can support a bridge, but not a denture.
Q3) Which term refers to the bond that is developed between living bone and the surface of an implant fixture?
A)Ostectomy
B)Transosteal
C)Subperiosteal
D)Osseointegrated
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Chapter 54: Endodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process is used to remove bacteria,necrotic tissue,and organic debris from the root canal?
A)Obturation
B)Opening the canal
C)Debridement
D)Shaping
Q2) When the tooth pulp is irritated and the patient experiences pain to thermal stimuli,a diagnosis of ______ can be made.
A)periradicular cyst
B)reversible pulpitis
C)irreversible pulpitis
D)periodontal abscess
Q3) Which vitality test is the least useful?
A)Heat
B)Cold
C)Percussion
D)Electronic pulp
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56
Chapter 55: Periodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is defined as a surgical procedure involving the removal of bone.
A)Osseous surgery
B)Ostectomy
C)Osteoplasty
D)A pedicle graft
Q2) Which periodontal surgery does not remove any of the affected tissue,but pushes the tissues away from the underlying tooth roots and alveolar bone?
A)Gingivectomy
B)Flap surgery
C)Incisional surgery
D)Both b and c
Q3) Which process involves scraping or cleaning the gingival lining of the pocket to remove necrotic tissue from the pocket wall?
A)Gingival curettage
B)Gingival debridement
C)Scaling
D)Root planing
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Chapter 56: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dislodgement of the clot from the socket or an infection in the socket can facilitate which condition?
A)Alveolitis
B)Dry socket
C)Severe bleeding
D)Both a and b
Q2) Which statement is incorrect regarding a dry socket?
A)The healing process of a dry socket may take as long as 2 weeks.
B)The patient will need to return daily for a dressing change until the socket begins to heal.
C)Women taking oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are more susceptible to a dry socket.
D)Dry sockets do not hurt and occur immediately after tooth removal.
Q3) Which statement is incorrect about sutures?
A)Generally, if a scalpel is used, sutures are indicated.
B)Absorbable sutures should be removed 5 to 7 days after the procedure.
C)Suture removal can be an expanded function of a dental assistant.
D)The type of surgery performed will determine the type of suture technique used.
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Chapter 57: Pediatric Dentistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the techniques listed should not be used to alleviate a child's fear of dental treatment?
A)Permitting the child to participate
B)Threatening the child
C)Rewarding for good behavior
D)Giving the child some control
Q2) Which of the following are designed to hold open space when a primary tooth has been lost prematurely?
A)Bite-blocks
B)Bite planes
C)Mouth guards
D)Space maintainers
Q3) Pediatric dentists recommend the first appointment for a child should take place by _____ year(s)of age.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Chapter 58: Coronal Polishing
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Sample Questions
Q1) If scaling the teeth is indicated before polishing,who performs the scaling?
A)DDS
B)EFDA or RDA
C)RDH
D)Either a or c
Q2) How should a bristle brush be used?
A)Rotate rapidly before touching the tooth surface.
B)Apply lightly to the tooth surface while revolving at the lowest speed.
C)Place on the tooth while not rotating, and rotate slowly.
D)Place on the tooth while not rotating, and rotate in a reverse direction.
Q3) The lingual surfaces of the maxillary right quadrant are polished with the patient's head positioned ______ the operator.
A)up and toward B)up and away from C)down and toward D)down and away from
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Chapter 59: Dental Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Properly placed dental sealants are ___% effective in protecting against development of caries in sealed surfaces.
A)70
B)80
C)90
D)100
Q2) Which technique error most commonly leads to sealant failure?
A)Moisture
B)Fail to cure properly
C)Not using enough material
D)Using too much material
Q3) Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to ____-containing products.
A)acrylate
B)eugenol
C)sodium bicarbonate
D)Bis-GMA
Q4) Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Orthodontics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cementation of bands,where is the cement placed?
A)Into the tubes
B)On the tooth
C)Outer surface of the band
D)Inner surface of the band
Q2) Arch wires that are made of _____ are useful in early stages of treatment because they are flexible.
A)nickel titanium
B)stainless steel
C)beta titanium
D)Opti-Flex
Q3) Which of the following is used to place elastic separators?
A)Hemostat
B)Dental floss
C)Elastic separating pliers
D)Either b or c
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Chapter 61: Communication in the Dental Office
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15622
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following helps to form a patient's response to dental treatment?
A)Limited to what is being done at the time
B)Results primarily from causes that are part of the present situation
C)May be hostile as a result of the dental staff
D)Influenced by the patient's total personality
Q2) What is the most important public relations tool in the dental office?
A)Telephone
B)Practice newsletter
C)Newspaper ads
D)Computer
Q3) What is conflict?
A)Stress
B)Harassment
C)Differences
D)Socialization
Q4) What is nonverbal communication?
A)It is expressed through body language.
B)It is expressed through body language and eye expression.
C)It can cause a feeling of alarm in a patient.
D)Both b and c are correct.
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Chapter 62: Business Operating Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15623
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be used to help in sorting files from active to inactive?
A)File guides
B)Outguides
C)Aging tabs
D)Ledgers
Q2) Where would you look to find expense records such as receipts and paid bills?
A)Patient dental records
B)Patient financial records
C)Practice business records
D)Accounts receivable records
Q3) The cross-reference file is used in which system?
A)Alphabetic
B)Color-coded
C)Chronologic
D)Numeric
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Chapter 63: Financial Management in the Dental Office
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15624
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is incorrect concerning HIPAA and electronic transactions?
A)All Medicaid claims must be made electronically.
B)HIPAA was implemented to promote the integrity and standardization of electronic claims submissions.
C)All dental offices must file insurance claims electronically.
D)The goal of HIPAA is to have one standardized format for each specific transaction along with a standard set of procedure codes.
Q2) What is a change fund?
A)Money that is part of the daily deposit
B)A reserve usually less than five dollars
C)Maintained to have money available when a patient pays cash
D)Will be different at the end of the day than it was at the beginning of the day
Q3) What records does the government require dental office to keep?
A)Hours each employee works
B)Amounts paid to each employee
C)Amounts deducted for tax purposes
D)All of the above
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Chapter 64: Marketing Your Skills
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15625
Sample Questions
Q1) What should be included in a resume?
A)Evidence to convince the employer to hire you without needing an interview
B)A list of your work experiences in order, beginning with the oldest and working up to the most recent
C)A list of your educational background
D)Personal data such as hobbies and interests
Q2) If the employment agency charges the dentist 15% of the annual starting salary of a dental assistant,which is $21,000,what is the fee that the dentist owes the agency?
A)$315.00
B)$31.50
C)$3150
D)$262.50
Q3) Why is a follow-up letter sent after an interview?
A)To inquire about why you did not get the position
B)To thank the interviewer for hiring you
C)To reaffirm your interest in the position
D)To request status if it has been more than 2 weeks after the interview
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